Citrix 1Y0-203 exam exercise questions, 1Y0-203 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Now available! New Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Administration exam” Exam 1Y0-203.

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1Y0-203 exam

  • Initial Requirements
  • Installing and Configuring a XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • Provisioning and Delivering App and Desktop Resources
  • Providing Access with StoreFront and Receiver
  • Understanding and Configuring Citrix Policies
  • Application Presentation and Management
  • Printing with XenApp and XenDesktop
  • Citrix Profile Management
  • Managing the XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • XenApp and XenDesktop Site Redundancy Considerations
  • XenApp and XenDesktop Basic Security Considerations
  • Monitoring the XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • Supporting and Troubleshooting XenApp and XenDesktop

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Free Citrix 1Y0-203 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy a new version of Receiver to 10 users who are onsite as visitors and
use personal BYOD laptops that run an older version of Receiver. The users only require a base installation of Receiver
with NO customizations; however, they will need to have the ability to print and save files locally from within their
sessions.
The users will access XenDesktop resources through StoreFront.
Which two deployment options can the administrator choose for these users? (Choose two.)
A. Have users run HTML5 Receiver through web browser.
B. Use an Enterprise software deployment of Receiver.
C. Deploy Receiver through StoreFront browser.
D. Have users perform a manual installation of Native Receiver.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Administrator wants to use NetScaler Gateway to allow external users to access internal resources securely.
Which three functionalities will the NetScaler Gateway provide to allow access to internal resources on behalf of
external users? (Choose three.)
A. Allow secured external connections to StoreFront (reverse Web Proxy)
B. Authenticate Users
C. Enumerate resources
D. Allow secured access to internal hosted applications (HDX Proxy)
E. Aggregate resources
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Administrator needs to add a VMware ESXi host as a hosting unit in the XenDesktop.
Which three permissions are required by User account to add the VMware ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. System.Read
B. DataStore.AllocateSpace
C. DataStore.FileManagement
D. System.View
E. System.Anonymousx
F. DataStore.Browse
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 4
Which account is used by FlexCast Management Architecture (FMA) services to access the Citrix XenApp and
XenDesktop SQL databases?
A. Network Service Account
B. Local System Account
C. Local User Account
D. Controller\\’s Machine Account
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is planning to update a Machine Catalog for the first time. The Machine Catalog was
created with Machine Creation Services (MCS). What happens to the identity disk after the update?
A. It is deleted and recreated
B. It stays the same size
C. It doubles in size
D. It is formatted and re-initialized
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which two FlexCast models allow for high scalability and user density? (Choose two.)
A. Remote PC access
B. Hosted VDI
C. Published applications
D. Hosted shared desktops
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 7
Which two cloud providers are supported with XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Web Services
B. Google Cloud Services
C. Microsoft Azure
D. IBM Cloud
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator works at a hospital where doctors frequently move between patient rooms.
Each patient room has a different workstation. Several doctors have complained that when they switch patient rooms,
they have to relaunch their Citrix-delivered applications.
Which feature can the administrator configure to address this issue?
A. Session Pre-launch
B. ICA Keep-Alive
C. Session Reliability
D. Workspace Control
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy 2000 virtual desktops. The hardware in the environment has a very fast
SSD local storage, and the SAN is running almost at capacity. There is NO need for user-installed applications or
persistency in the environment.
Which provisioning method would allow the administrator to save SAN storage?
A. Provisioning Services
B. Manual Provisioning
C. Existing machines
D. Machine Creation Services
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator needs to get a list of all published applications being used along with associated user names in a
XenApp environment. Which cmdlet can the administrator execute to accomplish this task?
A. Get-BrokerApplicationInstance
B. Get-BrokerApplication
C. Get-BrokerSessionLinger
D. Get-BrokerSession
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator needs to review the Delivery Group\\’s historical data from the last 200 days. Which tool allows the
administrator to view this data?
A. Citrix Studio – Delivery Groups
B. Citrix Director – Dashboard
C. Citrix Studio – Applications
D. Citrix Director – Trends
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which two steps can a Citrix Administrator perform to use Citrix PowerShell cmdlets in a XenDesktop environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Get-executionPolicy
B. Set-ExecutionPolicy unrestricted
C. Get-Command-Module Citrix*
D. Add-Pssnapin citrix*
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has configured two sites: Site A and Site B. Each site uses the same license server
named LicenseServer1. The administrator has the following additional information:
Site A is configured to check out Enterprise licenses.
Site B is configured to check out Platinum licenses.
LicenseServer1 contains both Enterprise and Platinum licenses.
The Enterprise licenses have become exhausted, and the next user from Site A attempts to launch a published desktop.
What will be the outcome of this action?
A. The application will launch successfully with Platinum licenses checked out.
B. The application will launch successfully, and Site A will enter the Supplement Grace Period.
C. The user will be unable to launch the application, and the error message “No resources available” will appear.
D. The application will launch successfully, and Site B will enter the Supplement Grace Period.
Correct Answer: B

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API API-571 exam exercise questions, API-571 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

API 571 – Corrosion and Materials – API” Exam API-571.

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API-571 exam

1.Studying For The Exam

Exam questions for the API 571 Corrosion and Materials certification are derived from API RP 571 Damage Mechanisms Affecting Fixed Equipment in the Refining Industry.
The Body of Knowledge for the API 571 exam consists of the entire API RP 571, 2nd edition (2011), with the exception of the following sections: 1.1, 3.1, 4.1 and 5.2.

2.Exam Structure

The API 571 exam is 3.25 hours long.
There are 80 questions, of which only 70 are scored. The remaining 10 are pretest, which are not scored.
All questions are multiple-choice and closed-book. Paper and reference materials are not allowed into exams.

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Free API API-571 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A 5Cr-1Mo piping system in the hydrogen unit shows significant internal wall loss after 2 years in service due to
CO?corrosion. Which material would be best suited to use to install a new pipe system?
A. Titanium
B. 9Cr-1Mo
C. A-106 Gr B
D. 316 SS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Hydrogen stress cracking is the same mechanism that is responsible for sulfide stress corrosion cracking in wet H²S
environments except that HF acid is generating the __________.
A. Sulfide
B. Caustic
C. Hydrogen
D. Water
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Carbonate stress corrosion cracking is the term applied to surface breaking or cracks that occur adjacent to carbon steel
welds under the combined action of ____________ and ___________ in carbonate containing systems.
A. Temperature, stress
B. Tensile stress, corrosion
C. Corrosion, velocity
D. Tensile stress, velocity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Sulfuric acid promotes general and localized corrosion of carbon steel. Carbon steel heat affected zones may
experience severe corrosion. Acid concentration, temperature, alloy content and ____________ are critical factors
affecting sulfuric acid corrosion.
A. Pressure
B. Stress
C. Velocity
D. Ductility
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
For furnaces, to prevent PASCC, keep the firebox heated above the dewpoint to keep ________ from forming.
A. Water
B. Acids
C. Moisture
D. Corrosion
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
In susceptible materials, the primary factor that affects sigma phase formation is the ________ at elevated
temperatures.
A. Time of exposure
B. Pressure
C. Stress
D. Velocity
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Welds joining dissimilar materials (ferritic and austenetic) may suffer __________ related damage at high temperatures
due to differential thermal expansion stresses.
A. Stress
B. Creep
C. Fatigue
D. Thermal stress
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Carburization can be confirmed by a substantial increase in hardness and a _______ in ductility.
A. Loss
B. Gain
C. Change
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Cl SCC usually occurs at metal temperatures above ________.
A. 125º F
B. 175º F
C. 140º F
D. 200º F
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
With Cl SCC, ________ levels of chloride ________ the likelihood of cracking.
A. Decreasing, Increases
B. Increasing, Decreases
C. Increasing, Increases
D. Increasing, Eliminates
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
_________ is accelerated high temperature wastage of materials that occurs when contaminants in the fuel form
deposits and melt on the metal surfaces.
A. Spheroidization
B. Dealloying
C. Fuel ash corrosion
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Susceptibility to temper embrittlement is largely determined by the presence of the alloying elements manganese and
_______.
A. Chromium
B. Moly
C. Silicon
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
A brittle fracture:
A. Is caused by stress cycles.
B. Is always the result of thermal stresses.
C. Grow very rapidly with minimum deformation prior to failure.
D. Grows slowly and is dependent on time and stress.
Correct Answer: C

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Easy to learn, you’ll pass the Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 exam! Free 300-206 dumps

Pass the Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 exam. “Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions (SENSS)”: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-206.html (Total Questions: 445 Q&As).
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Test your Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 exam level

QUESTION 1
Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary
protocols?
A. network
B. ICMP
C. protocol
D. TCP-UDP
E. service
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
Which technology can drop packets with a spoofed source address Instead of forwarding them?
A. ICUP redirects
B. SNMPv3
C. ICMP unreachable messages
D. uRPF
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Control plane thresholding limit for which protocols
A. ICMP
B. BGP
C. ARP
Correct Answer: B
The queue-thresholding feature policy supports the following TCP/UDP-based protocols:
Bgp,dns,ftp,http,igmp,snmp,ssh,syslog,telnet,Tftp,host-protocols

 

QUESTION 4
An engineer is hardening the management plane for an ASA. Which protocol is affected by this hardening?
A. BGP
B. IKE
C. ICMP
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode and has two user-defined contexts– Context_A and Context_B.
From which context are device logging messages sent?
A. Admin
B. Context_A
C. Context_B
D. System
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A network engineer wants to add new view to an IOS device configured with RBAC. Which privilege is required for that
task?
A. Level 16
B. Level 15
C. root view
D. admin view
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which setting is optional when configuring two Cisco ASA firewalls for failover?
A. identical RAM installed
B. same context mode
C. same AnyConnect images
D. identical licenses
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which VTP mode supports private VLANs on a switch?
A. transparent
B. server
C. client
D. off
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about Cisco IDS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is preferred for detection-only deployment.
B. It is used for installations that require strong network-based protection and that include sensor tuning.
C. It is used to boost sensor sensitivity at the expense of false positives.
D. It is used to monitor critical systems and to avoid false positives that block traffic.
E. It is used primarily to inspect egress traffic, to filter outgoing threats.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-206 exam question q10

An SNMP host is an IP address to which SNMP notifications and traps are sent. To configure SNMFV3 hosts, which
option must you configure in addition to the target IP address?
A. the Cisco ASA as a DHCP server, so the SNMFV3 host can obtain an IP address
B. a username, because traps are only sent to a configured user
C. SSH, so the user can connect to the Cisco ASA
D. the Cisco ASA with a dedicated interface only for SNMP, to process the SNMP host traffic.
Correct Answer: B
The username can be seen here on the ASDM simulator screen shot:

lead4pass 300-206 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/firewall-best-practices.html


QUESTION 12
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
Correct Answer: BDE

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Easy to learn, you’ll pass the Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-462 exam! Free 70-462 dumps

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Exam 70-462: Administering Microsoft SQL Server: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-462.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install and configure (20–25%)
  • Maintain instances and databases (15–20%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot (15–20%)
  • Manage data (20–25%)
  • Implement security (15–20%)
  • Implement high availability (5–10%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks. Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.

Test your Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-462 exam level

QUESTION 1
You want to simulate read, write, checkpoint, backup, sort, and read-ahead activities for your organization\\’s SQL
Server 2012 deployment. Which of the following tools would you use to accomplish this goal?
A. SQLIO
B. SQLIOSim
C. SQLIOStress
D. chkdsk
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application. You need to create an object that meets the
following requirements: Takes an input variable Returns a table of values Cannot be referenced within a view
Which object should you use?
A. Scalar-valued function
B. Inline function
C. User-defined data type
D. Stored procedure
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
You administer a SQL Server 2012 server that contains a database named SalesDb.
SalesDb contains a schema named Customers that has a table named Regions.
A user named UserA is a member of a role named Sales.
UserA is granted the Select permission on the Regions table and the Sales role is granted the Select permission on the
Customers schema.
You need to ensure that the Sales role, including UserA, is disallowed to select from the Regions table.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. REVOKE SELECT OK Schema::Customers FROM UserA
B. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA
C. EXEC sp_addrolemember \\’Sales\\’, \\’UserA\\’
D. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales
E. EXEC sp_droprolemember \\’Sales\\’, \\’UserA\\’
F. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales
G. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA
H. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales
I. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM UserA
J. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales
Correct Answer: J
References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188369.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187750.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff848791.asp

 

 

QUESTION 4
You have configured Resource Governor with three resource pools.
You have assigned the first resource pool a minimum CPU and memory value of 20%.
You have assigned the second resource pool a minimum CPU and memory value of 30%.
You want to assign maximum CPU and memory values to the third resource pool.
What is the maximum CPU and memory value you can assign to this resource pool?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: B
The maximum resource value assigned to the third pool is 65%; the sum of the minimum resource values assigned to
the other pools is 50%.
Note: MIN_CPU_PERCENT and MAX_CPU_PERCENT
These settings are the minimum and maximum guaranteed average CPU bandwidth for all requests in the resource pool
when there is CPU contention. You can use these settings to establish predictable CPU resource usage for multiple
workloads that is based on the needs of each workload. For example, assume the Sales and Marketing departments in
a company share the same database. The Sales department has a CPU-intensive workload with high-priority queries.
The Marketing department also has a CPU-intensive workload, but has lower-priority queries. By creating a separate
resource pool for each department, you can assign a minimum CPU percentage of 70 for the Sales resource pool and a
maximum CPU percentage of 30 for the Marketing resource pool. This ensures that the Sales workload receives the
CPU resources it requires and the Marketing workload is isolated from the CPU demands of the Sales workload. Note
that the maximum CPU percentage is an opportunistic maximum. If there is available CPU capacity, the workload uses
it up to 100 percent. The maximum value only applies when there is contention for CPU resources. In this example, if
the Sales workload is switched off, the Marketing workload can use 100 percent of the CPU if needed.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/resource-governor/resource-governor-resource-pool

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are a database administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. The environment contains two servers
named SQLServer01 and SQLServer02. The database Contoso exists on SQLServer01.
You plan to mirror the Contoso database between SQLServer01 and SQLServer02 by using database mirroring.
You need to prepare the Contoso database for database mirroring.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active
OLTP application.
Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time.
What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of
more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the
duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Correct Answer: A
Use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more
than 1,000.
Incorrect:
Not B: The SQL Server lock monitor is responsible for implementing the logic to detect a blocking scenario if the
`blocked process threshold\\’ value is greater than 0. However, the lock monitor only wakes up every 5 seconds to
detect this
condition (it is also looking for other conditions such as deadlocks). Therefore, if you set a `blocked process threshold\\’
value to 1, it will not detect a process that has been blocking for 1 second. The minimum time it can detect a blocked
process is 5 seconds.
Not E: The Traceflag 1222 Shows Deadlocks, not the Duration of an query.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/tools/sql-server-profiler/sql-server-profiler

 

QUESTION 7
You install a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
The instance will store data extracted from two databases running on Windows Azure SQL Database.
You hire a data steward to perform interactive data cleansing and ad hoc querying and updating of the database.
You need to ensure that the data steward is given the correct client tools to perform these tasks.
Which set of tools should you install?
A. SQL Server Management Studio and Distributed Replay Client
B. Master Data Services and Data Quality Client
C. Data Quality Client and Distributed Replay Client
D. Data Quality Client and SQL Server Management Studio
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertutorial/3802/sql-server-master-data-services-architecture/

 

QUESTION 8
You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up
telephone numbers for these companies.
The view has the following definition: You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this
view. What should you do?

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q8

A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view.
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
You administer two instances of Microsoft SQL Server. You deploy an application that uses a database on the named
instance.
The application is unable to connect to the database on the named instance.
You need to ensure that the application can connect to the named instance.
What should you do?
A. Start the SQL Server Browser Service.
B. Configure the application as data-tiered.
C. Open port 1433 on the Windows firewall on the server.
D. Configure the named SQL Server instance to use an account that is a member of the Domain Admins group.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a database of confidential data.
You need to encrypt the database files at the page level. You also need to encrypt the transaction log files.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You have a consolidated SQL Server instance that contains databases for several applications.
You need to limit the maximum degree of parallelism for an application named App1.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q11-1

Step 1: Enable Resource Governor
The Resource Governor is turned off by default. You can enable the Resource Governor by using either SQL Server
Management Studio or Transact-SQL.
Step 2: Create a resource pool.
In the SQL Server Resource Governor, a resource pool represents a subset of the physical resources of an instance of
the Database Engine.
Step 3: Create a workload group
In the SQL Server Resource Governor, a workload group serves as a container for session requests that have similar
classification criteria. A workload allows for aggregate monitoring of the sessions, and defines policies for the sessions.
Each workload group is in a resource pool, which represents a subset of the physical resources of an instance of
the Database Engine. When a session is started, the Resource Governor classifier assigns the session to a specific
workload group, and the session must run using the policies assigned to the workload group and the resources defined
for the resource pool.
Step 4: Write a classifier function.
The SQL Server resource governor classification process assigns incoming sessions to a workload group based on the
characteristics of the session. You can tailor the classification logic by writing a user-defined function, called a classifier
function.
Incorrect Answers:
Not: Restart SQL Server
The setting takes effect immediately without restarting the server.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/resource-governor/resource-governor

 

QUESTION 12
This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answers choices. An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database.
The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting
database is only updated from the transactional database.
The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q12

One of the hard disk drives that stores the transactional database fails at 23:32 hours. Attempts to create a tail log
backup are unsuccessful.
You need to ensure that the transactional database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal.
What should you do?
A. Perform a page restore.
B. Perform a partial restore.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Restore the latest full backup.
E. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before
the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recent full backup.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/restore-a-sql-server-database-to-a-point-in-time-full-recovery-model?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You administer two Microsoft SQL Server database servers named ProdSrv1 and ProdSrv2. Each server has a
database named Orders.
You need to configure transactional replication from the OrderSummary table in the Orders database on ProdSrv1 to the
OrderSummary table in the Orders database on ProdSrv2.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q13-1

Step 1: Configure ProdSrv1 as a Distributor.
Step 2: Configure ProdSrv1 as a Publisher.
Step 3: Configure a publication of the Order-Summary table on ProdSrv1.
Step 4: Create a subscription of the publication in the Orders database on ProdSrv1.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/replication/configure-publishing-and-distribution

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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
An engineer must generate a report of Cisco Unified Communications Manager usage for capacity planning.
Where can this information be obtained within System Reports?
A. precedence call
B. voice usage
C. user usage
D. traffic
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which transport layer protocol is used when a Cisco Unified Presence client is searching for a contact in the directory?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IMAP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer must perform a manual backup of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. Where can
this backup be done?
A. Administration Resources
B. Serviceability
C. OS Administration
D. Disaster Recovery System
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
CUC 10.X supports LDAP integration with several widely used LDAP directories systems, including the following:
A. Microsoft Active Directory 2000, 2003 and 2008 (support for AD 2012 only in CUCM 10.x and later
B. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode 2003
C. Microsoft Lightweight Directory Services 2008
D. iPlanet Directory Server 5.1
E. Sun ONE Directory Server (5.2, 6.x)
F. Open LDAP (2.3.39, 2.4)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which three rules are valid transfer rules in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Standard
B. Alternate
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Nonstandard
Correct Answer: ABC
Standard Transfer Rule This transfer rule applies during the work hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for
your organization, or in other situations when no other transfer rule is enabled. By design, the standard transfer rule
cannot be disabled. Alternate Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule to apply during a specific time period when you
want to override the other transfer rules. For example, you may want to route all your calls directly to voice mail while
you are out of the office or you may want to transfer your calls to a different extension if you are temporarily working
from another location. As long as it is enabled, the alternate transfer rule overrides all other transfer rules. Closed
Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule if you want Cisco Unity to perform different transfer actions during the nonwork
hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for your organization. (For example, you may want to route all your
calls directly to voice mail during nonwork hours.) As long as it is enabled, the closed transfer rule overrides the
standard transfer rule during nonbusiness hours.

 

QUESTION 6
Which protocol is used between two Cisco IP phones once Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express connects a
call?
A. H.323
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. SIP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
What is the act of combing two active conferences via the MCU?
A. cascading
B. neighboring
C. multisite
D. clustering
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with Cisco Jabber clients who are outside the corporate
network?
A. Cisco Extension Mobility
B. Cisco TMS
C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination
D. Cisco Unified RTMT
E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
When creating a hunt group/ring group, where can you change the DN for all the devices at once?
A. Hunt pilot
B. Route pilot
C. Group file
D. Hunt list
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for
this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

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Free test Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statement about stateless firewalls is true? (Choose two)
A. the Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
B. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packets against configurable rules.
C. They cannot track connections..
D. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS..
E. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is Stateful by nature
Correct Answer: BC
5-tuple is: source/destination IP, ports, and protocols. Stateless firewalls cannot track connections.

 

QUESTION 2
What feature defines a campus area network?
A. It has a single geographic location.
B. It has limited or restricted Internet access.
C. It has a limited number of segments.
D. it lacks external connectivity.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which two characteristics of symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses digital certificates.
B. It uses a public key and a private key to encrypt and decrypt traffic.
C. it requires more resources than asymmetric encryption
D. it is faster than asymmetric encryption
E. It uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the traffic.
Correct Answer: DE
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/secret-key-algorithm

 

QUESTION 4
When is “Deny all” policy an exception in Zone Based Firewall
A. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in same zone
B. traffic sources from router via self zone
C. traffic terminates on router via self zone
D. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in different zones
E. traffic terminates on router via self zone
Correct Answer: A
+
There is a default zone, called the self zone, which is a logical zone. For any packets directed to the router directly (the
destination IP represents the packet is for the router), the router automatically considers that traffic to be entering the
self zone. In addition, any traffic initiated by the router is considered as leaving the self zone.
By default, any traffic to or from the self zone is allowed, but you can change this policy.
+
For the rest of the administrator-created zones, no traffic is allowed between interfaces in different zones.
+
For interfaces that are members of the same zone, all traffic is permitted by default.

 

QUESTION 5
What are two well-known security terms? (Choose Two)
A. Phishing.
B. BPDU guard
C. LACP
D. ransomeware
E. hair-pinning
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which SOURCEFIRE logging action should you choose to record the most detail about a connection.
A. Enable logging at the beginning of the session
B. Enable logging at the end of the session
C. Enable alerts via SNMP to log events off-box
D. Enable eStreamer to log events off-box
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisco ASA is in transparent mode?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Overload
D. Dynamic PAT
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?lead4pass 210-260 exam question q8

A. The two routers receive normal updates from one another
B. It enables authentication
C. It prevents keycham authentication
D. The two devices are able to pass the message digest to one another.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the most common implementation of PAT in a standard networked environment?
A. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network using the outside interface IP address
B. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network by using the inside interface IP address
C. configuring multiple external hosts to join the self-zone and to communicate with one another
D. configuring an any any rule to enable external hosts to communicate inside the network
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which feature filters CoPP packets?
A. Policy maps
B. route maps
C. access control lists
D. class maps
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDos attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which privileged level is … by default? for user exec mode
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
E. 15
Correct Answer: B
User EXEC mode commands are privilege level 1 Privileged EXEC mode and configuration mode commands are
privilege level 15. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/command/reference/fsecur_r/srfpass.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE
“In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains,
which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is
referred to
as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.”
“A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs.”
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_LAN

 

QUESTION 2
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. high-speed packet switching
B. access control
C. firewalling and intrusion prevention
D. QoS marking
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q3

Cisco USC Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?
A. Adjust the Chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting.
B. Verify that air flow through the Chassis correctly.
C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS.
D. Remove the equipment that generates excessive hat near the top of the rack
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)
A. memory extension node
B. hard drive
C. fabric interconnect
D. power supply
E. compute node
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which communication type uses a one-to-many model to replicate packets that are delivered to many interested
recipients?
A. unknown unicast
B. broadcast
C. unicast
D. multicast
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D. NL port
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the feature on the left to the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
What is a function of a conferencing solution?
A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial
number?
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number
B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS- A# show host-id
D. MDS- A# show license host-id
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Which room system can also function as a white board?
A. Spark Board
B. Mx800
C. SX20
D. SX10
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
What is known as the User Policy?
A. Call Policy
B. Authentication
C. Me
D. Admin Policy
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?
A. Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Meeting Server
C. Spark
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: B

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  • Understanding Active Directory (20–25%)
  • Understanding storage (10–15%)
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QUESTION 1
Which should you use to manage the working environments of users and computers in an Active Directory
infrastructure?
A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
B. Group Policy Objects
C. Builtin containers
D. Global security groups
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which technology is used to create and manage relational databases?
A. Microsoft Exchange Server
B. Microsoft Commerce Server
C. Microsoft Groove Server
D. Microsoft SQL Server
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A system error window keeps displaying.
Where do you find detailed information about that error?
A. Event Viewer
B. Resource Monitor
C. Task Manager
D. Device Manager
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Enabling additional users to handle administrative tasks for a particular object is referred to as:
A. Redirection
B. Assignment
C. Targeting
D. Delegation
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the
group to access resources in any domain in the forest. Which type of group should you create?
A. Workgroup
B. Local group
C. Universal group
D. Global group
E. Domain Local group
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
What is the name for a stand-alone digital storage system connected directly to a server or workstation HBA?
A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSO
B. Direct Attached Storage (DAS)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Storage Area Network (SAN)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
You notice frequent writes to the page file.
Which should you monitor to determine the cause?
A. CPU
B. RAM
C. Network
D. Hard disk
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
What is required for a computer to print to either a local or a network printer?
A. 500 GB of free hard disk space
B. Printer Device Drivers
C. 1 GB of RAM
D. Administration tools
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Which type of license is required to connect remotely to an application?
A. Windows Server External Connector License
B. Remote Desktop Services Client Access License
C. System Center Operations Manager Client Management License
D. Remote Server Application License
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You are an IT intern for Tailspin Toys.
Your manager attends a conference out of town and wants you to perform routine maintenance directly on a Windows
2008 R2 server console.
Because you have restricted access, you need your manager to enter credentials at a UAC prompt in your session.
What should you do?
A. Have your manager use Server Manager to connect to the server.
B. Have your manager use Remote Administration to connect to the server.
C. Send a Remote Assistance request to your manager.
D. Have your manager use Remote Desktop to connect to the server.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
You need to apply a Windows Server 2008 group policy. You also need to prevent policies that are applied at lower
levels from affecting this new policy.
What should you do?
A. Set the policy to Loopback
B. Set the permission to Full Control
C. Select the Enforced policy link setting
D. Select the Enabled policy link setting
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two)
A. Shared storage
B. Failover
C. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D. Shared services
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 13
You need to centralize administration of print servers and network printers.
What should you use?
A. Print Management
B. Printers and Faxes
C. Device Manager
D. Print queue
Correct Answer: A

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The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations.The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

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Latest effective CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
After recovering from a data breach in which customer data was lost, the legal team meets with the Chief Security
Officer (CSO) to discuss ways to better protect the privacy of customer data. Which of the following controls support this
goal?
A. Contingency planning
B. Encryption and stronger access control
C. Hashing and non-repudiation
D. Redundancy and fault tolerance
Correct Answer: B
Encryption is used to protect data/contents/documents. Access control refers to controlling who accesses any
data/contents/documents and to exercise authorized control to the accessing of that data.


QUESTION 2
An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes
to integrate the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods
would BEST accomplish this goal?
A. Unified Threat Management
B. Virtual Private Network
C. Single sign on
D. Role-based management
Correct Answer: A
Unified Threat Management (UTM) is, basically, the combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include
intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.
Advantages of combining everything into one:
You only have one product to learn.
You only have to deal with a single vendor.
IT provides reduced complexity.


QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a security risk regarding the use of public P2P as a method of collaboration?
A. Data integrity is susceptible to being compromised.
B. Monitoring data changes induces a higher cost.
C. Users are not responsible for data usage tracking.
D. Limiting the amount of necessary space for data storage.
Correct Answer: A
Peer-to-peer (P2P) networking is commonly used to share files such as movies and music, but you must not allow users
to bring in devices and create their own little networks. All networking must be done through administrators and not on a
P2P basis. Data integrity can easily be compromised when using public P2P networking.


QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies when applied to android and iOS environments, can an organization use to add
security restrictions and encryption to existing mobile applications? (Select Two)
A. Mobile device management
B. Containerization
C. Application whitelisting
D. Application wrapping
E. Mobile application store
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 5
RC4 is a strong encryption protocol that is generally used with which of the following?
A. WPA2 CCMP
B. PEAP
C. WEP
D. EAP-TLS
Correct Answer: C
Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) is a 128-bit stream cipher used WEP and WPA encryption.


QUESTION 6
The Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to improve security surrounding storage of customer passwords.
The company currently stores passwords as SHA hashes. Which of the following can the CTO implement requiring the
LEAST change to existing systems?
A. Smart cards
B. TOTP
C. Key stretching
D. Asymmetric keys
Correct Answer: A
Smart cards usually come in two forms. The most common takes the form of a rectangular piece of plastic with an
embedded microchip. The second is as a USB token. It contains a built in processor and has the ability to securely store
and process information. A “contact” smart card communicates with a PC using a smart card reader whereas a
“contactless” card sends encrypted information via radio waves to the PC. Typical scenarios in which smart cards are
used include interactive logon, e-mail signing, e-mail decryption and remote access authentication. However, smart
cards are programmable and can contain programs and data for many different applications. For example smart cards
may be used to store medical histories for use in emergencies, to make electronic cash payments or to verify the
identity of a customer to an e-retailer. Microsoft provides two device independent APIs to insulate application developers
from differences between current and future implementations: CryptoAPI and Microsoft Win32?SCard APIs. The
Cryptography API contains functions that allow applications to encrypt or digitally sign data in a flexible manner, while
providing protection for the user\\’s sensitive private key data. All cryptographic operations are performed by
independent modules known as cryptographic service providers (CSPs). There are many different cryptographic
algorithms and even when implementing the same algorithm there are many choices to make about key sizes and
padding for example. For this reason, CSPs are grouped into types, in which each supported CryptoAPI function, by
default, performs in a way particular to that type. For example, CSPs in the PROV_DSS provider type support DSS
Signatures and MD5 and SHA hashing.


QUESTION 7
A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution. Which of the following ports
should be opened? (Select TWO).
A. TCP 21
B. TCP 23
C. TCP 53
D. UDP 23
E. UDP 53
Correct Answer: CE
DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.


QUESTION 8
In order to gain an understanding of the latest attack tools being used in the wild, an administrator puts a Unix server on
the network with the root users password to set root. Which of the following best describes this technique?
A. Pharming
B. Honeypot
C. Gray box testing
D. phishing
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Company XYZ recently salvaged company laptops and removed all hard drives, but the Chief Information Officer (CIO)
is concerned about disclosure of confidential information. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to dispose
of these hard drives?
A. Degaussing
B. Physical Destruction
C. Lock up hard drives in a secure safe
D. Wipe
Correct Answer: B
The physical description of hard drives is the only secure means of disposing hard drives. This can include incineration,
an acid bath, and crushing.


QUESTION 10
A malicious user has collected the following list of information:
192.168.1.5 OpenSSH-Server_5.8
192.168.1.7 OpenSSH-Server_5.7
192.168.1.9 OpenSSH-Server_5.7
Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to gather this type of data?
A. Banner grabbing
B. Port scan
C. Host scan
D. Ping scan
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
It is important to staff who use email messaging to provide PII to others on a regular basis to have confidence that their
messages are not intercepted or altered during transmission. They are concerned about which of the following types of
security control?
A. Integrity
B. Safety
C. Availability
D. Confidentiality
Correct Answer: A
Integrity means that the messages/ data is not altered. PII is personally identifiable information that can be used to
uniquely identify an individual. PII can be used to ensure the integrity of data/messages.


QUESTION 12
A small business needs to incorporate fault tolerance into their infrastructure to increase data availability. Which of the
following options would be the BEST solution at a minimal cost?
A. Clustering
B. Mirrored server
C. RAID
D. Tape backup
Correct Answer: C
RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard
drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID can achieve fault tolerance using software
which can be done using the existing hardware and software.


QUESTION 13
While rarely enforced, mandatory vacation policies are effective at uncovering:
A. Help desk technicians with oversight by multiple supervisors and detailed quality control systems.
B. Collusion between two employees who perform the same business function.
C. Acts of incompetence by a systems engineer designing complex architectures as a member of a team.
D. Acts of gross negligence on the part of system administrators with unfettered access to system and no oversight.
Correct Answer: D
Least privilege (privilege reviews) and job rotation is done when mandatory vacations are implemented. Then it will
uncover areas where the system administrators neglected to check all users\\’ privileges since the other users must fill
in their positions when they are on their mandatory vacation.


QUESTION 14
A cafe provides laptops for Internet access to their customers. The cafe is located in the center corridor of a busy
shopping mall. The company has experienced several laptop thefts from the cafe during peak shopping hours of the
day. Corporate has asked that the IT department provide a solution to eliminate laptop theft. Which of the following
would provide the IT department with the BEST solution?
A. Attach cable locks to each laptop
B. Require each customer to sign an AUP
C. Install a GPS tracking device onto each laptop
D. Install security cameras within the perimeter of the caf?
Correct Answer: A
All laptop cases include a built-in security slot in which a cable lock can be inserted to prevent it from easily being
removed from the premises.


QUESTION 15
Several departments in a corporation have a critical need for routinely moving data from one system to another using
removable storage devices. Senior management is concerned with data loss and the introduction of malware on the
network. Which of the following choices BEST mitigates the range of risks associated with the continued use of
removable storage devices?
A. Remote wiping enabled for all removable storage devices
B. Full-disk encryption enabled for all removable storage devices
C. A well defined acceptable use policy
D. A policy which details controls on removable storage use
Correct Answer: D
Removable storage is both a benefit and a risk and since not all mobile devices support removable storage, the
company has to has a comprehensive policy which details the controls of the use of removable s to mitigate the range of
risks that are associated with the use of these devices.


QUESTION 16
A compromised workstation utilized in a Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attack has been removed from the
network and an image of the hard drive has been created. However, the system administrator stated that the system
was left unattended for several hours before the image was created. In the event of a court case, which of the following
is likely to be an issue with this incident?
A. Eye Witness
B. Data Analysis of the hard drive
C. Chain of custody
D. Expert Witness
Correct Answer: C
Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to
collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it
has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you\\’re open to dispute about possible evidence
tampering.


QUESTION 17
Which of the following works by implanting software on systems but delays execution until a specific set of conditions is
met?
A. Logic bomb
B. Trojan
C. Scareware
D. Ransomware
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
A technician has been tasked with installing and configuring a wireless access point for the engineering department.
After the AP has been installed, there have been reports the employees from other departments have been connecting
to it without approval. Which of the following would BEST address these concerns?
A. Change the SSID of the AP so that it reflects a different department, obscuring its ownership
B. Implement WPA2 encryption in addition to WEP to protect the data-in-transit
C. Configure the AP to allow only to devices with pre-approved hardware addresses
D. Lower the antenna\\’s power so that it only covers the engineering department\\’s offices
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
A security administrator suspects that an employee in the IT department is utilizing a reverse proxy to bypass the
company\\’s content filter and browse unapproved and non-work related sites while at work. Which of the following tools
could BEST be used to determine how the employee is connecting to the reverse proxy?
A. Port scanner
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. Honeypot
D. Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
A company has decided to move large data sets to a cloud provider in order to limit the costs of new infrastructure.
Some of the data is sensitive and the Chief Information Officer wants to make sure both parties have a clear
understanding of the controls needed to protect the data.
Which of the following types of interoperability agreement is this?
A. ISA
B. MOU
C. SLA
D. BPA
Correct Answer: A
ISA/ Interconnection Security Agreement is an agreement between two organizations that have connected systems. The
agreement documents the technical requirements of the connected systems.


QUESTION 21
An administrator performs a risk calculation to determine if additional availability controls need to be in place. The
administrator estimates that a server fails and needs to be replaced once every 2 years at a cost of $8,000. Which of the
following represents the factors that the administrator would use to facilitate this calculation?
A. ARO= 0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE= $2,000
B. ARO=0.5; SLE=$8,000; ALE=$4,000
C. ARO=0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000
D. ARO=2; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000
E. ARO=2; SLE= $8,000; ALE= $16,000
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial
information. Which of the following attacks is being described?
A. Phishing
B. Tailgating
C. Pharming
D. Vishing
Correct Answer: D
Vishing (voice or VoIP phishing) is an electronic fraud tactic in which individuals are tricked into revealing critical
financial or personal information to unauthorized entities. Vishing works like phishing but does not always occur over the
Internet
and is carried out using voice technology. A vishing attack can be conducted by voice email, VoIP (voice over IP), or
landline or cellular telephone.
The potential victim receives a message, often generated by speech synthesis, indicating that suspicious activity has
taken place in a credit card account, bank account, mortgage account or other financial service in their name. The victim
is
told to call a specific telephone number and provide information to “verify identity” or to “ensure that fraud does not
occur.” If the attack is carried out by telephone, caller ID spoofing can cause the victim\\’s set to indicate a legitimate
source,
such as a bank or a government agency.
Vishing is difficult for authorities to trace, particularly when conducted using VoIP. Furthermore, like many legitimate
customer services, vishing scams are often outsourced to other countries, which may render sovereign law
enforcement
powerless.
Consumers can protect themselves by suspecting any unsolicited message that suggests they are targets of illegal
activity, no matter what the medium or apparent source. Rather than calling a number given in any unsolicited message,
a
consumer should directly call the institution named, using a number that is known to be valid, to verify all recent activity
and to ensure that the account information has not been tampered with.


QUESTION 23
An administrator intends to configure an IPSec solution that provides ESP with integrity protection, but not confidentiality
protection. Which of the following AES modes of operation would meet this integrity-only requirement?
A. GMAC
B. PCBC
C. CBC
D. GCM
E. CFB
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called:
A. Firewalls
B. Content filters
C. Routers
D. NIDS
Correct Answer: B
A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access,
particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the
user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.


QUESTION 25
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated web based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) business
functions be moved offshore to reduce cost, reduce IT overheads, and improve availability. The Chief Risk Officer
(CRO) has agreed with the CIO\\’s direction but has mandated that key authentication systems be run within the
organization\\’s network. Which of the following would BEST meet the CIO and CRO\\’s requirements?
A. Software as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Platform as a Service
D. Hosted virtualization service
Correct Answer: A
Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service
provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.


QUESTION 26
A security administrator implements a web server that utilizes an algorithm that requires other hashing standards to
provide data integrity. Which of the following algorithms would meet the requirement?
A. SHA
B. MD5
C. RIPEMD
D. HMAC
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 27
A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-
interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the
reason for the sub-interfaces?
A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128.
B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.
Correct Answer: B
A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ
subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE
802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.


QUESTION 28
A website administrator has received an alert from an application designed to check the integrity of the company\\’s
website. The alert indicated that the hash value for a particular MPEG file has changed. Upon further investigation, the
media appears to be the same as it was before the alert. Which of the following methods has MOST likely been used?
A. Cryptography
B. Time of check/time of use
C. Man in the middle
D. Covert timing
E. Steganography
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 29
After an audit, it was discovered that the security group memberships were not properly adjusted for employees\\’
accounts when they moved from one role to another. Which of the following has the organization failed to properly
implement? (Select TWO).
A. Mandatory access control enforcement.
B. User rights and permission reviews.
C. Technical controls over account management.
D. Account termination procedures.
E. Management controls over account management.
F. Incident management and response plan.
Correct Answer: BE
Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the
appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions since they were all
moved to different roles. Control over account management would have taken into account the different roles that
employees have and adjusted the rights and permissions of these roles accordingly.


QUESTION 30
Mobile tablets are used by employees on the sales floor to access customer data. Ann a customer recently reported that
another customer was able to access her personal information on the tablet after the employee left the area. Which of
the following would BEST prevent these issues from reoccurring?
A. Screen Locks
B. Full-device encryption
C. Application control
D. Asset tracking
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
Ann, a security administrator, is strengthening the security controls of the company\\’s campus. Her goal is to prevent
people from accessing open locations that are not supervised, such as around the receiving dock. She is also
concerned that employees are using these entry points as a way of bypassing the security guard at the main entrance.
Which of the following should Ann recommend that would BEST address her concerns?
A. Increase the lighting surrounding every building on campus
B. Build fences around campus with gate entrances
C. Install cameras to monitor the unsupervised areas
D. Construct bollards to prevent vehicle entry in non-supervised areas
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 32
Which of the following authentication services should be replaced with a more secure alternative?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS
C. TACACS+
D. XTACACS
Correct Answer: B
Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS) is less secure than XTACACS, which is a proprietary
extension of TACACS, and less secure than TACACS+, which replaced TACACS and XTACACS.


QUESTION 33
Sara, a security engineer, is testing encryption ciphers for performance. Which of the following ciphers offers strong
encryption with the FASTEST speed?
A. 3DES
B. Blowfish
C. Serpent
D. AES256
Correct Answer: B
Blowfish is an encryption system invented by a team led by Bruce Schneier that performs a 64-bit block cipher at very
fast speeds. Blowfish is a fast, except when changing keys. It is a symmetric block cipher that can use variable-length
keys (from 32 bits to 448 bits).


QUESTION 34
A web startup wants to implement single sign-on where its customers can log on to the site by suing their personal and
existing corporate email credentials regardless of which company they work for. Is this directly supported by SAML?
A. Mo not without extensive partnering and API integration with all required email providers
B. Yes SAML is a web based single sign-on implementation exactly fir this purpose
C. No a better approach would be to use required email providers LDAP or RADIUS repositories
D. Yes SAML can use oauth2 to provide this functionality out of the box
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 35
The chief security officer (CSO) has issued a new policy to restrict generic or shared accounts on company systems.
Which of the following sections of the policy requirements will have the most impact on generic and shared accounts?
A. Account lockout
B. Password length
C. Concurrent logins
D. Password expiration
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 36
A company is concerned that a compromised certificate may result in a man-in-the-middle attack against backend
financial servers. In order to minimize the amount of time a compromised certificate would be accepted by other servers,
the company decides to add another validation step to SSL/TLS connections. Which of the following technologies
provides the FASTEST revocation capability?
A. Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)
B. Public Key Cryptography (PKI)
C. Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL)
D. Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA)
Correct Answer: A
CRL (Certificate Revocation List) was first released to allow the CA to revoke certificates, however due to limitations
with this method it was succeeded by OSCP. The main advantage to OCSP is that because the client is allowed query
the status of a single certificate, instead of having to download and parse an entire list there is much less overhead on
the client and network.


QUESTION 37
A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security
administrator allow on the firewall by default?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
Correct Answer: B
When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.


QUESTION 38
Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model?
A. Packet Filter Firewall
B. Stateful Firewall
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Application Firewall
Correct Answer: B
Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.


QUESTION 39
An intrusion has occurred in an internet facing system. The security administrator would like to gather forensic evidence
while the system is still in operation. Which of the following procedures should the administrator perform FIRST on the
system?
A. Make a drive image
B. Take hashes of system data
C. Collect information in RAM
D. Capture network traffic
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 40
A company hosts its public websites internally. The administrator would like to make some changes to the architecture.
The three goals are: reduce the number of public IP addresses in use by the web servers drive all the web traffic
through a central point of control mitigate automated attacks that are based on IP address scanning Which of the
following would meet all three goals?
A. Firewall
B. Load balancer
C. URL filter
D. Reverse proxy
Correct Answer: D
The purpose of a proxy server is to serve as a proxy or middle man between clients and servers. Using a reverse proxy
you will be able to meet the three stated goals.

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QUESTION 1
An administrator has been instructed to add four additional drives to a server configured with RAID 5. The server is
using 146GB drives for the data. Without changing the configuration, how much additional data space would be
available if the administrator purchased 300GB drives and added them to the existing array?
A. 438GB
B. 584GB
C. 900GB
D. 1200GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An administrator has figured out a possible cause to a problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step the
administrator should take?
A. Implement the solution.
B. Verify full system functionality.
C. Establish a plan of action to identify the problem.
D. Test the theory.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. The backup scheme in place was full backups every
Sunday, incremental backups on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and differential backups on Tuesday, Thursday, and
Saturday. To fully restore the server, which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following RAID levels would be appropriate given two drives and a need for fault tolerance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
When adding another server to an existing rack mount system, which of the following should the administrator consider
FIRST?
A. Load on UPS
B. Rack temperature
C. Room temperature
D. Ease of access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following uses a switching fabric to connect storage LUNs to hosts?
A. Fiber Channel
B. SCSI
C. SATA
D. Ethernet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using
port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on
all
servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port.
Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Update the antivirus application
B. Install critical update security patches
C. Adjust the software firewall settings
D. Replace the current antivirus program
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The staff is not able to access a database server. The server has an \\’Operating System not found\\’ error and is set to
boot from a fiber channel SAN. All other database servers are set to boot from the SAN and access the same switch
and data as this database server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The SAN is offline
B. Fiber channel switch
C. Multiple failed drives in the SAN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following protocols is used to monitor both hardware and software?
A. TCP/IP
B. SMTP
C. RDP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A technician notices the storage space available on a data server is rapidly decreasing. A few users seem to be storing
considerably more data than the other users. Which of the following should the technician implement to give all users
the same amount of available storage space?
A. Disk quotas
B. Group memberships
C. Logon scripts
D. Shadow volumes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
An administrator is in charge of a server that houses various applications. Which of the following BEST explains this
server type?
A. Dedicated Application Server
B. File Server
C. Shared Application Server
D. Peer-to-Peer Application Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A technician needs to replace the processor on a server\\’s motherboard. The motherboard supports Socket 478
processors. Which of the following processors would be compatible with this motherboard?
A. AMD Athlon
B. Pentium III
C. Atom
D. Pentium 4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An administrator is testing setting the IP address on a Linux server from command line. Which of the following
commands is used to set the default gateway for the server?
A. route
B. traceroute
C. ipconfig
D. nmap
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor?
A. PCI
B. Frontside bus
C. Backside bus
D. System I/O bus
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
An administrator logs into a server and notices slow performance. While troubleshooting the problem the administrator
notices that an unfamiliar process in the Task Manager is running at 100% CPU usage. The administrator tries to end
the task and receives `Access is denied\\’. Which of the following steps would allow the administrator to terminate that
process?
A. Adding the `Run as a service\\’ permission to their account.
B. Running the kill utility.
C. Adding their account to the remote users group.
D. Ending the services.exe process then ending the runaway process.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A company backs up their data using daily, weekly, and monthly tape backups. The weekly backups are also known as
which of the following?
A. Son
B. Father
C. Grandfather
D. Great-grandfather
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Given four drives, which of the following RAID levels will allow for the GREATEST performance?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Several remote sales employees, who have come into the office this week, report that they are unable to get on the
Internet, but no other users have reported similar issues. The helpdesk has escalated the issue and the case notes
state that the users have IP addresses that begin with 169. Which of the following should the system administrator
check FIRST?
A. DHCP server
B. Network switches
C. DNS server
D. Core router
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for backing up data?
A. Incremental
B. Snapshot
C. Differential
D. GFS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following on-board components is used exclusively for exchanging data with remote machines?
A. PCI
B. USB
C. AGP
D. NIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A dedicated management port would use which of the following protocols?
A. POP3
B. IPMI
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
An administrator creates a new directory then shares it on the Windows server. The administrator sets the permissions
for everyone to “Modify” but users report they are unable to create or delete documents. Which of the following is the
cause?
A. The administrator forgot to change the share permissions
B. The users were not part of the “Everyone” built in group
C. The administrator shared the files but not the folder
D. “Modify” only allows users to change existing documents
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. After replacing the network card some users can access the
server but others cannot. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check?
A. Default gateway
B. The ports on the switch
C. Port security on the server\\’s switch port
D. Ethernet cable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
As a best practice, when should the server be rebooted to apply the reboot required patches?
A. During scheduled downtime
B. Once a year
C. As soon as the patches are finished installing
D. At the same time every day
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
A server technician needs a way to map a network drive to all the users in the company. Which of the following could
the technician use to accomplish this task?
A. Logon script
B. Disk management
C. Group membership
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution?
A. Local laws and regulations
B. Escalation procedure regulations
C. Manufacturer\\’s regulations
D. Server OEM regulations
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files?
A. Differential backup
B. Snapshot
C. VSS
D. Incremental backup
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which of the following RAID levels combines mirroring and striping?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is
intended for only has a dual channel capable motherboard. Which of the following is the BEST action to perform?
A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs
B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the
additional module will be for parity
C. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard
D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
The failure of which of the following components can cause a server to display a POST error message?
A. Parallel HASP key
B. DVD driver
C. Memory
D. Chassis LED
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that a server is up-to-date with all updates as soon as they are
released?
A. Automatic updates set to install once per week
B. Automatic updates set to install updates automatically
C. Automatic updates set to download all updates automatically
D. Manual updates done daily at noon
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Recently traffic to the company web server has more than doubled, resulting in slower response times from the server.
An administrator has decided to add a second, identical 10/100/1000 NIC to the server. The server is presently
connected to a 10/100/1000 switch, with four open ports on the switch. Which of the following is the BEST solution to
speed up web traffic?
A. Free up more ports on the switch
B. Enable server load balancing
C. Move the second network adapter to a new subnet
D. Enable network adapter teaming
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
A company has recently switched ISPs and is being assigned a new block of public addresses. The public web and FTP
servers must be re-addressed to support this change. After changing IP addresses and updating the DNS records many
customers have reported that they are not able to access the web or FTP servers. Which of the following could have
been done prior to making these changes to make it more transparent to users?
A. Reduce the TTL on the DHCP records.
B. Configure a primary DNS server for the PTR records.
C. Reduce the TTL on the DNS records.
D. Configure a caching only DNS server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory
supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems?
A. Server build checklist
B. Server baselining tools
C. Architecture diagrams
D. Hardware compatibility list
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A company wants to expand their storage capacity in a flexible manner over their existing network. Which of the
following storage solutions would they consider?
A. External RAID array on an existing server
B. Network Attached Storage
C. Storage Area Network
D. Tape library
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Refer to the Exhibit.

lead4pass sk0-003 exam question q37

Which of the following will identify the symbol used on Single-Ended SCSI devices?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
Which of the following is an advantage of using a KVM with multiple servers?
A. Eliminates the need for backup tapes
B. Increases redundancy
C. Saves physical space in the racks
D. Offers additional runtime for the UPS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which of the following would restrict traffic from a specific host to a network?
A. MIBs
B. NAS
C. ACL
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
Which of the following types of backup modifies the archive bit? (Select TWO).
A. Copy backup
B. Selective backup
C. Differential backup
D. Incremental backup
E. Full backup
Correct Answer: DE

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