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Real and effective RedHat EX200 exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Configure a default software repository for your system.
One
YUM has already provided to configure your system on http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server, and
can be used normally.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
Yum-config-manager –add-repo=http://content.example.com/rhel7.0/x86-64/dvd” is to generate a file vim
content.example.com_rhel7.0_x86_64_dvd.repo, Add a line gpgcheck=0 Yumcleanall Yumrepolist Almost 4305
packages are right, Wrong Yum Configuration will lead to some following questions cannot be worked out.

 

QUESTION 2
Configure autofs.
Configure the autofs automatically mount to the home directory of LDAP, as required:
server.domain11.example.com use NFS to share the home to your system. This file system contains a pre configured
home directory of user ldapuserX.
Home directory of ldapuserX is:
server.domain11.example.com /home/guests/ldapuser
Home directory of ldapuserX should automatically mount to the ldapuserX of the local /home/guests Home directory’s
write permissions must be available for users ldapuser1’s password is password
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
yum install -y autofs mkdir /home/rehome
/etc/auto.master /home/rehome/etc/auto.ldap Keep then exit cp /etc/auto.misc /etc/auto.ldap
/etc/auto.ldap ldapuserX -fstype=nfs,rw server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ Keep then exit systemctl start
autofs systemctl enable autofs su – ldapuserX// test
If the above solutions cannot create files or the command prompt is -bash-4.2$, it maybe exist multi-level directory, this
needs to change the server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ to server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/
ldapuserX. What is multi-level directory? It means there is a directory of ldapuserX under the /home/guests/ldapuserX in
the questions. This directory is the real directory.

 

QUESTION 3
Add admin group and set gid=600
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
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# groupadd -g 600 admin

 

QUESTION 4
Add user: user1, set uid=601 Password: redhat The user\\’s login shell should be non-interactive.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# useradd -u 601 -s /sbin/nologin user1 # passwd user1 redhat

 

QUESTION 5
Configure the permissions of /var/tmp/fstab
Copy the file /etc/fstab to /var/tmp/fstab. Configure the permissions of /var/tmp/fstab so that:
the file /var/tmp/fstab is owned by the root user.
the file /var/tmp/fstab belongs to the group root.
the file /var/tmp/fstab should not be executable by anyone.
the user natasha is able to read and write /var/tmp/fstab.
the user harry can neither write nor read /var/tmp/fstab.
all other users (current or future) have the ability to read /var/tmp/fstab.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
cp -a /etc/fstab /var/tmp
cd /var/tmp
ls -l
getfacl /var/tmp/fstab
chmod ugo-x /var/tmp/fstab
[ No need to do this, there won\\’t be execute permission for the file by default]
# setfacl -m u:natasha:rw /var/tmp/fstab # setfacl -m u:harry:0 /var/tmp/fstab(zero)
[Read permission will be there for all the users, by default. Check it using ls -l /var/tmp/fstab] Verify by [ ls -la
/var/tmp/fstab]

 

QUESTION 6
Who ever creates the files/directories on a data group owner should automatically be in the same group owner as data.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
1.
chmod g+s /data
2.
Verify using: ls -ld /data Permission should be like this: drwxrws— 2 root sysadmin 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /data If SGID bit
is set on directory then who every users creates the files on directory group owner automatically the owner of parent
directory. To set the SGID bit: chmod g+s directory To Remove the SGID bit: chmod g-s directory

 

QUESTION 7
Configure NTP.
Configure NTP service, Synchronize the server time, NTP server: classroom.example.com
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
Configure the client: Yum -y install chrony Vim /etc/chrony.conf Add: server classroom.example.com iburst Start:
systemctl enable chronyd systemctl restart chronyd Validate: timedatectl status

 

QUESTION 8
One Logical Volume named /dev/test0/testvolume1 is created. The initial Size of that disk is 100MB now you required
more 200MB. Increase the size of Logical Volume, size should be increase on online.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
lvextend -L+200M /dev/test0/testvolume1 Use lvdisplay /dev/test0/testvolume1)
ext2online -d /dev/test0/testvolume1
lvextend command is used the increase the size of Logical Volume. Other command lvresize command also here to
resize. And to bring increased size on online we use the ext2online command.

 

QUESTION 9
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical
Volume is 400MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 200MB without losing any data. The size of logical
volume 200MB to 210MB will be acceptable.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
Make sure that the filesystem is in a consistent state before reducing: # fsck -f /dev/vo/myvol
Now reduce the filesystem by 200MB. # resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol 200M
It is now possible to reduce the logical volume. #lvreduce /dev/vo/myvol -L 200M
Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h

 

QUESTION 10
Install the appropriate kernel update from http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/updates. The following criteria must
also be met: The updated kernel is the default kernel when the system is rebooted The original kernel remains available
and bootable on the system
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
ftp server.domain11.example.com Anonymous login ftp> cd /pub/updates ftp> ls ftp> mget kernel* ftp> bye
rpm -ivh kernel*
vim /etc/grub.conf Check the updatted kernel is the first kernel and the orginal kernel remains available. set default=0
wq!

 

QUESTION 11
Create a volume group, and set the size is 500M, the size of single PE is 16M. Create logical volume named lv0 in this
volume group, set size is 20 PE, make it as ext3 file system, and mounted automatically under data.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
fdisk /dev/vda pvcreate /dev/vda3 vgcreate –s 16M vg0 /dev/vda3 lvcreate –n lv0 –l 20 vg0 mkfs.ext3
/dev/mapper/vg0-lv0 mkdir /data /etc/fstab: /dev/mapper/vg0-lv0 /data ext3 defaults 0 0 mount –a mount | grep data

 

QUESTION 12
YUM repository has been provided at http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server. Configure your system
to use this location as a default repository.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
vim/etc/yum.repos/base.repo [base] name=base baseurl= http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server
gpgcheck=0 enable=1 Save and Exit Use yum list for validation, the configuration is correct if list the package
information. If the Yum configuration is not correct then maybe cannot answer the following questions.

 

QUESTION 13
Make on /archive directory that only the user owner and group owner member can fully access.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
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chmod 770 /archive
Verify using : ls -ld /archive Preview should be like: drwxrwx— 2 root sysuser 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /archive To change the
permission on directory we use the chmod command. According to the question that only the owner user (root) and
group member (sysuser) can fully access the directory so: chmod 770 /archive

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Real and effective Polycom 1K0-001 exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Does IEEE oversee which of the following?
A. ANSI standards
B. ISO standards
C. 802 LAN groups
D. OSI Model
E. Bell Standards
F. All of the above
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
How is the noise measured?
A. Volume
B. Distance
C. Amplitude
D. Impedance
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following audio coding provides a frequency response bandwidth range of 50- 7000Hertz?
A. G.711 and G.721
B. G.723.1 and G.729
C. G.721 and G.725
D. G.726 and G.729
E. G.722 and G.722.1
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 4
What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over a network
connection?
A. greater than 64,000
B. greater than 16,000
C. less than 5,000
D. less than 10,000
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
The scope of the H.225 Standard describes:
A. video and audio coders for H.323.
B. channel bandwidth sub-division.
C. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded and packetized for transport between
H.323 equipment on a packet-based network.
D. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded and channelized for transport between
H.320 equipment on a channel network.
E. the Coding Operation details for video and audio.
F. A and C
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following correctly describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AEC)?
A. Training is a process by which AEC adapts to the room acoustics
B. Training is dependent on room AEC related audio components and gain settings.
C. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in a given room and AEC functions will only work if the mute the button is pressed.
D. Training requires no input from any microphone signals in a videoconferencing room.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Video Conferencing Terminals that are designed to tolerate Network delay, packets lost, packets out of sequence, and
jitter are called________.
A. H.321 Terminals
B. H.320 Terminals
C. H.323 Terminals
D. F.150 Terminals
E. T.120 Data Transfer ANSI Terminals.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must use signaling to establish a media channel conference Call Setup.
Call Operations are part of what Standard?
A. LAP / B
B. LAP / D
C. H.225/Q.921
D. H.225/H.261
E. H.225/Q.931
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following most accurately defines white balance?
A. The number of white pixels that appear in a video frame
B. A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum
C. A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white
D. A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video signals.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Muting audio during a connected videoconference is typically performed when you:
A. need to move the microphone.
B. do not want to hear the other parties.
C. needs to move the conference table.
D. are listening and your room is very noisy.
E. needs to hang up the video call.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 11
Real-Time Transport Protocol and Real-Time Transport Control Protocol are used to provide:
A. Lower Layer Transport of Data Collaboration.
B. Lower Layer Transport of Audio and Video.
C. Upper Layer Data Packet Sequencing, Timing, and Synchronization for Audio and Video.
D. Upper-Layer Packet Loss and Packet Errors Statistics and Corrective Action.
E. A and B.
F. C and D.
G. all of the above.
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 12
Which Network Services speeds are governed by cable length and cable wire gauge?
A. Packet Switching
B. Integrated Services Digital Network Primary Rate
C. D-Channels
D. B-channels
E. Digital Subscriber Line Services
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
H.323 Media Gateways require H.323 Terminals, which wish to make calls through the Gateway to ISDN sites, too:
A. perform a test with the other H.323 Terminals first
B. be registered with the MCU first
C. be registered with the Gatekeeper first
D. call the Network administrator first
E. be using a Gateway Prefix registered on an Active Gatekeeper
F. be using a Gatekeeper Prefix defined on the End Point
Correct Answer: E

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Latest NetApp NS0-159 exam List

NetApp NetApp NS0-159 Exam Video

NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP | NetApp: https://www.netapp.com/us/services-support/university/certification/ncda.aspx

Latest updates NetApp NS0-159 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
On an All Flash FAS, where is the root parity information located on a node using Advanced Disk Partitioning?
A. on a single SSD drive, regardless of RAID type
B. on a single SSD partition
C. distributed among SSD partitions
D. on two SSD drives, regardless of RAID type
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.newxpass ns0-159 exam questions q2

You use the commands shown in the exhibit to provision a FlexVol volume and LUN on an AFF A300. The volume
shows 40% storage efficiency savings.
In which container is the free space returned?
A. tree
B. aggregate
C. RAID group
D. LUN
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A storage administrator moves a LUN from one volume to another.
In this scenario, what is left behind in the volume?
A. clones of the LUN
B. LUN geometry settings
C. all of the deduplicated blocks from the base LUN
D. Snapshot copies of the volume
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator encountered a ransomware attack that affected the active file system data. They have been creating
Snapshot copies on an hourly schedule. They determine that the entire volume needs to be recovered. In this scenario,
which command would you use?
A. volume snapshot restore
B. volume snapshot modify
C. volume snapshot create
D. volume snapshot delete
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which NetApp tool indicates whether you have applied data protection policies to all volumes?
A. OnCommand Unified Manager
B. Config Advisor
C. Virtual Storage Console
D. OnCommand Service Level Manager
Correct Answer: A

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Latest NetApp NS0-182 exam List

NetApp NetApp NS0-182 Exam Video

NetApp Certified Storage Installation Engineer, ONTAP | NetApp:https://www.netapp.com/us/services-support/university/certification/ncsie.aspx

Latest updates NetApp NS0-182 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants you to add a new AFF A700 HA pair to an existing 4-node AFF8080 EX cluster. The existing cluster
uses NetApp CN1610 switches for the cluster connection and is using the recommended port count.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. You cannot have more than four nodes with AFF.
B. There are not enough ports available on the cluster switch.
C. The AFF A700 is not supported with NetApp CN1610 switches/
D. You cannot mix different AFF models in the same cluster.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which tool allows you to create a new FlexGroup volume?
A. Cluster Config Builder
B. NetAppDocs
C. OnCommand System Manager
D. OnCommand Unified Manager
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
You are installing a pair of Cisco Nexus 3132Q-V cluster switches and receive several syntax errors when the reference
configuration file (RCF) is applied.
In this scenario, what are two reasons for these errors? (Choose two.)
A. An RCF file for a different version has been loaded.
B. The switch was not in maintenance mode.
C. The RCF was already applied.
D. Cables were not removed before applying the RCF.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4
You are configuring a new system with ONTAP 9.5. You created interface groups, VLANs, and a broadcast domain for
the new ports on all the nodes of your cluster. During the configuration, you used an MTU value of 1500 for the
broadcast domain and 9000 for the physical ports. The customer asks you to enable jumbo frames.
What should you do in this scenario?
A. Set the MTU option to jumbo frames on the broadcast domain.
B. Change the MTU value to 9000 on the ifgroup.
C. Set the MTU option to jumbo frames on the ifgroup.
D. Change the MTU value to 9000 on the broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
You are performing an automated upgrade of a 2-node cluster. Node-01 upgrades successfully. But during the node-02
upgrade, there is a power outage at the site. When power is restored and the nodes are booted, you receive this
message: Warning: The Cluster is in a mixed version state. Update all of the nodes to the same version as soon as
possible.
In this scenario, which command provides information that will help you understand the problem?
A. system node upgrade show-task-status
B. system node image package show
C. system node upgrade-revert show
D. system node image show
Correct Answer: B

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Latest NetApp NS0-193 exam List

NetApp NS0-193 Exam Video

NetApp Certified Support Engineer | NetApp:https://www.netapp.com/us/services-support/university/certification/ncse.aspx

Latest updates NetApp NS0-193 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
After a successful upgrade from ONTAP 9.3 to ONTAP 9.5, you have a compatibility issue and must downgrade to
ONTAP 9.3. Which action must be performed to accomplish this task?
A. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.0 first.
B. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.4 first.
C. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.3 first.
D. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.2 first.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-ug-rdg%2FGUIDAC0EB781-583F-4C90-A4C4-BC7B14CEFD39.html

 

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.newxpass ns0-193 exam questions q2

Response times for NFS clients have increased recently. There have been no changes to the data network. Referring to
the exhibit, what would cause the increased response times?
A. Inter-Switch Link (ISL) failure
B. CPU spike
C. disk latency
D. QoS policy limit
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an I/O module (IOM), which action should you perform before replacing it?
A. Swap IOM-A with IOM-B on the shelf.
B. Reseat the IOM.
C. Reboot the node.
D. Power cycle the shelf.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which two SVMs would benefit from a load-sharing mirror? (Choose two.)
A. An SVM that is configured for FCP.
B. An SVM that is configured for CIFS.
C. An SVM that is configured for NFS.
D. An SVM that is configured for iSCSI.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368017/html/GUID-4931A901-D6D0-458B-8D3AA92427FDD8B8.html

 

QUESTION 5
Users are complaining about slow file access. You suspect that the ONTAP cluster is causing the problem. In this
scenario, which ONTAP command would help you troubleshoot this problem?
A. application show-statistics
B. QoS statistics volume latency show
C. cluster log-forwarding show
D. storage aggregate verify
Correct Answer: D

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101 – Application Delivery Fundamentals | F5 Study Guide: https://www.f5.com/pdf/certification/exams/Certification_Study_Guide_101.pdf

Latest Update F5 Certification 101 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following does NOT describe network performance management?
A. Updating software on various devices
B. Seeing graphs in near real-time
C. Visibility into multiple network devices
D. Being alerted to an issue as it happens
E. Viewing virtual server statistics
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Without creating a user defined region, what is the most specific group a topology record can identify?
A. city
B. country
C. continent
D. state/province
E. region of country
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which level of parameter assumes the highest precedence in BIG-IP ASM System processing logic?
A. Flow
B. Object
C. Global
D. URL
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A top-level DNS zone uses a CNAME record to point to a sub-zone. Which of the following is an example of a subzone?
A. www.F5.com/sub
B. www.F5.com
C. www.gslb.F5.com
D. .com
E. f5.com
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A web client accesses a web application using what protocol?
A. TCP
B. XML
C. HTML D. HTTP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Why is BIG-IP ASM ideally suited to protect against layer 7 attacks, including HTTP and HTTPS/SSL traffic, when
compared to an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
A. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is based on Packet Filtering.
B. An IPS doesn\\’t have the visibility into HTTPS traffic. it doesn\\’t understand what applications are in the network.
C. An IPS only focus on operating system attacks; it doesn\\’t understand what application are in the network.
D. An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn\\’t understand what applications are in the network.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
GTM can load balance to LTM in addition to non-BIG-IP hosts.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
After editing and saving changes to the configuration file containing virtual servers, what is the immediate result?
A. The new configuration is verified and loaded.
B. The new configuration is verified not loaded.
C. The new configuration is verified.
D. The new configuration is loaded but not verified.
E. The new configuration is neither verified not loaded.
F. The new configuration is verified and loaded if is it syntactically correct.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 9
CORRECT TEXT LTM runs on________F5\\’s proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)
Correct Answer: TMOS

 

QUESTION 10
What is the main business driver for bringing Enterprise Manager into the network infrastructure?
A. Consolidate management of administrator and user accounts
B. Consolidate management of licenses
C. Consolidate management of SSL certificates
D. Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices
E. Consolidate management of access policies
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Which two can be a part of a pool\\’s definition? (Choose two.)
A. rule(s)
B. profile(s)
C. monitor(s)
D. persistence type
E. load balancing mode
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 12
What does the BIG-IP_add script do?
A. add BIG-IP servers to the wideip.conf file
B. add an existing GTM System to a sync group
C. synchronize configuration files between BIG-IP Systems
D. exchange web certificates and keys between BIG-IP Systems
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are four of the security benefits of TMOS? (Choose four.)
A. It verifies traffic based on antivirus signatures.
B. It provides protection against DDoS.
C. It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers.
D. It supplies guidance for poorly developed applications.
E. It denies all traffic that hasn\\’t been defined.
F. It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCEF

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[2020.3] Latest HP Certification Exam Tips

Tips and practical test questions and answers for getting HP exam certification
(HP2-H88 exam, HPE0-S57 exam, HPE2-W02 exam,HPE6-A42 exam,HPE6-A47 exam,HPE6-A70 exam)(First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass HP expert.) You can get free HP exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/hp.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Table of Contents:

Latest HP Certifications Exam questions

Latest HP Sales Certified HP2-H88 exam List

Latest updates HP HP2-H88 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
How does HP meet the “everything as a service” demand of rapid urbanization?
A. with HP STS (Smart Technologies Service)
B. with HP CSaaS (Cloud Solutions as a Service)
C. with HP CPaaS (Computing Power as a Service)
D. with HP DaaS (Device as a Service)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
How can you help your worldwide corporate and enterprise customers with stable, consistent images and managed
lifecycle transitions?
A. Offer a product with global series support.
B. Offer a contract for after care.
C. Offer a product with a Care Pack.
D. Offer installation and recycle services.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA7-5400EEAP.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
What does HP offer to customers looking to blend the virtual and physical worlds?
A. HP Omen fanny pack
B. HP Multi Jet Fusion 3D Printer
C. HP Virtual Reality solutions
D. HP Z8 G4 Workstation
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.itbusiness.ca/news/how-hp-will-bridge-the-digital-and-physical-worlds-with-blendedreality/54458

 

QUESTION 4
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Which HP product has HP Sure View Gen3 as an option?
A. HP ProOne 600 G4 AiO PC
B. HP ProBook 400 G6 series Notebook PC
C. HP EliteOne 800 G5 AiO PC
D. HP Chromebook 14 G5
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.thurrott.com/hardware/196696/hp-introduces-third-gen-of-hp-sure-view-with-new-elitebookx360-830-eliteone-800-all-in-one

 

QUESTION 5
What is true about HP Sure Click?
A. It isolates web content in a virtual machine, where malware cannot affect other tabs, applications, or the operating
system.
B. It helps IT departments develop and maintain policies for supported web browsers.
C. It helps IT administrators deploy and maintain security settings across a fleet of PCs.
D. It monitors keyboard clicks and adjusts the feel of the keys so that the user has a nice experience using the keyboard
on an HP EliteBook.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/getpdf.aspx/4AA7-2638ENW.pdf

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Latest HPE ASE HPE0-S57 exam List

Designing HPE Hybrid IT Solutions | Certification and Learning:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE0-S57

Latest updates HP HPE0-S57 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster
recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should
you recommend?
A. Edgeline
B. ProLiant DL
C. Superdome Flex
D. SimpliVity
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf

 

QUESTION 2
A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing
environment contains:
1.
one Synergy 12000 frame
2.
two Composers
3.
eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA
4.
one D3940 Storage Module
The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.
Which components should you include? (Choose two.)
A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter
B. two QSFP+ AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering
C. a second CPU per Compute Module
D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair
E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206

 

QUESTION 3
A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy
features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?
A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.
B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.
C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.
D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
A customer needs to manage the power of their Apollo servers. The server racks provide only basic PDU capability.
Which Management tool will meet the customer\\’s need?
A. HPE Apollo Platform Manager
B. HPE Insight Cluster Management Utility
C. HPE Power Advisor
D. HPE OneView
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=a00074645en_us

 

QUESTION 5
A customer has the following design requirements:
1.
Support for 16Gb Fibre Channel
2.
All SAN elements must be managed by the SAN team
3.
All SAN elements need to be managed by the existing tools
Which component must be included in the design to meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy
B. HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy
C. HPE Synergy 8Gb FC License Upgrade
D. Brocade 16Gb Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04790440.pdf

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Latest HP HPE Sales Certified HPE2-W02 exam List

Selling Aruba Products and Solutions:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE2-W02

Latest updates HP HPE2-W02 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Your customer uses Aruba Central and ClearPass in their Aruba-powered campus network. The company is rapidly
deploying branches and the CIO wants to ensure enterprise scalability for these networks without having to spend extra
money on management.
Which aspect of the Aruba Branch Gateway should you emphasize for this customer?
A. smart rate ports for future-proofing
B. routing through the data center for better security
C. machine learning and AI-powered security assurance
D. single policy enforcement point at branches
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
What correctly describes the addressable market for SD-WAN and the opportunity that it presents?
A. While the SD-WAN market experienced rapid growth over the past 5 years, the market is now slowing down and
experiencing a small reduction in growth.
B. While the SD-WAN market is much smaller than the campus switching and WLAN market in absolute value, the SDWAN market is growing more rapidly.
C. The SD-WAN market is experiencing slow growth at rates comparable to the campus and switching market as a
whole, and it should peak in the next 5 years.
D. The SD-WAN market is experiencing very rapid growth and will overtake the campus switching and WLAN markets in
absolute value within the next 2 years.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which customer is a good target for an Aruba SD-Branch solution?
A. an enterprise that needs to add one large branch over MPLS
B. a retailer that needs to support a large number of small branch sites
C. a university that needs to provide VPN access for faculty at home
D. a small to medium business (SMB) that needs a simple solution to add a branch.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/wp/WP_SDBranchOverview.pdf


QUESTION 4
Which customer statement indicates that you have an ideal opportunity for selling an Aruba mobile engagement
solution?
A. “Airports are known for being a hassle, but we want to change this. We would like to give travelers a way to find
parking, navigate to their gate on a map, and find deals.”
B. “We want to use technology to accelerate student learning, but to achieve this we need a network that gives priority
handling to collaboration and multi-media apps.”
C. “We are a fast paced game design company, but developers have been complaining about unresponsive
applications, and we think that a slow network is to blame.”
D. “Our business is ever-expanding and we have added so many new mobile devices and so much wireless equipment
that our admins cannot keep track of them. We need a way to simplify management.”
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is one key way that Aruba IntroSpect enhances security for a customer network?
A. It enforces role-based policies to ensure the right users connect to the right resources.
B. It provides an enhanced guest portal with user identification and tracking features.
C. It inspects all traffic and ensures that sensitive data is securely encrypted.
D. It ties security alerts to the user or device identify associated with the alert.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest HP Aruba Certified Mobility Associate (ACMA) V8 HPE6-A42 exam List

Latest updates HP HPE6-A42 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
An Aruba solution has a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security. How are encryption keys dynamically managed for
the wireless users?
A. The MM generates and distributes keys to clients and access points (APs).
B. Administrators configure identical key strings on the Mobility Controllers (MCs) and wireless client 802.1X settings.
C. Keys are generated and distributed securely during each wireless user authentication process.
D. Keys are derived from the preshared key configured on the WLAN and on each wireless client.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
A WLAN in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution enforces Enterprise-WPA2 security and uses the tunnel
forwarding mode. The company has an external RADIUS server.
Which device exchanges RADIUS packets with the RADIUS server?
A. Mobility Controller (MC)
B. wireless client
C. access point (AP)
D. Mobility Master (MM)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A company has an Aruba solution. The company wants to support a guest WLAN with the internal captive portal, but the
company also wants to develop their own custom portal pages.
What correctly describes the level of customization that the internal captive portal supports?
A. The internal captive portal must use the default pages without modification, but administrators can upload pages
developed externally.
B. Administrators can modify the default internal captive portal pages, but cannot upload pages developped externally.
C. Administrators can modify the default internal captive portal pages or upload pages developped externally.
D. The internal captive portal must use the default pages without modification, and administrators cannot upload pages
developped externally.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Network administrators use the wizard to create a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security to a RADIUS server at
10.21.98.55. They do not manually change any settings.
Which device determines the EAP type that the wireless clients must support?
A. Mobility Master (MM)
B. Mobility Controller (MC)
C. RADIUS server
D. AP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
What are two criteria that distinguish different Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) models from each other?
A. firewall speed and ability to act as a standalone controller or not
B. number of supported users and firewall throughput
C. number of supported APs and ability to support 802.11ac APs or not
D. number of supported users and ability to support 802.11ac APs or not
Correct Answer: B

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Latest HP Aruba Certified Design Professional (ACDP) V1 HPE6-A47 exam List

Aruba Certified Design Professional Exam:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE6-A47

Latest updates HP HPE6-A47 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A customer needs a solution to terminate VPN tunnels for Aruba RAPs. The customer has a single site and a single
public IP address for this purpose. Network address translation (NAT) will forward the IPsec traffic to the correct device
to terminate the VPN tunnel. The customer also requires N+1 redundancy for the solution.
Which solution meets the customer requirements?
A. two Aruba MCs on the same subnet that use VRRP without clustering
B. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 3 cluster
C. two Aruba MCs on different subnets that use VRRP without clustering
D. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 2 cluster
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A customer needs a networking solution that supports their Microsoft Skype for Business Unified Communications (UC)
solution. The architect plans to use multiple Aruba APs, switches, and controllers.
The customer wants real time statistics and assessment of call quality.
Which component should the architect include to provide these services?
A. Aruba AirWare
B. Aruba Central
C. Aruba Mobility Master (MM)
D. Aruba ClearPass
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
An architect proposes an Aruba solution with a hardware Mobility Master (MM) to a customer. The customer has a
disaster recovery site which is connected to the main site at Layer 3. The customer requires the MM to remain available
in case of a total site failure.
Which plan meets the customer requirements?
A. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set up VRRP between them.
B. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set its IP address as the standby master for MCs.
C. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and set the VMM IP address to the same address as the
hardware MM.
D. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and configure clustering on the hardware and software
appliances.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
An architect needs to plan a wireless deployment. The architect conducts a physical walkthrough, but still needs more
information. Which significant RF obstacle can be difficult to see visually and might require access to blueprints?
A. fiberglass
B. metal firewall
C. ceiling tiles
D. drywall
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
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with the equipment shown in the exhibit. The switches will connect to employee desktops, a few campus APs controlled
by MCs, and printers. The switches do not implement tunneled node.
What is a best practice design for the VLANs and subnets for the wired devices?
A. one VLAN per closet and a /24 subnet for each VLAN
B. one VLAN per closet and a /25 subnet for each VLAN
C. one VLAN for the entire building and a /23 subnet
D. one VLAN per floor and a /24 subnet for each VLAN
Correct Answer: B

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Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE6-A70

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Tips and practical test questions and answers for getting EMC exam certification
(E20-065 exam, E20-393 exam, E20-555 exam)(First: Exam practice test,
Second: Lead4pass EMC expert.) You can get free EMC exam practice test questions here.
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Table of Contents:

Latest EMC Certifications Exam questions

Latest EMC EMCDS E20-065 exam List

Specialist – Data Scientist, Advanced
Analytics Version 1.0: https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/dell-emc/documents/en-us/E20_065_Advanced_Analytics_Specialist_Exam.pdf

Latest updates EMC E20-065 exam practice questions(1-10)

QUESTION 1
What are the major components of the YARN architecture?
A. ResourceManager and NodeManager
B. Task Tracker and NameNode
C. HDFS, Tez, and Spark
D. Avro, ZooKeeper, and HDFS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
What best describes tokenization?
A. Adding lexical relations to the raw text
B. Converting text into the list of terms
C. Converting text into a list of unique terms
D. Reducing variant forms of tokens to their base forms
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
In which step in the visualization lifecycle would you determine how the raw data is stored?
A. Visualization Planning
B. Data Preparation
C. Visualization Building
D. Discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is NOT a category of a NoSQL data store?
A. Columnar
B. Document
C. Key/Value
D. Flat File
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
What is a property of a good color model for ordinal data?
A. Uses a rainbow-like color map for distinction of categories
B. Uses a rainbow-like color map for ease of display and printing
C. Uses perceptually ordinal colors with just-noticeable increments
D. Uses perceptually ordinal colors with linear, perceptual increments
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
What is a characteristic of lemmatization?
A. Can be performed by calling the synset () function on a lemma in LNTK
B. Can be performed by calling the lemma() function on a synset in LNTK
C. Reduces words of variant forms to their base forms based on a set of heuristics
D. Reduces words of variant forms to their base forms based on a dictionary
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
A data engineer is asked to process several large datasets using MapReduce. Upon initial inspection the engineer
realizes that there are complex interdependencies between the datasets.
Why is this a problem?
A. MapReduce works best on unstructured data
B. There is no problem; MapReduce accommodates all the data
C. MapReduce can only parse one file at a time.
D. MapReduce is not ideal when the processing of one dataset depends on another.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
What are two visualization tools used for trivariate data?
A. Scatter plot matrix
B. Hexbin plot and heatmap
C. Scatter plot matrix and density plot
D. Scatter plot matrix and heatmap
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A marketing team creates a graph using a square for each data point, where the length of each side is set to the data
value. The data values are 10 and 20.
What is the lie factor of the graph?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which Hadoop Files System shell command copies data from a local file system into HDFS?
A. rm
B. cp
C. put
D. get
Correct Answer: C

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Latest EMC EMCIE E20-393 exam List

EMC E20-393 Exam Video

Find Exam, |Dell EMC Education Service:https://education.dellemc.com/content/EMC/en-us/home/certification-overview/find-exam.html

Latest updates EMC E20-393 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
Which system level alert indicates an error has occurred that has no impact on the system and should be remedied in
the near future?
A. Error
B. Warning
C. Informational
D. Notice
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15085-dell-emc-unity-unisphere-overview.pdf (23)

 

QUESTION 2
How does Dell EMC Unity XT differ from Dell EMC UnityVSA?
A. Unity XT supports FAST VP only UnityVSA supports FAST VP and FAST Cache
B. Unity XT supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting UnityVSA supports monitoring and reporting only
C. UnityXT supports FAST VP and FAST Cache. UnityVSA supports FAST VP only
D. UnityXT supports monitoring and reporting only UnityVSA supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/nl-nl/asset/datasheets/products/storage/h17717_dell_emc_unity_xt_hybrid_family_top_reasons.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
Which VASA API protocol is used to integrate with Dell EMC UnityVSA over HTTPS?
A. SNMP
B. WSDL
C. SOAP
D. REST
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
What are four constraints defined in a VMware Capability Profile?
A. Service Level, Access, Protocol, and Space Efficiency
B. Capacity, Drive Type, RAID Level, and Data Reduction
C. Protocol Endpoint, Drive Type, RAID Level, and VM UUID
D. Service Level, Drive Type, RAID Level, and Space Efficiency
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/en-us/asset/white-papers/products/storage/h15091-dell-emc-unityvirtualization-integration.pdf (figure 6)

 

QUESTION 5
A storage administrator has added multiple resources to a single density-based Host I/O Limit policy for the following
storage resources: LUN A: 25 GB LUN B: 25 GB LUN C: 50 GB Density-Based Limit 20 IOPS
What is the total IOPS set by this policy?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 2000
D. 2500
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.dell.com/community/Unity/Host-IO-Limits-on-Unity-600F-storage/td-p/7131577

 

QUESTION 6
What is a function of CloudIQ?
A. Tier to cloud storage
B. Provision storage resources
C. Configure host access
D. Monitor system health
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15691-emc-cloudiq-overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
Which Unity service task is used to reinstall the root operating system while leaving the user\\’s data intact?
A. Restore the Management server
B. Reimage the Storage Processor
C. Restore the Management software
D. Reinitialize the storage system
Correct Answer: B
Re-image a storage processor (SP) to safely fix problems with the system software that could not be resolved by
rebooting the SP. Re-imaging analyzes the system software for errors and attempts to correct them instantly. Re-image
an SP
from the Service System page.
Your configuration settings and stored files will not be changed.
References: https://community.emc.com/docs/DOC-40315

 

QUESTION 8
Which Unity feature supports provisioning within vCenter, provides full visibility to physical storage, and increases
management efficiency?
A. VSI
B. ODX
C. ESI
D. VAAI
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When creating a new LUN on a Dell EMC Unity array using Unisphere, what is the default setting of the Data Reduction
feature?
A. OFF for thick LUNs and ON for thin LUNs
B. ON for thick LUNs and OFF for thin LUNs
C. ON for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool
D. OFF for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A storage administrator configured a Hybrid Dell EMC Unity XT storage system using one default port containing three
disk types. They need additional Flash capacity. What is the correct way to expand the pool?
A. Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash 4 drives to the pool
B. Add 2 SAS Flash drives to the FAST Cache
C. Add 1 SAS Flash drive to the pool
D. Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash drives to the pool
Correct Answer: A

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E20-555 – Dell EMC Education Services – Dell Technologies:https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/Dell-EMC/documents/en-us/e20-555_TA_Isilon_Solutions_And_Design_Specialist_Exam.pdf

Latest updates EMC E20-555 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
An Isilon has two ports configured per node. Each port is on a different VLAN. Although incoming traffic is evenly
distributed, transmitted data from the Isilon uses one port more than the other port. What could be the cause of this
imbalance?
A. Static routes are configured on the less-used port
B. A default gateway was not configured on both ports
C. Source Based Routing is not enabled on the cluster
D. Priority of the gateway in the less-used port set too low
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What is the sector size of an Isilon 8 TB drive?
A. 512 bytes
B. 1024 bytes
C. 2048 bytes
D. 4096 bytes
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor\\’s offering. They currently have 100TB of usable
capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years, which will require them to lease additional
space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI and TCO to be important decision criteria.
Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon\\’s OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID based NAS
solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance may degrade.
D. Isilon\\’s OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than competitive offerings.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source broadcast media files for
playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed
that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Your customer\\’s site uses an old X-Series cluster, and they are interested in consolidating their two primary workflows.
iostat shows that one of the applications is sensitive to latency, while isi statistics indicates sensitivity to disk response
times. There are approximately 1000 users accessing 70 TB of file data.
Which node type would you recommend?
A. S200
B. X400
C. X200
D. NL400
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
How many file systems are present in a 20-node Isilon X200 cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
If business objectives such as value and SLAs are considered, which Isilon license feature provides the ability to
manage performance and the cost of data in a cluster?
A. SmartPools
B. SmartConnect
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartQuota
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which license is a prerequisite for enabling CloudPools?
A. SmartPools
B. FilePools
C. DiskPools
D. NodePools
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A customer wants to use their large Gen 6 Isilon cluster for ILM. All of their data is written to and read from a single file
pool. They need to use multiple file pools, so slightly used data is stored on less expensive, large disks. Heavily used
data is stored on a faster tier.
What would satisfy the customer\\’s needs?
A. Configure SmartPools Advanced
B. Add an A-series node with SmartPools license
C. Enable FAST VP license on each node pair
D. Install SmartPools license on the cluster
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Your customer manages a print media environment, consisting of three Isilon clusters, which are out of support. The
customer would like to have access to new software releases and feature sets. You have been asked to perform a full
discovery of the customer\\’s environment.
The customer\\’s current Isilon clusters are as follows:
“Cust” (12 x 12000X) serves as upload media storage for different tenants.
“Working” (8 x 12000X + 6 x X200) serves as a working zone for extraction to RAW and printing media from it.
“Archive” (16 x 72NL + Accelerator nodes) is used to store printed content for six months.
The customer operates in a Windows environment using SMB 2.0, two DNS servers per AD forest, three forest domains
which are servicing three different environments. All servers are operating on a 1Gb network, three VLANs segregating
the DEV/QA/PROD environments. Currently, there is no monitoring in place for performance measurement or
optimization.
The requirements for this solution include:
Better ROI and TCO
Maintain same performance with possible improvements
Renew HW/SW and get inclusive support
Limit migrations
Reduce space, power, cooling consumption
Get new feature sets
If migration required, use Parallel copy (multiple nodes, multiple threads, multiple connections)
Segregate tenant shares from other tenants
Expand up to 1PB of total storage
What would you recommend be done to consolidate the three clusters into one?
A. • Expand the largest and most I/O intensive cluster using SmartFail

Consolidate the remaining two clusters using Multithreaded version of RoboCopy

Modify A-Record and propagate to all DNS servers to point to the new cluster
B. • Leave the clusters as is
• Upgrade drive sizes to meet the customer requirements
C. • Expand the largest and most I/O intensive cluster using SmartFail
• Consolidate the remaining two clusters using SyncIQ
D. • Build a new cluster for consolidation

Use SnapshotIQ to migrate the existing data onto the new consolidated cluster

Spoof DNS to point to the new cluster
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates CCNA 200-125 exam dumps and 200-301 exam tips

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This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:

  • Network fundamentals
  • Network access
  • IP connectivity
  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
  • Automation and programmability
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Latest updates Cisco 200-125 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Correct Answer: B
Netflow can be used to diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth utilization quickly with
command line interface or reporting tools. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/iosnetflow/prod_white_paper0900aecd80406232.html

QUESTION 2
RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q2

After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. incorrect bandwidth configuration
B. incorrect LMI configuration
C. incorrect map statement
D. incorrect IP address
Correct Answer: C
First we have to say this is an unclear question and it is wrong. The “frame-relay map ip” statement is correct thus none
of the four answers above is correct. But we guess there is a typo in the output. Maybe the “ip address 172.16.100.2
255.255.0.0 command should be “ip address 172.16.100.1 255.255.0.0. That makes answer C correct.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension.
B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge.
C. Thesystem ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095.
D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension.
E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
In which two ways can you prevent recursive routing in a tunneled environment? (Choose two)
A. Configure routes through the tunnel with a lower metric than other routes.
B. Configure route filtering to prevent the tunnel endpoints from learning each other through the tunnel.
C. Enable QoS on the link.
D. Configure routes through the tunnel with a higher metric than other routes.
E. configure GRE keepalives on the tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q6

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to
authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
With CHAP authentication, the configured passwords must be identical on each router. Here, it is configured as little123
on one side and big123 on the other.

QUESTION 7
which two types of information are held in the mac address table ?
A. destination ip addresses
B. protocols
C. port numbers
D. mac address
E. source ip address
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?
A. the operation of VTP
B. a method of VLAN trunking
C. an approach to wireless LAN communication
D. the process for root bridge selection
E. VLAN pruning
Correct Answer: B
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must
send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is
created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier
in a Layer 2 frame.
The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a
network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides
VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.

QUESTION 9
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?
A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface
C. The interface is error -disabled.
D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses
E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which statement about static routes is true?
A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.
B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default
D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.
Correct Answer: D
Static routing can be used to define an exit point from a router when no other routes are available or necessary. This is
called a default route.

QUESTION 12
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Correct Answer: D
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets).
The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
The leading 0\\’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

QUESTION 13
Based on the network shown in the graphic

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q13

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent
the problem?
A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. switching loops, STP
Correct Answer: F
The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via
multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with
other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm
guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.

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Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-101

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills measured

  • The content of this exam was updated on December 4, 2019. Please download the Skills measured document below to see what changed.
  • Implement modern device services (30-35%)
  • Implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management (30-35%)
  • Manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance (35-40%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-101 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint
sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization.
You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future.
Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a data loss prevention (DIP) policy.
You need to increase the likelihood that the DLP policy will apply to data that contains medical terms from the
International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9-CM). The solution must minimize the number of false positives.
Which two settings should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Your company has a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription.
All devices run Windows 10 Pro and are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to change the edition of Windows 10 to Enterprise the next time users sign in to their computer. The solution
must minimize downtime for the users.
What should you use?
A. Windows Autopilot
B. Windows Update
C. Subscription Activation
D. an in-place upgrade
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure pilot co-management.
You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1.
You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: You unjoin Device1 from the Active Directory domain.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company uses Microsoft Cloud App Security.
You plan to integrate Cloud App Security and security information and event management (SIEM).
You need to deploy a SIEM agent on a server that runs Windows Server 2016.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
You need to meet the Intune requirements for the Windows 10 devices.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You implement Microsoft Azure Information Protection.
You need to automatically protect email messages that contain the word Confidential in the subject line.
What should you create?
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A. a mail flow rule from the Exchange admin center
B. a message trace from the Security and Compliance admin center
C. a supervision policy from the Security and Compliance admin center
D. a sharing policy from the Exchange admin center
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-exo-rules

QUESTION 8
You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices. What should you create from the Intune
admin center?
A. a device compliance policy
B. a device configuration profile
C. an app protection policy
D. an app configuration policy
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-wip-policy-using-intune-azure

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a role group named US eDiscovery Managers by copying
the eDiscovery Manager role group.
You need to ensure that the users in the new role group can only perform content searches of mailbox content for users
in the United States.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run the New-AzureRmRoleAssignment cmdlet with the appropriate
parameters.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have Windows 10 Pro devices that are joined to an Active Directory domain.
You plan to create a Microsoft 365 tenant and to upgrade the devices to Windows 10 Enterprise.
You are evaluating whether to deploy Windows Hello for Business for SSO to Microsoft 365 services.
What are two prerequisites of the deployment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. computers that have biometric hardware features
B. Microsoft Intune enrollment
C. Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
D. smartcards
E. TPM-enabled devices
Correct Answer: BC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-hybrid-aadj-sso-base

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com.
You have two users named User 1 and User2.
From the Security and Compliance admin center, you add User1 to the ediscovery Manager role group.
From the Security and Compliance admin center, User1 creates a case named Case1
You need to ensure that User1 can add User2 as a case member. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
To which role group should you add User2?
A. eDiscovery Manager
B. eDiscovery Administrator
C. Security Administrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a group named Support. Users in the Support group frequently send email messages to external users.
The manager of the Support group wants to randomly review messages that contain attachments.
You need to provide the manager with the ability to review messages that contain attachments sent from the Support
group users to external users. The manager must have access to only 10 percent of the messages.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q12

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lead4pass ms-101 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You configure a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
You discover that users are incorrectly marking content as false positive and bypassing the DLP policy.
You need to prevent the users from bypassing the DLP policy.
What should you configure?
A. incident reports
B. actions
C. exceptions
D. user overrides
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

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Microsoft MS-100 Exam Video

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Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-100

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills measured

  • Design and implement Microsoft 365 services (25-30%)
  • Manage user identity and roles (35-40%)
  • Manage access and authentication (20-25%)
  • Plan Office 365 workloads and applications (10-15%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-100 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Dashboard in Security and Compliance.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains
a user named User1.
You suspect that an imposter is signing in to Azure AD by using the credentials of User1.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin1 can view all the sign in details of User1 from the past 24
hours.
To which three roles should you add Admin1? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Security administrator
B. Password administrator
C. User administrator
D. Compliance administrator
E. Reports reader
F. Security reader
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise subscription.
You have a conditional access policy to force multi-factor authentication when accessing Microsoft SharePoint from a
mobile device.
You need to view which users authenticated by using multi-factor authentication.
What should you do?
A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Security and Compliance reports.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the user sign-ins.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Usage reports.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the audit logs.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting

QUESTION 4
Your company has on-premises servers and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
Several months ago, the Azure AD Connect Health agent was installed on all the servers.
You review the health status of all the servers regularly.
Recently, you attempted to view the health status of a server named Server1 and discovered that the server is NOT
listed on the Azure Active Directory Connect Servers list.
You suspect that another administrator removed Server1 from the list.
You need to ensure that you can view the health status of Server1.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Register-AzureADConnectHealthSyncAgent cmdlet.
B. From Azure Cloud shell, run the Connect-AzureAD cmdlet.
C. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic (Delayed Start).
D. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic.
E. From Server1, reinstall the Azure AD Connect Health agent.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
You create the Microsoft 365 tenant.
You implement Azure AD Connect as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q5-2

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
An external user has a Microsoft account that uses an email address of [email protected]
An administrator named Admin1 attempts to create a user account for the external user and receives the error message
shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q6

You need to ensure that Admin1 can add the user.
What should you do from the Azure Active Directory admin center?
A. Add a custom domain name named outlook.com.
B. Modify the Authentication methods.
C. Modify the External collaboration settings.
D. Assign Admin1 the Security administrator role.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your organization has an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization is in the
company\\’s main office in Melbourne. The main office has a low-bandwidth connection to the Internet.
The organization contains 250 mailboxes.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to migrate to Exchange Online next month.
In 12 months, you plan to increase the bandwidth available for the Internet connection.
You need to recommend the best migration strategy for the organization. The solution must minimize administrative
effort.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the
BEST answer.
A. network upload
B. cutover migration
C. hybrid migration
D. staged migration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD) as shown in the following two exhibits.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8

You create a user named User1 in Active Directory as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8-3

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. All the branch offices connect to the main office by using a
WAN link. The main office has a high-speed Internet connection. All the branch offices connect to the Internet by using
the
main office connections.
Users use Microsoft Outlook 2016 to connect to a Microsoft Exchange Server mailbox hosted in the main office.
The users report that when the WAN link in their office becomes unavailable, they cannot access their mailbox.
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription, and then migrate all the user data to Microsoft 365.
You need to ensure that all the users can continue to use Outlook to receive email messages if a WAN link fails.
Solution: You deploy a site-to-site VPN from each branch office to Microsoft Azure.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to deploy Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus applications to all the client computers at your company.
You prepare the following XML file for the planned deployment.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q10-2

QUESTION 11
You need to meet the security requirement for Group1. What should you do?
A. Configure all users to sign in by using multi-factor authentication.
B. Modify the properties of Group1.
C. Assign Group1 a management role.
D. Modify the Password reset properties of the Azure AD tenant.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-howitworks

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains a guest user named User1. User1 is assigned the User
administrator role.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. Contoso.com is configured as
shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q12

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q12-2

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains five domain
controllers.
Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates a Microsoft Azure Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.onmicrosoft,com.
You plan to establish federation authentication between on-premises Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant by using
Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to establish the federation.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q13-1

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About the exam

The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:

  • Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
  • Identifying common software applications and their purpose
  • Using security and web browsing best practices

Latest updates CompTIA FC0-U61 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

A UPS provides protection against: 

A. denial of service 

B. replay attack. 

C. power outages. 

D. wiretapping. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 2

For a disaster recovery exercise, a company wants to ensure customer data is recovered before operational data. This

is an example of: 

A. redundancy. 

B. replication. 

C. prioritization. 

D. fault tolerance. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 3

A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized

access. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure? 

A. WPA 

B. SSID 

C. WEP 

D. WPA2 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 4

Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file? 

A. Data querying 

B. Data reports 

C. Data importing 

D. Data persistence 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 5

An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was

performed? 

A. Data correlation 

B. Data manipulation 

C. Data gathering 

D. Data definition 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 6

The IT department has established a new password policy for employees. Specifically, the policy reads: 

Passwords must not contain common dictionary words 

Passwords must contain at least one special character. 

Passwords must be different from the las six passwords used. 

Passwords must use at least one capital letter or number. 

Which of the following practices are being employed? (Select TWO). 

A. Password lockout 

B. Password complexity 

C. Password expiration 

D. Passwords history 

E. Password length 

F. Password age 

Correct Answer: BD 

QUESTION 7

Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by

Internet browsing? 

A. Turn on private browsing 

B. Delete browsing history on program close. 

C. Notify when downloads are complete. 

D. Configure prompting before downloading content. 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 8

For which of the following is a relational database management system MOST commonly used? 

A. Building flowcharts 

B. Storing information 

C. Generating reports 

D. Creating diagrams 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 9

A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible. The data does not need to

remain persistent. Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data? 

A. Flat file 

B. Memory 

C. Relational database 

D. Solid state drive 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 10

Joe, a developer, is writing a program in which he needs to store a number that changes over the duration of the

program\\’s run. Which of the following would Joe MOST likely use to accomplish this? 

A. Loop 

B. Variable 

C. Constant 

D. Function 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 11

Joe, a user, finds out his password for a social media site has been compromised. Joe tells a friend that his email and

banking accounts are probably also compromised. Which of the following has Joe MOST likely performed? 

A. Password reuse 

B. Snooping 

C. Social engineering 

D. Phishing 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 12

A technician is called to replace a display for a workstation. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to

connect the display to the workstation? 

A. USB 

B. NFC 

C. DSL 

D. DVI 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following would work BEST stored as a flat file rather than stored in a database? 

A. Contact list 

B. Movie theater locations 

C. Directions to doctor\\’s office 

D. Store inventory 

Correct Answer: A

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