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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS? 210-260 dumps
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 6
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9
When a company puts a security policy in place, 210-260 dumps what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Exam Code: 300-070
Total Questions: 189 Q&As
300-070 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two types of encoding are available to configure a T1 controller for CAS? (Choose two.)
A. B8SF
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. SF
E. AME
F. ESF
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
What function does the device pool perform?
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which mechanism is often configured on the edges of a network to control the maximum rate of traffic that is sent or received on an interface and to classify the traffic into priority levels or class of service?
A. routing
B. shaping
C. policing
D. access control
E. traffic regulation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold.
B. Media Resource Manager.
C. Media Resource Group.
D. Route list.
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 5
Which three items have a calling search space? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. transcoder
B. gateways
C. phone lines
D. phones
E. partitions
F. AAR groups
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two codecs are required for Cisco WebEx Enabled TelePresence? (Choose two.)
A. G.711 codec for audio
B. H.264 codec for video
C. G.729 codec for audio
D. G.711 or G.729 codec for audio
E. H.263 codec for video
F. H.264 or H.263 codec for video
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed.
Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An organization with a centralized dial plan has user extensions as the last four digits of the external DID number. 300-070 dumps Some users at the head office have overlapping extensions with the users at the branch offices.
Which action fixes this issue without changing user extensions and allowing users to call each other across sites?
A. Use site codes.
B. Use different CSSs for both sites.
C. Place both extensions in different partitions.
D. Change the number of digits in the internal extensions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Implementing a SQL Data Warehouse (beta)
Exam Code: 70-767
Total Questions: 237 Q&As
70-767 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to select an appropriate tool for creating the Regional Sales report.
Which tools or tools should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Power View, using a table configured for vertical multiples
B. Excel 2010, using a PivotTable
C. Report Builder, using a Matrix
D. Power View, using a table configured for horizontal multiples
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
You need to design a cube partitioning strategy to be implemented as the cube size increases.
What should you do?
A. Use relational OLAP (ROLAP) on all local partitions.
B. Implement monthly remote partitions.
C. Use multidimensional OLAP (MOLAP) on all local partitions.
D. Implement monthly local partitions.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is required in order for a differential backup to be useful for recovery purposes?
A. A full backup taken previous to the differential backup.
B. Hard drive space that is 2 times the size of the database you want to restore.
C. Less than 1000 database transactions an hour.
D. A full backup taken after the differential backup.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are redesigning a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database that contains a cube named Sales. 70-767 dumps
Before the initial deployment of the cube, partition design was optimized for processing time. The cube currently includes five partitions named FactSalesl through FactSales5. Each partition contains from 1 million to 2 million rows.
The FactSales5 partition contains the current year’s information. The other partitions contain information from prior years; one year per partition. Currently, no aggregations are defined on the partitions.
You remove fact rows that are more than five years old from the fact table in the data source and configure query logs on the SSAS server.
Several queries and reports are running very slowly.
You need to optimize the partition structure and design aggregations to improve query performance and minimize administrative overhead.
What should you do? (More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Use the Aggregation Design Wizard to create aggregations for the current partitions.
B. Combine all the partitions into a single partition. Use the Usage-Based Optimization Wizard to create aggregations.
C. Combine all the partitions into a single partition. Use the Aggregation Design Wizard to create aggregations.
D. Use the Usage-Based Optimization Wizard to create aggregations for the current partitions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You need to recommend a solution to implement the data security requirements for CUBE1.
Which three actions should you recommend performing in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-767 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-767 dumps
QUESTION 6
You need to prepare the infrastructure for the planned implementation of Gallery1.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution,
A. Install a Database Engine instance.
B. Run the PowerPivot Configuration Tool.
C. Install the SQL Server Reporting Services add-in for SharePoint.
D. Install SQL Server PowerPivot for SharePoint.
E. Install the SQL Server Reporting Services – SharePoint feature.
F. Run the Install-SPUserSolution cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package configuration strategy.
The package configuration must meet the following requirements:
• Include multiple properties in a configuration.
• Force packages to load all settings in the configuration.
• Support Encrypting File System (EFS) formats.
You need to select the appropriate configuration.
Which configuration type should you use? 70-767 dumps To answer, select the appropriate option from the drop-down list in the dialog box.
70-767 dumps
Hot Area:
70-767 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-767 dumps
QUESTION 8
You need to create the factCustomerContact table.
Which type of table should you create?
A. A fact table with a non-additive measure
B. A factless fact table
C. A periodic snapshot fact table
D. A fact table with an additive measure
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You have a SQL Server database named DB1.
You plan to load 10 million rows to DB1 by running bcp.exe.
You need to modify DB1 to minimize the amount of space required to store the transaction logs during the load operation. The solution must ensure that you can perform a point-in-time restore.
Which database Setting should you modify?
A. Compatibility level to 120
B. Containment type to partial.
C. Recovery model to Bulk logged.
D. Recovery model to simple.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a large partitioned fact table in a data warehouse. The table is stored as a clustered index. You need to modify the indexing solution to minimize the amount of disk space required to store the table.
What should you do?
A. Enable row compression for the clustered index.
B. Enable page compression for the clustered index.
C. Implement a clustered columnstore index.
D. Implement a nonclustered columnstore index.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Your network contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-767 dumps
You need to ensure that Server1 can provide iSCSI storage for Server2 and Server3. What should you do on Server1?
A. Install the iSCSI Target Server role service and configure iSCSI targets
B. Start the Microsoft iSCSI Initiator Service and configure the iSCSI Initiator Properties
C. Install the iSNS Server service feature and create a Discovery Domain
D. Install the Multipath I/O (MPIO) feature and configure the MPIO Properties
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You need to select and configure a tool for the monitoring solution.
What should you choose?
A. Performance Monitor configured with the MSAS11:Storage Engine Query counter
B. Performance Monitor configured with the MSAS11:Processing counter
C. SQL Server Profiler configured with the Query Processing: Query Subcube event
D. SQL Server Profiler configured with the Queries Events: Query Begin event
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
100-105 dumps Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.
Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 437 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber.
As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table? 300-115 dumps
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the function of NSF?
A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the.” Which statement describes what this indicates about the status of the port?
A. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
B. The bidirectional status of “unknown” indicates that the port will go into the disabled state because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
C. UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
D. The UDLD port is placed in the “unknown” state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is received on the interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
What is the result of the configuration? 300-115 dumps
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. 300-115 dumps The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
200-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which scheduling and management application can be installed on any hardware platform that meets the minimum specifications that the end customer decides to deploy?
A. Cisco Video Communications
B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Digital Media Manager
D. Cisco TelePresence Management Switch
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
When scheduling a multipoint conference, which three devices are required for the conference to be scheduled and completed successfully? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. multipoint control unit
C. video conferencing endpoints
D. Cisco Unity Connection
E. Cisco Unified IM and Presence
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which encoder is best suited for professional, studio-quality audio and video processing?
A. Scientific Atlanta Encoder
B. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 1000
C. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 2000
D. Cisco Digital Media Encoder 3000
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A sporting goods manufacturer has decided to network three (3) locations to improve efficiency in inventory control. 200-105 dumps The routers have been named to reflect the location: Boston, Frankfurt, and Lancaster.
The necessary networking has been completed at each location, and the routers have been configured with single area OSPF as the routing protocol. The Boston router was recently installed but connectivity is not complete because of incomplete routing tables.
Identify and correct any problem you see in the configuration.
Note: The OSPF process must be configured to allow interfaces in specific subnets to participate in the routing process.
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer: The question mentioned Boston router was not configured correctly or incomplete so we should check this router first. Click on Host B to access the command line interface (CLI) of Boston router.

QUESTION 5
Which of these is the core component of the Cisco Video Surveillance product suite that handles recording and serving of video feeds?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco IP camera
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Lab – Access List Simulation
A network associate is adding security to the configuration of the Corp1 router. The user on host C should be able to use a web browser to access financial information from the Finance Web Server. No other hosts from the LAN nor the Core should be able to use a web browser to access this server. Since there aremultiple resources for the corporation at this location including other resources on the Finance Web Server, all other traffic should be allowed.
The task is to create and apply a numbered access-list with no more than three statements that will allow ONLY host C web access to the Finance Web Server. No other hosts will have web access to the Finance Web Server. All other traffic is permitted.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords have been temporarily set to “cisco”.
The Core connection uses an IP address of 198.18.196.65
The computers in the Hosts LAN have been assigned addresses of 192.168.33.1 – 92.168.33.254
Host A 192.168.33.1
Host B 192.168.33.2
Host C 192.168.33.3
Host D 192.168.33.4
The servers in the Server LAN have been assigned addresses of 172.22.242.17 – 172.22.242.30 200-105 dumps
The Finance Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.23.
The Public Web Server is assigned an IP address of 172.22.242.17
200-105 dumps
Correct Answer: Check the answer in explanation

QUESTION 8
Cisco Video Surveillance Video Encoder cards perform which function?
A. the ability to use existing analog equipment with an IP-enabled video surveillance system
B. the ability to convert low-resolution video to high-definition video for video surveillance
C. the ability to stream digital media to digital media in an IP-enabled video recording environment
D. the ability to encrypt raw video signals to secure video signals
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
In an ISR Cisco Video Management and Storage System, what is the maximum storage capacity
allowed per module?
A. 1 TB per module
B. 2 TB per module
C. 3 TB per module
D. 500 MB per module
E. 750 MB per module
F. 850 MB per module
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance helpovercome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco TelePresence multipoint platform utilizes only Cisco Unified Communications Manager for call control? 200-105 dumps
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
B. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch
C. Cisco TelePresence Server
D. Cisco TelePresence Media Bridge Server
E. Cisco TelePresence System 500-32
F. Cisco TelePresence SX20
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after the respective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router? 200-125 dumps
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. 200-125 dumps Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Correct Answer: C,D

QUESTION 12
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSE: Enterprise Devices and Apps
Exam Name: Administering System Center Configuration Manager and Intune
Exam Code: 70-696
Total Questions: 86 Q&As
70-696 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the personal devices that run Windows 8.1 meet the corporate security policy requirements.
What should you do first?
A. Create a federated trust with Windows Azure Active Directory.
B. Create a federated identity relationship with the Microsoft Federation Gateway.
C. Enroll the device in Windows Intune.
D. Join the devices to the domain by using an offline domain join.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
All servers on your company’s network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows Vista. The company is planning to virtualize an application that is CPU intensive and that runs only on Windows Vista and Windows 7. 70-696 dumps You need to recommend a virtualization solution that minimizes the use of CPU resources on the server.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
C. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You manage a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
All client computers have the Configuration Manager client installed.
Users are members of the local Administrators group on their respective computer.
You are preparing the documentation for the support staff to remediate client issues.
You need to identify which issues will be resolved by auto-remediation.
Which three issues should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The WMI service was stopped by a user.
B. The WMI service was disabled by a user.
C. The SMS Agent Host service was removed by a user.
D. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were deleted by a user.
E. The Configuration Manager scheduled tasks were disabled by a user.
F. The SMS Agent Host service was stopped by a user.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 4
You need to prepare Server11.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a file named No_sms_on_drive in the root of drive C.
B. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to Automatic.
C. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary content location to E.
D. From the Add Site System Roles Wizard, set the primary package share location to E.
E. Copy Prepdrv.inf to the root of drive C.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You need to meet the application requirements of App4.
What should you do first?
A. Create a Mobile Device Security Policy.
B. Upload App4 to Windows Intune.
C. Set the Mobile Devices Management Authority.
D. Install the Windows Intune client software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. 70-696 dumps The forest contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager.
Configuration Manager has the client settings configured as shown in the following table.
70-696 dumps
Policy1, Policy2, and Policy3 are deployed to a collection named Collection1.
You need to configure the clients in Collection1 to have a client policy polling interval of 30 minutes.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-696 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-696 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to resolve the Windows update issue.
What should you do?
A. Modify the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in Active Directory.
B. Synchronize software updates from Configuration Manager.
C. Create an automatic deployment rule.
D. Add distribution points to each branch office.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
All servers on your company’s network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows Vista. The company is planning to virtualize an application that runs only on Windows 2000 Professional. You need to recommend a virtualization solution that enables users to run the virtualized application while their computers are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
C. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network includes servers that run a variety of Windows Server operating systems. You intend to virtualize as many physical servers as possible. You need to evaluate the current environment to identify the number of servers that can be virtualized. In the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit version 5.5, what should you run first?
A. Inventory Assessment Wizard
B. Application Virtualization Assessment
C. Performance Metrics Wizard
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 Readiness Assessment
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your virtual environment includes Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 R2 and third-party hypervisors. The virtual machines (VMs) include messaging, application, and database servers. 70-696 dumps You intend to standardize on Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. You are developing a migration plan by using the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit. You need to gather the necessary information to analyze the current virtual environment.
Which MAP assessment should you choose?
A. Application Virtualization Assessment
B. Virtual Machine Inventory
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 Readiness
D. Windows Server Role Discovery
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your network includes Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. Each Hyper-V server runs multiple virtual machines (VMs). You need to detect performance issues and generate an alert when Hyper-V server load exceeds specific thresholds.
Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft System Center Capacity Planner 2007
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007 R2
C. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 R2
D. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2008 R2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your company’s network includes 150 client computers that run Windows Vista Business. The company does not participate in the Microsoft Software Assurance program. You plan to implement a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) that includes 150 VDI sessions. You acquire three new servers that have four quad-core CPUs each. You need to choose the appropriate licenses.
Which licensing solution should you choose?
A. 3 Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter licenses
B. 150 Windows Vista Business licenses
C. 150 Windows Virtual Enterprise Centralized Desktop (VECD) licenses
D. 150 Windows 7 Professional Upgrade licenses and Software Assurance
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Office 365
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Exam Code: 70-346
Total Questions: 211 Q&As
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 1
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned.
An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned.
You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory. 70-346 dumps
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 3
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services for users.
You need to ensure that a custom domain name is used.
What should you do first?
A. Add the custom domain name to Office 365 and then verify it.
B. Verify the existing domain name.
C. Create an MX record in DNS.
D. Create a CNAME record in DNS.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You create an Office 365 tenant. You assign administrative roles to other users. You hire a new user named User2.
User2 must NOT be able to change passwords for other users.
You need to assign an administrative role to User2.
Which role should you assign?
A. Service administrator
B. Global administrator
C. Delegate administrator
D. Password administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company synchronizes the local Active Directory objects with a central identity management system.
The environment has the following characteristics:
Each department has its own organizational unit (OU).
The company has OU hierarchies for partner user accounts.
All user accounts are maintained by the identity management system.
You need to ensure that partner accounts are NOT synchronized with Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Configure OU-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
B. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure OU-based filtering.
C. Configure user attribute-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure user attribute-based filtering.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
User1 leaves the company. 70-346 dumps You must delete the account for User1.
In the table below, identify when each type of data will be deleted. Make only one selection in each column. Each correct selection is worth one point.
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 7
An organization deploys an Office 365 tenant.
User accounts must be synchronized to Office 365 by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
You have the following password policies:
Passwords for the on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) user accounts are at least six characters long.
Passwords for Office 365 user accounts are at least eight characters long.
You need to ensure that the user accounts will be synchronized. Which user accounts will be synchronized?
A. All user accounts
B. No user accounts
C. User accounts with a password length of at least 8 characters
D. User accounts with a password length of at least 14 characters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An organization prepares to implement Office 365.
You have the following requirements:
Gather information about the requirements for the Office 365 implementation.
Use a supported tool that provides the most comprehensive information about the current environment.
You need to determine the organization’s readiness for the Office 365 implementation.
What should you do?
A. Run the Windows PowerShell cmdlet Get-MsolCompanylnformation.
B. Run the OnRamp for Office 365 tool.
C. Install the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. Run the Office 365 Deployment Readiness Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool. 70-346 dumps
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from the file.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCP, Microsoft Specialist
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Exam Code: 70-532
Total Questions: 188 Q&As
70-532 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are deploying the web-based solution in the West Europe region.
You need to copy the repository of existing works that the plagiarism detection service uses. You must achieve this goal by using the least amount of time.
What should you do?
A. Copy the files from the source file share to a local hard disk. Ship the hard disk to the West Europe data center by using the Azure Import/Export service.
B. Create an Azure virtual network to connect to the West Europe region. Then use Robocopy to copy the files from the current region to the West Europe region.
C. Provide access to the blobs by using the Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN). Modify the plagiarism detection service so that the files from the repository are loaded from the CDN.
D. Use the Asynchronous Blob Copy API to copy the blobs from the source storage account to a storage account in the West Europe region.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are maintaining an application that uses the Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN) to serve terabytes of content that is stored in page blobs.
Your bill for CDN services is higher than you expect. 70-532 dumps
You need to monitor the application to find issues that increase costs.
Which two operations should you monitor? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. The Time-To-Live (TTL) of the blobs.
B. The country of origin for the client computer and the CDN region.
C. The number of requests that result in an HTTP status code over 400.
D. The allocated size of page blobs.
E. The expiration date of the blobs.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
You need to choose an Azure storage service solution.
Which solution should you choose?
A. Queue storage
B. Blob storage
C. File storage
D. Table storage
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You deploy an application as a cloud service in Azure.
The application consists of five instances of a web role.
You need to move the web role instances to a different subnet.
Which file should you update?
A. Service definition
B. Diagnostics configuration
C. Service configuration
D. Network configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You need to implement data storage for patient information.
What should you do?
A. Use the Update Entity operation of the Table Service REST API.
B. Use the Put Blob operation of the Blob Service REST API.
C. Use the Put Message operation of the Create Queue REST API.
D. Use the Set Share Metadata operation of the File Service REST API.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You update the portion of the website that contains biographical information about students. You need to provide data for testing the updates to the website.
Which approach should you use? 70-532 dumps
A. Use SQL Server data synchronization.
B. Use the Active Geo-Replication feature of Azure SQL Database.
C. Use SQL Replication.
D. Use the Geo-Replication feature of Azure Storage.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You need to insert code at line WR16 to implement the GetWork method.
How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-532 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps
QUESTION 8
A company maintains an Azure storage account. The storage account uses blobs and tables.Customers access the storage account by using shared access signatures (SASs).
You need to monitor the usage of the storage services. You need to do the following:
Understand which storage areas perform operations that incur a fee.
Understand which requests are denied because of insufficient permissions.
Validate that the performance of the storage account meets the service level agreement (SLA) for the Azure Storage service.
Which three data analysis tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use data from the logs of the storage services to find individual storage access attempts that do not comply with the SLA.
B. Use data from the logs of the storage services to calculate aggregate server latency across individual requests. Determine whether the results of this calculation indicate that the Azure Storage service is in compliance with the SLA.
C. Analyze the logs of the storage services to determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
D. Review the Azure documentation to determine which storage operations are billable. Then find records of those operations in the logs of the storage services.
E. Analyze the logs of the storage services to find records of operations that are marked as billable.
F. Correlate the data logged from the storage service with the permissions to store data in the individual blobs and containers. Determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
You store data in an Azure blob. Data accumulates at a rate of 0.10 GB per day.
You must use storage analytics data to verify that the service level agreement (SLA) has been met and to analyze the performance of VHDs, including the pattern of usage.
Analytics data must be deleted when it is older than 100 days or when the total amount of data exceeds 10GB. 70-532 dumps
You need to configure storage analytics and access the storage analytics data.
Which two approaches will achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Disable the data retention policy.
B. Access analytics data by using the Service Management REST APL
C. Access analytics data by using the APIs used to read blob and table data.
D. Configure a data retention policy of 100 days.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city.
You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that the user selects in the WeatherSummary application.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.lead4pass.com/70-532.html dumps exam questions and answers update.

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