Latest updates Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 dumps and pdf, 210-060 Practice Questions and Answers

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Table of Contents:

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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
An engineer must generate a report of Cisco Unified Communications Manager usage for capacity planning.
Where can this information be obtained within System Reports?
A. precedence call
B. voice usage
C. user usage
D. traffic
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which transport layer protocol is used when a Cisco Unified Presence client is searching for a contact in the directory?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IMAP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer must perform a manual backup of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. Where can
this backup be done?
A. Administration Resources
B. Serviceability
C. OS Administration
D. Disaster Recovery System
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
CUC 10.X supports LDAP integration with several widely used LDAP directories systems, including the following:
A. Microsoft Active Directory 2000, 2003 and 2008 (support for AD 2012 only in CUCM 10.x and later
B. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode 2003
C. Microsoft Lightweight Directory Services 2008
D. iPlanet Directory Server 5.1
E. Sun ONE Directory Server (5.2, 6.x)
F. Open LDAP (2.3.39, 2.4)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which three rules are valid transfer rules in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Standard
B. Alternate
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Nonstandard
Correct Answer: ABC
Standard Transfer Rule This transfer rule applies during the work hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for
your organization, or in other situations when no other transfer rule is enabled. By design, the standard transfer rule
cannot be disabled. Alternate Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule to apply during a specific time period when you
want to override the other transfer rules. For example, you may want to route all your calls directly to voice mail while
you are out of the office or you may want to transfer your calls to a different extension if you are temporarily working
from another location. As long as it is enabled, the alternate transfer rule overrides all other transfer rules. Closed
Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule if you want Cisco Unity to perform different transfer actions during the nonwork
hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for your organization. (For example, you may want to route all your
calls directly to voice mail during nonwork hours.) As long as it is enabled, the closed transfer rule overrides the
standard transfer rule during nonbusiness hours.

 

QUESTION 6
Which protocol is used between two Cisco IP phones once Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express connects a
call?
A. H.323
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. SIP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
What is the act of combing two active conferences via the MCU?
A. cascading
B. neighboring
C. multisite
D. clustering
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with Cisco Jabber clients who are outside the corporate
network?
A. Cisco Extension Mobility
B. Cisco TMS
C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination
D. Cisco Unified RTMT
E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
When creating a hunt group/ring group, where can you change the DN for all the devices at once?
A. Hunt pilot
B. Route pilot
C. Group file
D. Hunt list
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for
this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

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Free test Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statement about stateless firewalls is true? (Choose two)
A. the Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
B. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packets against configurable rules.
C. They cannot track connections..
D. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS..
E. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is Stateful by nature
Correct Answer: BC
5-tuple is: source/destination IP, ports, and protocols. Stateless firewalls cannot track connections.

 

QUESTION 2
What feature defines a campus area network?
A. It has a single geographic location.
B. It has limited or restricted Internet access.
C. It has a limited number of segments.
D. it lacks external connectivity.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which two characteristics of symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses digital certificates.
B. It uses a public key and a private key to encrypt and decrypt traffic.
C. it requires more resources than asymmetric encryption
D. it is faster than asymmetric encryption
E. It uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the traffic.
Correct Answer: DE
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/secret-key-algorithm

 

QUESTION 4
When is “Deny all” policy an exception in Zone Based Firewall
A. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in same zone
B. traffic sources from router via self zone
C. traffic terminates on router via self zone
D. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in different zones
E. traffic terminates on router via self zone
Correct Answer: A
+
There is a default zone, called the self zone, which is a logical zone. For any packets directed to the router directly (the
destination IP represents the packet is for the router), the router automatically considers that traffic to be entering the
self zone. In addition, any traffic initiated by the router is considered as leaving the self zone.
By default, any traffic to or from the self zone is allowed, but you can change this policy.
+
For the rest of the administrator-created zones, no traffic is allowed between interfaces in different zones.
+
For interfaces that are members of the same zone, all traffic is permitted by default.

 

QUESTION 5
What are two well-known security terms? (Choose Two)
A. Phishing.
B. BPDU guard
C. LACP
D. ransomeware
E. hair-pinning
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which SOURCEFIRE logging action should you choose to record the most detail about a connection.
A. Enable logging at the beginning of the session
B. Enable logging at the end of the session
C. Enable alerts via SNMP to log events off-box
D. Enable eStreamer to log events off-box
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisco ASA is in transparent mode?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Overload
D. Dynamic PAT
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?lead4pass 210-260 exam question q8

A. The two routers receive normal updates from one another
B. It enables authentication
C. It prevents keycham authentication
D. The two devices are able to pass the message digest to one another.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the most common implementation of PAT in a standard networked environment?
A. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network using the outside interface IP address
B. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network by using the inside interface IP address
C. configuring multiple external hosts to join the self-zone and to communicate with one another
D. configuring an any any rule to enable external hosts to communicate inside the network
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which feature filters CoPP packets?
A. Policy maps
B. route maps
C. access control lists
D. class maps
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDos attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which privileged level is … by default? for user exec mode
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
E. 15
Correct Answer: B
User EXEC mode commands are privilege level 1 Privileged EXEC mode and configuration mode commands are
privilege level 15. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/command/reference/fsecur_r/srfpass.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

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Free test Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE
“In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains,
which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is
referred to
as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.”
“A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs.”
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_LAN

 

QUESTION 2
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. high-speed packet switching
B. access control
C. firewalling and intrusion prevention
D. QoS marking
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q3

Cisco USC Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?
A. Adjust the Chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting.
B. Verify that air flow through the Chassis correctly.
C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS.
D. Remove the equipment that generates excessive hat near the top of the rack
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)
A. memory extension node
B. hard drive
C. fabric interconnect
D. power supply
E. compute node
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which communication type uses a one-to-many model to replicate packets that are delivered to many interested
recipients?
A. unknown unicast
B. broadcast
C. unicast
D. multicast
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D. NL port
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the feature on the left to the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
What is a function of a conferencing solution?
A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial
number?
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number
B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS- A# show host-id
D. MDS- A# show license host-id
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Which room system can also function as a white board?
A. Spark Board
B. Mx800
C. SX20
D. SX10
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
What is known as the User Policy?
A. Call Policy
B. Authentication
C. Me
D. Admin Policy
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?
A. Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Meeting Server
C. Spark
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: B

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Skills measured

  • Understanding server installation (10–15%)
  • Understanding server roles (25–30%)
  • Understanding Active Directory (20–25%)
  • Understanding storage (10–15%)
  • Understanding server performance management (10–15%)
  • Understanding server maintenance (15–20%)

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Latest effective Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-365 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which should you use to manage the working environments of users and computers in an Active Directory
infrastructure?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
B. Group Policy Objects
C. Builtin containers
D. Global security groups
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which technology is used to create and manage relational databases?
A. Microsoft Exchange Server
B. Microsoft Commerce Server
C. Microsoft Groove Server
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A system error window keeps displaying.
Where do you find detailed information about that error?
A. Event Viewer
B. Resource Monitor
C. Task Manager
D. Device Manager
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Enabling additional users to handle administrative tasks for a particular object is referred to as:
A. Redirection
B. Assignment
C. Targeting
D. Delegation
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the
group to access resources in any domain in the forest. Which type of group should you create?
A. Workgroup
B. Local group
C. Universal group
D. Global group
E. Domain Local group
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
What is the name for a stand-alone digital storage system connected directly to a server or workstation HBA?
A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSO
B. Direct Attached Storage (DAS)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
You notice frequent writes to the page file.
Which should you monitor to determine the cause?
A. CPU
B. RAM
C. Network
D. Hard disk
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
What is required for a computer to print to either a local or a network printer?
A. 500 GB of free hard disk space
B. Printer Device Drivers
C. 1 GB of RAM
D. Administration tools
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which type of license is required to connect remotely to an application?
A. Windows Server External Connector License
B. Remote Desktop Services Client Access License
C. System Center Operations Manager Client Management License
D. Remote Server Application License
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You are an IT intern for Tailspin Toys.
Your manager attends a conference out of town and wants you to perform routine maintenance directly on a Windows
2008 R2 server console.
Because you have restricted access, you need your manager to enter credentials at a UAC prompt in your session.
What should you do?
A. Have your manager use Server Manager to connect to the server.
B. Have your manager use Remote Administration to connect to the server.
C. Send a Remote Assistance request to your manager.
D. Have your manager use Remote Desktop to connect to the server.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
You need to apply a Windows Server 2008 group policy. You also need to prevent policies that are applied at lower
levels from affecting this new policy.
What should you do?
A. Set the policy to Loopback
B. Set the permission to Full Control
C. Select the Enforced policy link setting
D. Select the Enabled policy link setting
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two)
A. Shared storage
B. Failover
C. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D. Shared services
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 13
You need to centralize administration of print servers and network printers.
What should you use?
A. Print Management
B. Printers and Faxes
C. Device Manager
D. Print queue
Correct Answer: A

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Latest effective CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
After recovering from a data breach in which customer data was lost, the legal team meets with the Chief Security
Officer (CSO) to discuss ways to better protect the privacy of customer data. Which of the following controls support this
goal?
A. Contingency planning
B. Encryption and stronger access control
C. Hashing and non-repudiation
D. Redundancy and fault tolerance
Correct Answer: B
Encryption is used to protect data/contents/documents. Access control refers to controlling who accesses any
data/contents/documents and to exercise authorized control to the accessing of that data.


QUESTION 2
An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes
to integrate the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods
would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Unified Threat Management
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Single sign on
D. Role-based management
Correct Answer: A
Unified Threat Management (UTM) is, basically, the combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include
intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.
Advantages of combining everything into one:
You only have one product to learn.
You only have to deal with a single vendor.
IT provides reduced complexity.


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a security risk regarding the use of public P2P as a method of collaboration?
A. Data integrity is susceptible to being compromised.
B. Monitoring data changes induces a higher cost.
C. Users are not responsible for data usage tracking.
D. Limiting the amount of necessary space for data storage.
Correct Answer: A
Peer-to-peer (P2P) networking is commonly used to share files such as movies and music, but you must not allow users
to bring in devices and create their own little networks. All networking must be done through administrators and not on a
P2P basis. Data integrity can easily be compromised when using public P2P networking.


QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies when applied to android and iOS environments, can an organization use to add
security restrictions and encryption to existing mobile applications? (Select Two)
A. Mobile device management
B. Containerization
C. Application whitelisting
D. Application wrapping
E. Mobile application store
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
RC4 is a strong encryption protocol that is generally used with which of the following?
A. WPA2 CCMP
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C
Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) is a 128-bit stream cipher used WEP and WPA encryption.


QUESTION 6
The Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to improve security surrounding storage of customer passwords.
The company currently stores passwords as SHA hashes. Which of the following can the CTO implement requiring the
LEAST change to existing systems?
A. Smart cards
B. TOTP
C. Key stretching
D. Asymmetric keys
Correct Answer: A
Smart cards usually come in two forms. The most common takes the form of a rectangular piece of plastic with an
embedded microchip. The second is as a USB token. It contains a built in processor and has the ability to securely store
and process information. A “contact” smart card communicates with a PC using a smart card reader whereas a
“contactless” card sends encrypted information via radio waves to the PC. Typical scenarios in which smart cards are
used include interactive logon, e-mail signing, e-mail decryption and remote access authentication. However, smart
cards are programmable and can contain programs and data for many different applications. For example smart cards
may be used to store medical histories for use in emergencies, to make electronic cash payments or to verify the
identity of a customer to an e-retailer. Microsoft provides two device independent APIs to insulate application developers
from differences between current and future implementations: CryptoAPI and Microsoft Win32?SCard APIs. The
Cryptography API contains functions that allow applications to encrypt or digitally sign data in a flexible manner, while
providing protection for the user\\’s sensitive private key data. All cryptographic operations are performed by
independent modules known as cryptographic service providers (CSPs). There are many different cryptographic
algorithms and even when implementing the same algorithm there are many choices to make about key sizes and
padding for example. For this reason, CSPs are grouped into types, in which each supported CryptoAPI function, by
default, performs in a way particular to that type. For example, CSPs in the PROV_DSS provider type support DSS
Signatures and MD5 and SHA hashing.


QUESTION 7
A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution. Which of the following ports
should be opened? (Select TWO).
A. TCP 21
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 53
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53
Correct Answer: CE
DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.


QUESTION 8
In order to gain an understanding of the latest attack tools being used in the wild, an administrator puts a Unix server on
the network with the root users password to set root. Which of the following best describes this technique?
A. Pharming
B. Honeypot
C. Gray box testing
D. phishing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Company XYZ recently salvaged company laptops and removed all hard drives, but the Chief Information Officer (CIO)
is concerned about disclosure of confidential information. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to dispose
of these hard drives?
A. Degaussing
B. Physical Destruction
C. Lock up hard drives in a secure safe
D. Wipe
Correct Answer: B
The physical description of hard drives is the only secure means of disposing hard drives. This can include incineration,
an acid bath, and crushing.


QUESTION 10
A malicious user has collected the following list of information:
192.168.1.5 OpenSSH-Server_5.8
192.168.1.7 OpenSSH-Server_5.7
192.168.1.9 OpenSSH-Server_5.7
Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to gather this type of data?
A. Banner grabbing
B. Port scan
C. Host scan
D. Ping scan
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
It is important to staff who use email messaging to provide PII to others on a regular basis to have confidence that their
messages are not intercepted or altered during transmission. They are concerned about which of the following types of
security control?
A. Integrity
B. Safety
C. Availability
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: A
Integrity means that the messages/ data is not altered. PII is personally identifiable information that can be used to
uniquely identify an individual. PII can be used to ensure the integrity of data/messages.


QUESTION 12
A small business needs to incorporate fault tolerance into their infrastructure to increase data availability. Which of the
following options would be the BEST solution at a minimal cost?
A. Clustering
B. Mirrored server
C. RAID
D. Tape backup
Correct Answer: C
RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard
drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID can achieve fault tolerance using software
which can be done using the existing hardware and software.


QUESTION 13
While rarely enforced, mandatory vacation policies are effective at uncovering:
A. Help desk technicians with oversight by multiple supervisors and detailed quality control systems.
B. Collusion between two employees who perform the same business function.
C. Acts of incompetence by a systems engineer designing complex architectures as a member of a team.
D. Acts of gross negligence on the part of system administrators with unfettered access to system and no oversight.
Correct Answer: D
Least privilege (privilege reviews) and job rotation is done when mandatory vacations are implemented. Then it will
uncover areas where the system administrators neglected to check all users\\’ privileges since the other users must fill
in their positions when they are on their mandatory vacation.


QUESTION 14
A cafe provides laptops for Internet access to their customers. The cafe is located in the center corridor of a busy
shopping mall. The company has experienced several laptop thefts from the cafe during peak shopping hours of the
day. Corporate has asked that the IT department provide a solution to eliminate laptop theft. Which of the following
would provide the IT department with the BEST solution?
A. Attach cable locks to each laptop
B. Require each customer to sign an AUP
C. Install a GPS tracking device onto each laptop
D. Install security cameras within the perimeter of the caf?
Correct Answer: A
All laptop cases include a built-in security slot in which a cable lock can be inserted to prevent it from easily being
removed from the premises.


QUESTION 15
Several departments in a corporation have a critical need for routinely moving data from one system to another using
removable storage devices. Senior management is concerned with data loss and the introduction of malware on the
network. Which of the following choices BEST mitigates the range of risks associated with the continued use of
removable storage devices?
A. Remote wiping enabled for all removable storage devices
B. Full-disk encryption enabled for all removable storage devices
C. A well defined acceptable use policy
D. A policy which details controls on removable storage use
Correct Answer: D
Removable storage is both a benefit and a risk and since not all mobile devices support removable storage, the
company has to has a comprehensive policy which details the controls of the use of removable s to mitigate the range of
risks that are associated with the use of these devices.


QUESTION 16
A compromised workstation utilized in a Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attack has been removed from the
network and an image of the hard drive has been created. However, the system administrator stated that the system
was left unattended for several hours before the image was created. In the event of a court case, which of the following
is likely to be an issue with this incident?
A. Eye Witness
B. Data Analysis of the hard drive
C. Chain of custody
D. Expert Witness
Correct Answer: C
Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to
collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it
has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you\\’re open to dispute about possible evidence
tampering.


QUESTION 17
Which of the following works by implanting software on systems but delays execution until a specific set of conditions is
met?
A. Logic bomb
B. Trojan
C. Scareware
D. Ransomware
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
A technician has been tasked with installing and configuring a wireless access point for the engineering department.
After the AP has been installed, there have been reports the employees from other departments have been connecting
to it without approval. Which of the following would BEST address these concerns?
A. Change the SSID of the AP so that it reflects a different department, obscuring its ownership
B. Implement WPA2 encryption in addition to WEP to protect the data-in-transit
C. Configure the AP to allow only to devices with pre-approved hardware addresses
D. Lower the antenna\\’s power so that it only covers the engineering department\\’s offices
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
A security administrator suspects that an employee in the IT department is utilizing a reverse proxy to bypass the
company\\’s content filter and browse unapproved and non-work related sites while at work. Which of the following tools
could BEST be used to determine how the employee is connecting to the reverse proxy?
A. Port scanner
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Honeypot
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
A company has decided to move large data sets to a cloud provider in order to limit the costs of new infrastructure.
Some of the data is sensitive and the Chief Information Officer wants to make sure both parties have a clear
understanding of the controls needed to protect the data.
Which of the following types of interoperability agreement is this?
A. ISA
B. MOU
C. SLA
D. BPA
Correct Answer: A
ISA/ Interconnection Security Agreement is an agreement between two organizations that have connected systems. The
agreement documents the technical requirements of the connected systems.


QUESTION 21
An administrator performs a risk calculation to determine if additional availability controls need to be in place. The
administrator estimates that a server fails and needs to be replaced once every 2 years at a cost of $8,000. Which of the
following represents the factors that the administrator would use to facilitate this calculation?
A. ARO= 0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE= $2,000
B. ARO=0.5; SLE=$8,000; ALE=$4,000
C. ARO=0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000
D. ARO=2; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000
E. ARO=2; SLE= $8,000; ALE= $16,000
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial
information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing
Correct Answer: D
Vishing (voice or VoIP phishing) is an electronic fraud tactic in which individuals are tricked into revealing critical
financial or personal information to unauthorized entities. Vishing works like phishing but does not always occur over the
Internet
and is carried out using voice technology. A vishing attack can be conducted by voice email, VoIP (voice over IP), or
landline or cellular telephone.
The potential victim receives a message, often generated by speech synthesis, indicating that suspicious activity has
taken place in a credit card account, bank account, mortgage account or other financial service in their name. The victim
is
told to call a specific telephone number and provide information to “verify identity” or to “ensure that fraud does not
occur.” If the attack is carried out by telephone, caller ID spoofing can cause the victim\\’s set to indicate a legitimate
source,
such as a bank or a government agency.
Vishing is difficult for authorities to trace, particularly when conducted using VoIP. Furthermore, like many legitimate
customer services, vishing scams are often outsourced to other countries, which may render sovereign law
enforcement
powerless.
Consumers can protect themselves by suspecting any unsolicited message that suggests they are targets of illegal
activity, no matter what the medium or apparent source. Rather than calling a number given in any unsolicited message,
a
consumer should directly call the institution named, using a number that is known to be valid, to verify all recent activity
and to ensure that the account information has not been tampered with.


QUESTION 23
An administrator intends to configure an IPSec solution that provides ESP with integrity protection, but not confidentiality
protection. Which of the following AES modes of operation would meet this integrity-only requirement?
A. GMAC
B. PCBC
C. CBC
D. GCM
E. CFB
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called:
A. Firewalls
B. Content filters
C. Routers
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: B
A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access,
particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the
user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.


QUESTION 25
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated web based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) business
functions be moved offshore to reduce cost, reduce IT overheads, and improve availability. The Chief Risk Officer
(CRO) has agreed with the CIO\\’s direction but has mandated that key authentication systems be run within the
organization\\’s network. Which of the following would BEST meet the CIO and CRO\\’s requirements?
A. Software as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Platform as a Service
D. Hosted virtualization service
Correct Answer: A
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service
provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.


QUESTION 26
A security administrator implements a web server that utilizes an algorithm that requires other hashing standards to
provide data integrity. Which of the following algorithms would meet the requirement?
A. SHA
B. MD5
C. RIPEMD
D. HMAC
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 27
A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-
interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the
reason for the sub-interfaces?
A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128.
B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.
Correct Answer: B
A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ
subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE
802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.


QUESTION 28
A website administrator has received an alert from an application designed to check the integrity of the company\\’s
website. The alert indicated that the hash value for a particular MPEG file has changed. Upon further investigation, the
media appears to be the same as it was before the alert. Which of the following methods has MOST likely been used?
A. Cryptography
B. Time of check/time of use
C. Man in the middle
D. Covert timing
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 29
After an audit, it was discovered that the security group memberships were not properly adjusted for employees\\’
accounts when they moved from one role to another. Which of the following has the organization failed to properly
implement? (Select TWO).
A. Mandatory access control enforcement.
B. User rights and permission reviews.
C. Technical controls over account management.
D. Account termination procedures.
E. Management controls over account management.
F. Incident management and response plan.
Correct Answer: BE
Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the
appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions since they were all
moved to different roles. Control over account management would have taken into account the different roles that
employees have and adjusted the rights and permissions of these roles accordingly.


QUESTION 30
Mobile tablets are used by employees on the sales floor to access customer data. Ann a customer recently reported that
another customer was able to access her personal information on the tablet after the employee left the area. Which of
the following would BEST prevent these issues from reoccurring?
A. Screen Locks
B. Full-device encryption
C. Application control
D. Asset tracking
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
Ann, a security administrator, is strengthening the security controls of the company\\’s campus. Her goal is to prevent
people from accessing open locations that are not supervised, such as around the receiving dock. She is also
concerned that employees are using these entry points as a way of bypassing the security guard at the main entrance.
Which of the following should Ann recommend that would BEST address her concerns?
A. Increase the lighting surrounding every building on campus
B. Build fences around campus with gate entrances
C. Install cameras to monitor the unsupervised areas
D. Construct bollards to prevent vehicle entry in non-supervised areas
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 32
Which of the following authentication services should be replaced with a more secure alternative?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS
C. TACACS+
D. XTACACS
Correct Answer: B
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS) is less secure than XTACACS, which is a proprietary
extension of TACACS, and less secure than TACACS+, which replaced TACACS and XTACACS.


QUESTION 33
Sara, a security engineer, is testing encryption ciphers for performance. Which of the following ciphers offers strong
encryption with the FASTEST speed?
A. 3DES
B. Blowfish
C. Serpent
D. AES256
Correct Answer: B
Blowfish is an encryption system invented by a team led by Bruce Schneier that performs a 64-bit block cipher at very
fast speeds. Blowfish is a fast, except when changing keys. It is a symmetric block cipher that can use variable-length
keys (from 32 bits to 448 bits).


QUESTION 34
A web startup wants to implement single sign-on where its customers can log on to the site by suing their personal and
existing corporate email credentials regardless of which company they work for. Is this directly supported by SAML?
A. Mo not without extensive partnering and API integration with all required email providers
B. Yes SAML is a web based single sign-on implementation exactly fir this purpose
C. No a better approach would be to use required email providers LDAP or RADIUS repositories
D. Yes SAML can use oauth2 to provide this functionality out of the box
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 35
The chief security officer (CSO) has issued a new policy to restrict generic or shared accounts on company systems.
Which of the following sections of the policy requirements will have the most impact on generic and shared accounts?
A. Account lockout
B. Password length
C. Concurrent logins
D. Password expiration
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 36
A company is concerned that a compromised certificate may result in a man-in-the-middle attack against backend
financial servers. In order to minimize the amount of time a compromised certificate would be accepted by other servers,
the company decides to add another validation step to SSL/TLS connections. Which of the following technologies
provides the FASTEST revocation capability?
A. Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)
B. Public Key Cryptography (PKI)
C. Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL)
D. Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA)
Correct Answer: A
CRL (Certificate Revocation List) was first released to allow the CA to revoke certificates, however due to limitations
with this method it was succeeded by OSCP. The main advantage to OCSP is that because the client is allowed query
the status of a single certificate, instead of having to download and parse an entire list there is much less overhead on
the client and network.


QUESTION 37
A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security
administrator allow on the firewall by default?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Correct Answer: B
When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.


QUESTION 38
Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model?
A. Packet Filter Firewall
B. Stateful Firewall
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Application Firewall
Correct Answer: B
Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.


QUESTION 39
An intrusion has occurred in an internet facing system. The security administrator would like to gather forensic evidence
while the system is still in operation. Which of the following procedures should the administrator perform FIRST on the
system?
A. Make a drive image
B. Take hashes of system data
C. Collect information in RAM
D. Capture network traffic
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
A company hosts its public websites internally. The administrator would like to make some changes to the architecture.
The three goals are: reduce the number of public IP addresses in use by the web servers drive all the web traffic
through a central point of control mitigate automated attacks that are based on IP address scanning Which of the
following would meet all three goals?
A. Firewall
B. Load balancer
C. URL filter
D. Reverse proxy
Correct Answer: D
The purpose of a proxy server is to serve as a proxy or middle man between clients and servers. Using a reverse proxy
you will be able to meet the three stated goals.

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Latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-003 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
An administrator has been instructed to add four additional drives to a server configured with RAID 5. The server is
using 146GB drives for the data. Without changing the configuration, how much additional data space would be
available if the administrator purchased 300GB drives and added them to the existing array?
A. 438GB
B. 584GB
C. 900GB
D. 1200GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An administrator has figured out a possible cause to a problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step the
administrator should take?
A. Implement the solution.
B. Verify full system functionality.
C. Establish a plan of action to identify the problem.
D. Test the theory.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. The backup scheme in place was full backups every
Sunday, incremental backups on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and differential backups on Tuesday, Thursday, and
Saturday. To fully restore the server, which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following RAID levels would be appropriate given two drives and a need for fault tolerance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When adding another server to an existing rack mount system, which of the following should the administrator consider
FIRST?
A. Load on UPS
B. Rack temperature
C. Room temperature
D. Ease of access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following uses a switching fabric to connect storage LUNs to hosts?
A. Fiber Channel
B. SCSI
C. SATA
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using
port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on
all
servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port.
Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Update the antivirus application
B. Install critical update security patches
C. Adjust the software firewall settings
D. Replace the current antivirus program
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The staff is not able to access a database server. The server has an \\’Operating System not found\\’ error and is set to
boot from a fiber channel SAN. All other database servers are set to boot from the SAN and access the same switch
and data as this database server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The SAN is offline
B. Fiber channel switch
C. Multiple failed drives in the SAN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following protocols is used to monitor both hardware and software?
A. TCP/IP
B. SMTP
C. RDP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A technician notices the storage space available on a data server is rapidly decreasing. A few users seem to be storing
considerably more data than the other users. Which of the following should the technician implement to give all users
the same amount of available storage space?
A. Disk quotas
B. Group memberships
C. Logon scripts
D. Shadow volumes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
An administrator is in charge of a server that houses various applications. Which of the following BEST explains this
server type?
A. Dedicated Application Server
B. File Server
C. Shared Application Server
D. Peer-to-Peer Application Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A technician needs to replace the processor on a server\\’s motherboard. The motherboard supports Socket 478
processors. Which of the following processors would be compatible with this motherboard?
A. AMD Athlon
B. Pentium III
C. Atom
D. Pentium 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An administrator is testing setting the IP address on a Linux server from command line. Which of the following
commands is used to set the default gateway for the server?
A. route
B. traceroute
C. ipconfig
D. nmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor?
A. PCI
B. Frontside bus
C. Backside bus
D. System I/O bus
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
An administrator logs into a server and notices slow performance. While troubleshooting the problem the administrator
notices that an unfamiliar process in the Task Manager is running at 100% CPU usage. The administrator tries to end
the task and receives `Access is denied\\’. Which of the following steps would allow the administrator to terminate that
process?
A. Adding the `Run as a service\\’ permission to their account.
B. Running the kill utility.
C. Adding their account to the remote users group.
D. Ending the services.exe process then ending the runaway process.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A company backs up their data using daily, weekly, and monthly tape backups. The weekly backups are also known as
which of the following?
A. Son
B. Father
C. Grandfather
D. Great-grandfather
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Given four drives, which of the following RAID levels will allow for the GREATEST performance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Several remote sales employees, who have come into the office this week, report that they are unable to get on the
Internet, but no other users have reported similar issues. The helpdesk has escalated the issue and the case notes
state that the users have IP addresses that begin with 169. Which of the following should the system administrator
check FIRST?
A. DHCP server
B. Network switches
C. DNS server
D. Core router
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for backing up data?
A. Incremental
B. Snapshot
C. Differential
D. GFS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following on-board components is used exclusively for exchanging data with remote machines?
A. PCI
B. USB
C. AGP
D. NIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A dedicated management port would use which of the following protocols?
A. POP3
B. IPMI
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An administrator creates a new directory then shares it on the Windows server. The administrator sets the permissions
for everyone to “Modify” but users report they are unable to create or delete documents. Which of the following is the
cause?
A. The administrator forgot to change the share permissions
B. The users were not part of the “Everyone” built in group
C. The administrator shared the files but not the folder
D. “Modify” only allows users to change existing documents
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. After replacing the network card some users can access the
server but others cannot. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check?
A. Default gateway
B. The ports on the switch
C. Port security on the server\\’s switch port
D. Ethernet cable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
As a best practice, when should the server be rebooted to apply the reboot required patches?
A. During scheduled downtime
B. Once a year
C. As soon as the patches are finished installing
D. At the same time every day
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A server technician needs a way to map a network drive to all the users in the company. Which of the following could
the technician use to accomplish this task?
A. Logon script
B. Disk management
C. Group membership
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution?
A. Local laws and regulations
B. Escalation procedure regulations
C. Manufacturer\\’s regulations
D. Server OEM regulations
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files?
A. Differential backup
B. Snapshot
C. VSS
D. Incremental backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following RAID levels combines mirroring and striping?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is
intended for only has a dual channel capable motherboard. Which of the following is the BEST action to perform?
A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs
B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the
additional module will be for parity
C. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard
D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
The failure of which of the following components can cause a server to display a POST error message?
A. Parallel HASP key
B. DVD driver
C. Memory
D. Chassis LED
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that a server is up-to-date with all updates as soon as they are
released?
A. Automatic updates set to install once per week
B. Automatic updates set to install updates automatically
C. Automatic updates set to download all updates automatically
D. Manual updates done daily at noon
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Recently traffic to the company web server has more than doubled, resulting in slower response times from the server.
An administrator has decided to add a second, identical 10/100/1000 NIC to the server. The server is presently
connected to a 10/100/1000 switch, with four open ports on the switch. Which of the following is the BEST solution to
speed up web traffic?
A. Free up more ports on the switch
B. Enable server load balancing
C. Move the second network adapter to a new subnet
D. Enable network adapter teaming
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A company has recently switched ISPs and is being assigned a new block of public addresses. The public web and FTP
servers must be re-addressed to support this change. After changing IP addresses and updating the DNS records many
customers have reported that they are not able to access the web or FTP servers. Which of the following could have
been done prior to making these changes to make it more transparent to users?
A. Reduce the TTL on the DHCP records.
B. Configure a primary DNS server for the PTR records.
C. Reduce the TTL on the DNS records.
D. Configure a caching only DNS server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory
supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems?
A. Server build checklist
B. Server baselining tools
C. Architecture diagrams
D. Hardware compatibility list
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A company wants to expand their storage capacity in a flexible manner over their existing network. Which of the
following storage solutions would they consider?
A. External RAID array on an existing server
B. Network Attached Storage
C. Storage Area Network
D. Tape library
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Refer to the Exhibit.

lead4pass sk0-003 exam question q37

Which of the following will identify the symbol used on Single-Ended SCSI devices?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which of the following is an advantage of using a KVM with multiple servers?
A. Eliminates the need for backup tapes
B. Increases redundancy
C. Saves physical space in the racks
D. Offers additional runtime for the UPS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following would restrict traffic from a specific host to a network?
A. MIBs
B. NAS
C. ACL
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which of the following types of backup modifies the archive bit? (Select TWO).
A. Copy backup
B. Selective backup
C. Differential backup
D. Incremental backup
E. Full backup
Correct Answer: DE

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Latest effective Citrix CCA 1Y0-A28 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A network engineer has created and bound an UDP-ECV monitor to identify the status of a UDP service.
However, no matter what the response is, the service is always marked as UP.
A possible cause of this behavior is that the network engineer __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the
sentence.)
A. forgot to add a receive string
B. added the string ns_true as receive string
C. added a string that is invalid and thus skipped
D. added a string that is always part of the UDP handshake
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Scenario: A network engineer has modified the configuration of a content-switching virtual server, Website_main,
because a second content-switching server that is capable of handling more connections has been added to the
NetScaler
implementation. Both servers will remain in operation.
The engineer made the following configuration changes:
>set cs vserver Website_main -lbvserver New_Server -backupVserver Old_Server -redirectURL http://
www.mydomain.com/maintenance -soMethod Connection -soThreshold 1000
Why did the engineer enable the spillover option?
A. To handle incoming connections in case the new server is unavailable
B. To handle the extra connections using the old server without dropping them
C. To redirect the extra connections to the Maintenance website when it is needed
D. To handle incoming connections while the server reaches its limit of connections
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A NetScaler engineer would like to present different web pages to a user based on the device and browser type from
which they are connecting. Which responder policy could assist with this requirement?
A. HTTP.RES.URL.PATH
B. HTTP.REQ.Host(“Host”)
C. HTTP.RES.BODY(1024)
D. HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Scenario: A network engineer plans to configure an Active Directory Server as the default authentication for a NetScaler
deployment and provide users with the option to change their password if it is expired. Which two actions should the
engineer take to configure this authentication requirement on the NetScaler system? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a pre-authentication policy.
B. Select security type as SSL on Authentication policy.
C. Configure Authentication server with SSO name attribute.
D. Configure Authentication server with allow Password change option.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 5
Scenario: The NetScaler is connected to two subnets. The NSIP is 10.2.9.12. The external SNIP is 10.2.7.3. The MIP
for internal access is 10.2.9.3. Web servers, authentication servers and time servers are on the 10.2.10.0/24 network
which is available through the 10.2.9.1 router. The external firewall has the 10.2.7.1 address. Traffic bound for Internet
clients should flow through the external firewall.
Which command should be used to set the default route?
A. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
C. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
D. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Scenario: A network engineer gets an error message when using the configuration utility to import a PKCS#12
certificate that contains a dollar sign ($), a backquote (`), or an escape (\) character password. In order to address this
error, the network engineer could prefix it with __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. an escape character (\)
B. a backquote character (`)
C. a dollar sign character ($)
D. a double quotation character (“)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A network engineer might choose to use SSL_Bridge instead of a SSL virtual server in order to __________. (Choose
the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. be able to decrypt the SSL traffic
B. enable use of OCSP for revoked certificates
C. pass user certificates to the back-end servers
D. enable SSL server certificates on the service group
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the
application architecture, it is imperative that a user\\’s session remains on a single server during the session. The
session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are
working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Scenario: A network engineer has installed a NetScaler system into their corporate DMZ and would like to provide
access to a web server on the internal LAN. The web server will be accessed by external users through the Netscaler.
The
firewall administrator has opened the relevant ports required on the external and the internal firewall. The engineer
notices that the virtual server and services representing the web server are down and the internal web server does
NOT
appear accessible from the NetScaler.
What could be the cause of this?
A. USIP is not enabled.
B. Client IP Insertion is not enabled.
C. A URL rewrite policy is not created.
D. A SNIP address has not been added.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
An engineer has bound three monitors to a service group and configured each of the monitors with a weight of 10.
How should the engineer ensure that the members of the service group are marked as DOWN when at least two
monitors fail?
A. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 0.
B. Configure the service group with a threshold of 21.
C. Configure the service group with a threshold of 20.
D. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 5, and configure the service group threshold to 15.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Scenario: The NetScaler has connections to a large number of VPNs. The network engineer wants to minimize the
number of ARP requests. Which feature should the network engineer enable to minimize ARP requests?
A. TCP Buffering
B. Use Source IP
C. Edge Configuration
D. MAC based forwarding
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Scenario: A network engineer would like to prevent blacklisted remote clients from accessing NetScaler hosted
application services. An IP address blacklist database is maintained by an external company and available to query over
the Internet.
The engineer would like to reject any connections from IP addresses that are contained in the blacklist. What could the
engineer configure to achieve this goal?
A. SSL offload
B. HTTP callout
C. URL transformation
D. SSL certification revocation list check
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
A network engineer needs to investigate why a few users have issues logging on to the NetScaler system. How can the
engineer troubleshoot authentication issues on the NetScaler system?
A. Use ECV monitoring.
B. Run a violations report in Reporting.
C. Use the CAT aaad.debug command.
D. Check the system-authentication setting in the GUI.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Scenario: A network engineer has configured an HTTP application to be load balanced using a virtual server named
Svr1. Users have reported intermittent errors and the engineer has been given the client IP address of an affected user
and asked to determine which back end service they are connected to.
Using the command-line interface, how could the engineer find this information?
A. Show lb vServer Svr1
B. Show system session
C. Show lb vServer Svr1 -Summary
D. Show lb persistentSessions Svr1
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Some SSL certificate files may be missing from a NetScaler appliance. Which directory should an engineer check to
determine which files are missing?
A. /nsconfig/ssl
B. /nsconfig/ssh
C. flash/nsconfig/
D. /var/netscaler/ssl/
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
When configuring an advanced HTTP callout based on attributes, what are two valid parameters? (Choose two.)
A. SSL cipher type
B. Down state flush
C. Gateway address
D. IP address and port
E. URL stem expression
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 17
How could an engineer configure a monitor to ensure that a server is marked as DOWN if the monitor test is
successful?
A. Enable the LRTM option for the monitor
B. Enable the Reverse option for the monitor
C. Disable Down state flush for the service group
D. Disable the Health monitoring option for the service group
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Scenario: A user browses to a page and is presented with a warning that he is trying to enter a web site with an
untrusted certificate. The network engineer had added the correct certificate to the SSL virtual server.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. TLS is disabled on the virtual server.
B. The certificate is not linked to the intermediate CA.
C. The certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.
D. The CA certificate has not been added to the SSL virtual server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Scenario: A network engineer has bound four policies to a virtual server as follows:
PolicyA has a priority of 10 PolicyB has a priority of 20 PolicyC has a priority of 30 PolicyD has a priority of 0
Which policy will be evaluated first?
A. PolicyA
B. PolicyB
C. PolicyC
D. PolicyD
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Users have reported that they are receiving a confusing error message related to SSL sessions when connecting from
older browsers. How could the network engineer present this error to users in a customized format?
A. Enable the SSL v2 protocol.
B. Set a URL on the backup virtual server.
C. Add a redirect URL to the virtual server.
D. Configure SSL v2 Redirection for the virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective Citrix CCA-N 1Y0-253 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has customized some NetScaler configuration files. The administrator now plans on
upgrading the NetScaler Gateway from NetScaler 10.1 to NetScaler 10.5. What should the administrator do prior to the
upgrade to avoid losing the customizations?
A. Backup the ns.conf file.
B. Backup the files in the jvarjnetscaler directory.
C. Move the customized files to a backup directory.
D. Move the customized files to the jnsconfig directory.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which protocol could an administrator apply with rate-based monitor?
A. FTP
B. ARP
C. DNS
D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A penetration test has been performed against the NetScaler Gateway virtual IPs (vIPs) resulting in the SSL RC4-based
ciphers being flagged. What should the administrator do to address the vulnerability?
A. Remove all the SSL ciphers from the virtual server.
B. Assign Cipher Group \\’ALL\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server.
C. Assign Cipher Group \\’HIGH\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server.
D. Assign Cipher Group \\’DEFAULT\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which two things occur after adding a Subnet IP (SNIP) to a NetScaler which already has a Mapped IP (MIP)? (Choose
two.)
A. The NetScaler IP (NSIP) is no longer required.
B. A SNIP will be used in preference to a MIP.
C. Adding a SNIP adds an entry to the routing table.
D. Client machines can use the MIP instead of the virtual IP (vIP).
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor authentication solution for a
XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake of a software upgrade on the RADIUS
infrastructure.
During the outage, the administrator needs to disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable
users\\’ continued access to published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a content switching virtual server. The administrator is unable to bind the load
balancing virtual server to the content switching virtual server. Which protocol is being used on the load balancing virtual
server that is causing this issue?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. SSL Bridge
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Scenario: A NetScaler Gateway is configured to use RADIUS for authentication. A Citrix Administrator needs to know
whichNetScalerIP(NSIP)addressisusedforoutgoingRADIUStraffic. How can the administrator verify which NSIP is used?
A. Check the ns.log file.
B. Use the ping command.
C. Check the messages log file.
D. Use the nstcpdump.sh command.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
While logged on to the NetScaler Configuration Utility, a Citrix Administrator notices that CPU utilization is higher than
expected. What should the administrator configure to receive notification of this event in the future, when the
administrator is NOT logged on?
A. Auditing
B. SNMP Trap
C. SNMP view
D. AppFlow Logging
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Scenario: NetScaler Gateway is implemented to provide Web Resources, including Outlook Web Access and an SAP
portal, to users. Marketing and Sales department employees normally work from outside the office location and should
be
able to access Web Resources from different types of devices that are NOT maintained by the company.
Which user access connection method should an administrator configure to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Citrix Receiver
B. PN Agent plug-in
C. Clientless access
D. Access Gateway plug-in
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by
using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file. What will the administrator need to decrypt the
network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-serverkey
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Scenario: An administrator has configured several load balancing virtual servers on a NetScaler to accelerate the Web
content. After an update on the Web content platform, all the servers need the client IP address to perform tracking
operations.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to pass the client IP address to all the load balancing virtual
servers? (Choose two.)
A. Activate the Source-IP feature on the service.
B. Configurearewritepolicy, thenbinditglobally.
C. Activate the Client-IP Header insertion on the services.
D. Configurearesponderpolicy, thenbindittoallservers.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only. The administrator
must include two-factor authentication. Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor
authentication for this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service
Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external
addresses. Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Use Subnet IP
D. Use Source IP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
A Citrix Administrator needs to shorten the URL for users to connect to a StoreFront website without knowing the store
name. Which policy should the administrator use to accomplish this requirement?
A. Rewrite
B. AppQoE
C. Spillover
D. Responder
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Scenario: An administrator is planning to implement NetScaler Gateway. The administrator must ensure that users are
able to change their passwords when the passwords have expired. To meet the needs of the scenario, the administrator
must ensure that is included in the plan.
A. LDAP authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. nested groups (enabled)
D. the nsroot username added to Active Directory
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
5AnadministratorcreatedaserviceforaWebInterfaceserverthatisencryptedbyanSSLcertificate. Which command should the
administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it
with a test user\\’s credentials?
A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted
B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -secure YES
C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -destPort 443
D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted -secure YES
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 17
Scenario: A NetScaler Gateway virtual server is configured for a XenApp infrastructure. The Citrix Administrator is
asked to configure monitoring on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server to ensure the health and availability of XenApp
published applications.
Which monitoring type should the administrator configure?
A. STOREFRONT
B. CITRIX-XD-DDC
C. CITRIX-XML-SERvICE
D. CITRIX-WEB-INTERFACE
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18
Scenario:AcompanywebsitecurrentlyhasthousandsofGIFimages.UsingtheNetScaler, aCitrixAdministratorneeds to
convert the GIFs to PNG format to reduce bandwidth requirements. Which feature on the NetScaler can accomplish this
task?
A. Priority Queueing
B. Content Switching
C. Content Accelerator
D. Front End Optimization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
Scenario: An administrator configures load balancing in an environment to load balance a Web server. The
administrator needs to enhance availability in the case that the virtual server goes down. Which two options could the
administrator configure to meet the load balancing needs for this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Redirect URL
B. Reversemonitoring
C. Backup virtual server
D. Content Switching virtual server
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 20
A Citrix Administrator is upgrading NetScaler 10.1 appliances in a high availability (HA) pair to NetScaler 10.5. What is
the first step to launch the upgrade according to Citrix best practice?
A. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the primary appliance to force HA failover.
B. Execute the installns command on the primary appliance.
C. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the secondary appliance to force HA failover.
D. Execute the installns command on the secondary appliance.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator is configuring MicrovPN with MDX wrapped apps to support StoreFront. Which two settings must
the administrator configure in the NetScaler Gateway Global settings under `Configure Domains for Clientless
Access\\’? (Choose two.)
A. StoreFront URL
B. XenMobile Gateway URL
C. App Controller Host name
D. Secure Ticketing Authority
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 22
A Citrix Administrator needs to set up two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway for mobile devices. Which two
actions should the administrator take to allow users to log on using mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. Create a pre-authentication policy
B. Create a RADIUS authentication policy
C. Bind the LDAP policy for primary authentication
D. Bind the RADIUS policy for primary authentication
E. Bind the RADIUS policy for secondary authentication
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 23
What should a Citrix Administrator configure to optimize an internal NetScaler Gateway virtual server when more
bandwidth is available for use and other websites are NOT affected?
A. Windows Scaling within TCP parameters.
B. Max Connections within HTTP parameters.
C. A Net Profile that is applied to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Windows Scaling within a TCP Profile that is applied to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 24
An administrator plans to use only Citrix Receiver for XenDesktop remote access through a NetScaler Gateway device.
Which type of policy should the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. Session
B. Authentication
C. Clientless access
D. Pre-authentication
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 25
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no
longer accepts traffic. Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 26
Scenario: NetScaler is used to load balance Microsoft SharePoint for internal users. An administrator needs to configure
the NetScaler device to allow for external access to the SharePoint site. Which action could the administrator take to
meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. Bind the SharePoint certificate to the virtual server.
B. Add the Microsoft SharePoint server to a Web Interface site.
C. Configure an Authentication, Auditing and Authorization server.
D. Enable \\’ICA proxy only\\’ on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two methods should be used for generating a configuration data and statistics report for evaluation by Citrix?
(Choose two.)
A. Run Ishow callhomeI using the command-line interface.
B. Run Ishow techsupportI using the command-line interface.
C. Click the Call Home link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility.
D. Click the Download trace files link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility.
E. Click the Generate support file link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 28
An administrator needs to allow remote users to access their locally-installed corporate applications over a secure
connection.
In order to meet this requirement, the administrator could configure on the NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to
complete the sentence.)
A. SSL vPN
B. ICA Proxy
C. SSL Offload
D. Clientless Access
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
Which two commands, when run at the command-line interface by a Citrix Administrator, can display interfaces
configured for high availability monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. show node
B. show status
C. show monitor
D. showinterface
E. show hardware
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 30
Scenario: An administrator plans to implement NetScaler to load balance Web Interface traffic. The Web Interface
servers are using standard non-secure ports. Company policy states that all external traffic must be secure. The
administrator
has added the servers for the Web Interface under Load Balancing.
In order to load balance the Web Interface traffic and comply with company policy, the administrator should add services
for and create an . (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. SSL; SSL virtual server
B. SSL; HTTP virtual server
C. HTTP; SSL virtual server
D. HTTP; HTTP virtual server
Correct Answer: C

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Latest effective Cisco 300-208 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which profiling capability allows you to gather and forward network packets to an analyzer?
A. collector
B. spanner
C. retriever
D. aggregator
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which option is the code field of n EAP packet?
A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success
B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure
C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success
D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
In the command \\’aaa authentication default group tacacs local\\’, how is the word \\’default\\’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
When configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS, what is a recommended best practice?
A. Synchronize the router\\’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update.
B. Clear the router\\’s flash of unused signature files.
C. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency.
D. Create the appropriate directory on the router\\’s flash memory to store the downloaded signature files.
E. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which component hosts the web authentication
portal?
A. the endpoints
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. ISE
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are
true? (Choose two.)
A. They send endpoint data to AAA servers.
B. They collect endpoint attributes.
C. They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies.
D. They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints.
E. They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles.
F. They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements.
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 7
Which redirect-URL is pushed by Cisco ISE for posture redirect for corporate users?
A. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cppandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
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B. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cwaandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
C. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=mdmandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
D. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=drwandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose two.)
A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field.
B. DoS
C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests
D. ARP cache poisoning on the router
E. client unable to access network resources
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Catalyst switch interface commands allow only a single voice device and a single data device to be
connected to the IEEE 802.1X-enabled interface? (Choose two.)
A. authentication host-mode single-host
B. authentication host-mode multi-domain
C. authentication host-mode multi-host
D. authentication host-mode multi-auth
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which 802.1x command is needed for ACL to be applied on a switch port?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x pae authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. radius-server vsa send authentication
E. aaa authorization network default group radius
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE?
A. the http secure-server command
B. RADIUS Attribute 29
C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting
D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing.
Logs indicate an EAP failure. What are the two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Client certificate is not included in the Trusted Certificate Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 13
A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown\\’ for a single corporate mac address but unknown
machines are reported as `complaint\\’. Which option is the reason for machine being reported `unknown\\’.
A. Posture service disabled on cisco ISE
B. Posture policy does not support the OS
C. Posture agent not installed on the machine
D. Posture compliance condition is missing on the machine
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which type of SGT classification method is required when authentication is unavailable?
A. Bypass
B. Dynamic
C. Static
D. Inline
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
When enabling the Cisco IOS IPS feature, which step should you perform to prevent rogue signature updates from
being installed on the router?
A. configure authentication and authorization for maintaining signature updates
B. install a known RSA public key that correlates to a private key used by Cisco
C. manually import signature updates from Cisco to a secure server, and then transfer files from the secure server to the
router
D. use the SDEE protocol for all signature updates from a known secure management station
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT?
A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the enterprise security policy
B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with inside endpoints.
C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies.
D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment?
A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint.
B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain.
C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain.
D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Which two authentication stores are supported to design a wireless network using PEAP EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the
authentication method? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. ACS
C. LDAP
D. RSA Secure-ID
E. Certificate Server
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
Which three statement about Windows Server Update Services remediation are true?
A. WSUS can install the latest service pack available
B. WSUS checks for automatic update configuration on Windows
C. WSUS checks for client behavior anomalies
D. WSUS remediates Windows client from a locally manage WSUS server
E. WSUS remediates Windows client from a Microsoft manage WSUS server
F. WSUS provides links to update AV/AS
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 20
Which statement about IOS accounting is true?
A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined.
B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined.
C. Authorization must be configured before accounting.
D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Which of these is a configurable Cisco IOS feature that triggers notifications if an attack attempts to exhaust critical
router resources and if preventative controls have been bypassed or are not working correctly?
A. Control Plane Protection
B. Management Plane Protection
C. CPU and memory thresholding
D. SNMPv3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 22
Which two simple posture conditions are valid?
A. Service
B. Antispyware
C. Firewall
D. File
E. Antivirus
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 23
Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE?
A. the http secure-server command
B. RADIUS Attribute 29
C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting
D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Security Group Access requires which three syslog messages to be sent to Cisco ISE? (Choose three.)
A. IOS-7-PROXY_DROP
B. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_DOS_ATTACK
C. MKA-2-MACDROP
D. AUTHMGR-5-MACMOVE
E. ASA-6-CONNECT_BUILT
F. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_FALLBACK_REQ
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 25
Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. multidomain authentication host mode
B. multihost mode
C. multi-MAC host mode
D. single-host mode
E. dual-host mode
F. multi-auth host mode
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 26
When Cisco IOS IPS signatures are being tuned, how is the Target Value Rating assigned?
A. It is calculated from the Event Risk Rating.
B. It is calculated from a combination of the Attack Severity Rating and Signature Fidelity Rating
C. It is manually set by the administrator.
D. It is set based upon SEAP functions.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two are best practices to implement profiling services in a distributed environment? (Choose two)
A. use of device sensor feature
B. configuration to send syslogs to the appropriate profiler node
C. netflow probes enabled on central nodes
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. global enablement of the profiler service
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 28
When RADIUS NAC and AAA Override are enabled for WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about RADIUS NAC
are true? (Choose two.)
A. It will return an access-accept and send the redirection URL for all users.
B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the ISE.
C. It allows the ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated.
D. It is used for posture assessment, so the ISE changes the user profile based on posture result.
E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 29
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a
unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
Which command can check a AAA server authentication for server group Group1, user cisco, and password cisco555
on a Cisco ASA device?
A. ASA# test aaa-server authentication Group1 username cisco password cisco555
B. ASA# test aaa-server authentication group Group1 username cisco password cisco555
C. ASA# aaa-server authorization Group1 username cisco password cisco555
D. ASA# aaa-server authentication Group1 roger cisco555
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
A network security engineer is considering configuring 802.1x for security. He wants to use single host for data and
single host for voice. Which port authentication method he use?
A. Single host
B. Multi host
C. Multi auth
D. Multi-domain
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 32
Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE Authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication?
A. Dot1x and if authentication failed continue
B. MAB and if user not found continue
C. MAB and if authentication failed continue D. Dot1x and if user not found continue
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
Where would a Cisco ISE administrator define a named ACL to use in an authorization policy?
A. In the conditions of an authorization rule.
B. In the attributes of an authorization rule.
C. In the permissions of an authorization rule.
D. In an authorization profile associated with an authorization rule.
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Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 34
Which effect does the ip http secure-server command have on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify certificate on an ISE device?
A. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.
Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
B. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.
Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
C. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.
Download the CA server certificate.
3.
Access the ISE server and submit the CA request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
D. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.
Download the CA server certificate.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching
B. uRPF
C. routing protocol authentication
D. CPPr
E. BPDU protection
F. role-based access control
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 37
What is a required step when you deploy dynamic VLAN and ACL assignments?
A. Configure the VLAN assignment.
B. Configure the ACL assignment.
C. Configure Cisco IOS Software 802.1X authenticator authorization.
D. Configure the Cisco IOS Software switch for ACL assignment.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
A network administrator wants to use dynamic VLAN assignment from Cisco ISE. Which option must be configured on
the switch to support this?
A. AAA authentication
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. AAA authorization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which three features should be enabled as best practices for MAB? (Choose three.)
A. MD5
B. IP source guard
C. DHCP snooping
D. storm control
E. DAI
F. URPF
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 40
What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.)
A. The port is error disabled.
B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port.
C. The port generates a port resistance error.
D. The port attempts to repair the violation.
E. The port is placed in quarantine state.
F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.

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QUESTION 1
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.


QUESTION 3
What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS
access?
A. sslconfig
B. sslciphers
C. tlsconifg
D. certconfig
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
When you set a Cisco IOS Router as an SSH server, which command specifies the RSA public key of the remote peer
when you set the SSH server to perform RSA-based authentication?
A. router(config-ssh-pubkey-user)#key
B. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string
C. router(config-ssh-pubkey)#key-string
D. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string enable ssh
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Where do you apply a control plane services policy to implement Management Plane Protection on a Cisco Router?
A. Control-plane router
B. Control-plane host
C. Control-plane interface management 0/0
D. Control-plane service policy
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 6
Which three statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
A. Isolated ports can talk to promiscuous and community ports.
B. Promiscuous ports can talk to isolated and community ports.
C. Private VLANs run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in client mode.
D. Private VLANS run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in transparent mode.
E. Community ports can talk to each other as well as the promiscuous port.
F. Primary, secondary, and tertiary VLANs are required for private VLAN implementation.
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 7
Which option is the Cisco ASA on-box graphical management solution?
A. SSH
B. ASDM
C. Console
D. CSM
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which three options describe how SNMPv3 traps can be securely configured to be sent by IOS? (Choose three.)
A. An SNMPv3 group is defined to configure the read and write views of the group.
B. An SNMPv3 user is assigned to SNMPv3 group and defines the encryption and authentication credentials.
C. An SNMPv3 host is configured to define where the SNMPv3 traps will be sent.
D. An SNMPv3 host is used to configure the encryption and authentication credentials for SNMPv3 traps.
E. An SNMPv3 view is defined to configure the address of where the traps will be sent.
F. An SNMPv3 group is used to configure the OIDs that will be reported.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 9
What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on interfaces?
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 2156 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual cloud
environment?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. Cisco VSG
C. WSVA
D. ESVA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
With Cisco ASA active/standby failover, by default, how many monitored interface failures will cause failover to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
You are going to add ASA to CSM (Cisco Security Manager). Which port on ASA must be reachable for CSM to
succeed?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 80
D. 443
Correct Answer: D
Security Manager can use these transport protocols:
SSL (HTTPS)–Secure Socket Layer, which is an HTTPS connection, is the only transport protocol used with PIX
Firewalls, Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA), and Firewall Services Modules (FWSM). It is also the default protocol for
IPS
devices and for routers running Cisco IOS Software release 12.3 or higher.
If you use SSL as the transport protocol on Cisco IOS routers, you must also configure SSH on the routers. Security
Manager uses SSH connections to handle interactive command deployments during SSL deployments. Cisco Security
Manager was using OpenSSL for the Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocols.
Beginning with version 4.13, Cisco Security Manager replaced OpenSSL version 1.0.2 with Cisco SSL version 6.x.
Cisco SSL
enables FIPS compliance over full FIPS Validation which results in fast and cost-effective connectivity. The Common
Criteria mode in Cisco SSL allows easier compliance. Cisco SSL is feature-forward when compared to OpenSSL. The
product Security Baseline (PSB) requirements for Cisco SSL ensures important security aspects such as credential and
key management, cryptography standards, antispoofing capabilities, integrity and tamper protection, and session, data,
and stream management and administration are taken care of.
SSH–Secure Shell is the default transport protocol for Catalyst switches and Catalyst 6500/7600 devices. You can also
use it with Cisco IOS routers.
Telnet–Telnet is the default protocol for routers running Cisco IOS software releases 12.1 and
12.2. You can also use it with Catalyst switches, Catalyst 6500/7600 devices, and routers running Cisco IOS Software
release 12.3 and higher. See the Cisco IOS software documentation for configuring Telnet.
HTTP–You can use HTTP instead of HTTPS (SSL) with IPS devices. HTTP is not the default protocol for any device
type.
TMS–Token Management Server is treated like a transport protocol in Security Manager, but it is not a real transport
protocol. Instead, by configuring TMS as the transport protocol of a router, you are telling Security Manager to deploy
configurations to a TMS. From the TMS, you can download the configuration to an eToken, plug the eToken into the
router\\’s USB bus, and update the configuration. TMS is available only for certain routers running Cisco IOS Software
12.3 or
higher.
Security Manager can also use indirect methods to deploy configurations to devices, staging the configuration on a
server that manages the deployment to the devices. These indirect methods also allow you to use dynamic IP
addresses on
your devices. The methods are not treated as transport protocols, but as adjuncts to the transport protocol for the
device. You can use these indirect methods:
AUS (Auto Update Server)–When you add a device to Security Manager, you can select the AUS server that is
managing it. You can use AUS with PIX Firewalls and ASA devices.
Configuration Engine–When you add a router to Security Manager, you can select the Configuration Engine that is
managing it.


QUESTION 13
What are two enhancements of SSHv2 over SSHv1? (Choose two.)
A. VRF-aware SSH support
B. DH group exchange support
C. RSA support
D. keyboard-interactive authentication
E. SHA support
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
Which two commands can be used to create a Cisco Unified ACL within the ASA CLI? (Choose two.)
A. ipv6 access-list
B. object-group network
C. ipv6 access-list webtype
D. access-list extended
E. object-group network nat-pat-grp
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/acl_extended.pdf


QUESTION 15
Which statement about Cisco IPS Manager Express is true?
A. It provides basic device management for large-scale deployments.
B. It provides a GUI for configuring IPS sensors and security modules.
C. It enables communication with Cisco ASA devices that have no administrative access.
D. It provides greater security than simple ACLs.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?
A. Trace
B. Debug
C. Informational
D. Critical
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
Which two option are main challenges for public cloud data center?
A. deployment cost
B. tenant isolation
C. disaster recovery
D. system scalability
E. network visibility
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 18
If you encounter problems logging in to the Cisco Security Manager 4.4 web server or client or backing up its databases,
which account has most likely been improperly modified?
A. admin (the default administrator account)
B. casuser (the default service account)
C. guest (the default guest account)
D. user (the default user account)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which Cisco TrustSec role does a Cisco ASA firewall serve within an identity architecture?
A. Access Requester
B. Policy Decision Point
C. Policy Information Point
D. Policy Administration Point
E. Policy Enforcement Point
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 20
Which statement about Cisco Security Manager form factors is true?
A. Cisco Security Manager Professional and Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundles support FWSMs.
B. Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional support FWSMs.
C. Only Cisco Security Manager Professional supports FWSMs.
D. Only Cisco Security Manager Standard supports FWSMs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
If a switch port goes directly into a blocked state only when a superior BPDU is received, what mechanism must be in
use?
A. STP bpdu guard
B. STP root guard
C. SPT bpdu filter
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Why was the packet dropped? ****Exhibit is Missing****
(this exhibit is packet capture with traffic destination to port 23 and being drop by access- list)
A. Telnet access is not allowed between these two nodes.
B. NAT is not applied correctly for the 10.10.96.5 host
C. The source port is configured incorrectly In the capture
D. There is no route on the Cisco ASA to the destination host
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
A network engineer must mange and configurations to a cisco networking environment solutions accomplishes this
task?
A. cisco IPS manage express and pushing configuration to the ips units
B. cisco security 4.5 or later and pushing configuration bundles to each of the,,,,,
C. cisco adaptive security device manager to push configuration to each of the IPS
D. fire SIGHT manager to bundle and push configuration to the IPS units installed
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 24
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
– The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices.

The user needs read-write access to policies.

The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will the administrator assign to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 26
Which are the most secure authentication and encryption options? (Choose two)
A. DES
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. MD5
E. SHA
Correct Answer: CE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/next-generation-cryptography.html#2


QUESTION 27
Which policy map action makes a Cisco router behave as a stateful firewall for matching traffic?
A. Log
B. Inspect
C. Permit
D. Deny
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 28
What two are data and voice protocols do ASA 5500 supports? (Choose two)
A. CTIQBE Inspection
B. H.323 Inspection
C. MGCP Inspection
D. RTSP Inspection
E. SIP Inspection
F. Skinny (SCCP) Inspection
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 29
A. choosed to use udp as answer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be?
A. local
B. default
Correct Answer: A
ASA Identity Firewal:
The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those
users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL.
Additionally, the
Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in
and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).


QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this access list is true?lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q31

A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT
B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default
C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration
D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all
E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic
Correct Answer: A
ASA 9.0(1) code introduced the Unified ACL for IPv4 and IPv6. ACLs now support IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. You can
even specify a mix of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses for the source and destination. The any keyword was changed to
represent IPv4 and IPv6 traffic. The any4 and any6 keywords were added to represent IPv4-only and IPv6-only traffic,
respectively. The IPv6-specific ACLs are deprecated. Existing IPv6 ACLs are migrated to extended ACLs.


QUESTION 32
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of
traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
Hotspot Questionlead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-1

Which statement is true of the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA?
A. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to an FTP server before the buffer is overwritten.
B. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to flash memory before the buffer is overwritten.
C. System log messages with a severity level of six and higher will be logged to the internal buffer.
D. System log messages with a severity level of six and lower will be logged to the internal buffer.
Correct Answer: C lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-2 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-3

 

QUESTION 34
When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true?
A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page.
B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database.
C. The administrator can manually update the page.
D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 35
Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two)
A. RSA-SIG
B. MD5
C. AES
D. 3DES
E. DES
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 36
You must restrict the interface on which management traffic can be received by the routers on your network. Which
feature do you enable?
A. MPP
B. extended ACL on all of the interfaces
C. CPP with a port filter
D. AAA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 37
Which statement about static or default route on the Cisco ASA appliance is true?
A. The admin distance is 1 by default.
B. From the show route output, the [120/3] indicates an admin distance of 3.
C. A default route is specified using the 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 address/mask combination.
D. The tunneled command option is used to enable route tracking.
E. The interface-name parameter in the route command is an optional parameter if the static route points to the next-
hop router IP address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
Which Cisco prime Infrastructure features allows you to assign templates to a group of wireless LAN controllers with
similar configuration requirements?
A. Lightweight access point configuration template
B. Composite template
C. Controller configuration group
D. Shared policy object
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 39
CORRECT TEXT

lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-1 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-2

Correct Answer: explanation
Answer: Please check the steps in explanation part below:
1) Click on Service Policy Rules, then Edit the default inspection rule.
2) Click on Rule Actions, then enable HTTP as shown here: lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-3

3) Click on Configure, then add as shown here: lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-4 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-5

4) Create the new map in ASDM like shown:lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-6

5) Edit the policy as shown:
6) Hit OK


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco ASA CLI commands configure these static routes in the Cisco ASA routing table?
S 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.10, dmzS 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 [2/0] via 172.16.1.11, dmz
A. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11
B. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 1
C. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 2
D. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11
E. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 1
F. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 2
Correct Answer: F

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