We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 exam dumps, online exam Practice test to test your strength, Cisco 210-260 “Implementing Cisco Network Security (IINS) v3.0” in https://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html Update the exam content throughout the year to ensure that all exam content is authentic and valid. 210-260 PDF Online download for easy learning.
Free test Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 Which two statement about stateless firewalls is true? (Choose two) A. the Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default. B. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packets against configurable rules. C. They cannot track connections.. D. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.. E. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is Stateful by nature Correct Answer: BC 5-tuple is: source/destination IP, ports, and protocols. Stateless firewalls cannot track connections.
QUESTION 2 What feature defines a campus area network? A. It has a single geographic location. B. It has limited or restricted Internet access. C. It has a limited number of segments. D. it lacks external connectivity. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which two characteristics of symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two) A. It uses digital certificates. B. It uses a public key and a private key to encrypt and decrypt traffic. C. it requires more resources than asymmetric encryption D. it is faster than asymmetric encryption E. It uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the traffic. Correct Answer: DE http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/secret-key-algorithm
QUESTION 4 When is “Deny all” policy an exception in Zone Based Firewall A. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in same zone B. traffic sources from router via self zone C. traffic terminates on router via self zone D. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in different zones E. traffic terminates on router via self zone Correct Answer: A + There is a default zone, called the self zone, which is a logical zone. For any packets directed to the router directly (the destination IP represents the packet is for the router), the router automatically considers that traffic to be entering the self zone. In addition, any traffic initiated by the router is considered as leaving the self zone. By default, any traffic to or from the self zone is allowed, but you can change this policy. + For the rest of the administrator-created zones, no traffic is allowed between interfaces in different zones. + For interfaces that are members of the same zone, all traffic is permitted by default.
QUESTION 5 What are two well-known security terms? (Choose Two) A. Phishing. B. BPDU guard C. LACP D. ransomeware E. hair-pinning Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 Which SOURCEFIRE logging action should you choose to record the most detail about a connection. A. Enable logging at the beginning of the session B. Enable logging at the end of the session C. Enable alerts via SNMP to log events off-box D. Enable eStreamer to log events off-box Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisco ASA is in transparent mode? A. Static NAT B. Dynamic NAT C. Overload D. Dynamic PAT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
A. The two routers receive normal updates from one another B. It enables authentication C. It prevents keycham authentication D. The two devices are able to pass the message digest to one another. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the most common implementation of PAT in a standard networked environment? A. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network using the outside interface IP address B. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network by using the inside interface IP address C. configuring multiple external hosts to join the self-zone and to communicate with one another D. configuring an any any rule to enable external hosts to communicate inside the network Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which feature filters CoPP packets? A. Policy maps B. route maps C. access control lists D. class maps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDos attack? A. botnet B. Trojan horse C. virus D. adware Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.) A. QoS B. traffic classification C. access lists D. policy maps E. class maps F. Cisco Express Forwarding Correct Answer: AB
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We share the latest exam dumps throughout the year to help you improve your skills and experience! The latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 exam dumps, online exam Practice test to test your strength, Cisco 200-150 “Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking (DCICN) v6.2” in https://www.lead4pass.com/200-150.html Update the exam content throughout the year to ensure that all exam content is authentic and valid. 200-150 PDF Online download for easy learning.
Free test Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.) A. A VLAN defines a collision domain. B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain. C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs. D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs. E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs. F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs. Correct Answer: BE “In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.” “A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs.” http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_LAN
QUESTION 2 What is the principle function of the data center core layer? A. high-speed packet switching B. access control C. firewalling and intrusion prevention D. QoS marking Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco USC Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the issue? A. Adjust the Chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting. B. Verify that air flow through the Chassis correctly. C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS. D. Remove the equipment that generates excessive hat near the top of the rack Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.) A. memory extension node B. hard drive C. fabric interconnect D. power supply E. compute node Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5 A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6 Which communication type uses a one-to-many model to replicate packets that are delivered to many interested recipients? A. unknown unicast B. broadcast C. unicast D. multicast Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together? A. N port B. E port C. F port D. NL port Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Drag and drop the feature on the left to the correct description on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 9 What is a function of a conferencing solution? A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting. B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user. C. To schedule calls. D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number? A. MDS-A# show license serial-number B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number C. MDS- A# show host-id D. MDS- A# show license host-id Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which room system can also function as a white board? A. Spark Board B. Mx800 C. SX20 D. SX10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What is known as the User Policy? A. Call Policy B. Authentication C. Me D. Admin Policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC? A. Telepresence Server B. Cisco Meeting Server C. Spark D. Cisco WebEx Correct Answer: B
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Latest effective Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-365 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which should you use to manage the working environments of users and computers in an Active Directory infrastructure? A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts B. Group Policy Objects C. Builtin containers D. Global security groups Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which technology is used to create and manage relational databases? A. Microsoft Exchange Server B. Microsoft Commerce Server C. Microsoft Groove Server D. Microsoft SQL Server Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A system error window keeps displaying. Where do you find detailed information about that error? A. Event Viewer B. Resource Monitor C. Task Manager D. Device Manager Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Enabling additional users to handle administrative tasks for a particular object is referred to as: A. Redirection B. Assignment C. Targeting D. Delegation Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the group to access resources in any domain in the forest. Which type of group should you create? A. Workgroup B. Local group C. Universal group D. Global group E. Domain Local group Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 What is the name for a stand-alone digital storage system connected directly to a server or workstation HBA? A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSO B. Direct Attached Storage (DAS) C. Network Attached Storage (NAS) D. Storage Area Network (SAN) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 You notice frequent writes to the page file. Which should you monitor to determine the cause? A. CPU B. RAM C. Network D. Hard disk Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 What is required for a computer to print to either a local or a network printer? A. 500 GB of free hard disk space B. Printer Device Drivers C. 1 GB of RAM D. Administration tools Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which type of license is required to connect remotely to an application? A. Windows Server External Connector License B. Remote Desktop Services Client Access License C. System Center Operations Manager Client Management License D. Remote Server Application License Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 You are an IT intern for Tailspin Toys. Your manager attends a conference out of town and wants you to perform routine maintenance directly on a Windows 2008 R2 server console. Because you have restricted access, you need your manager to enter credentials at a UAC prompt in your session. What should you do? A. Have your manager use Server Manager to connect to the server. B. Have your manager use Remote Administration to connect to the server. C. Send a Remote Assistance request to your manager. D. Have your manager use Remote Desktop to connect to the server. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 You need to apply a Windows Server 2008 group policy. You also need to prevent policies that are applied at lower levels from affecting this new policy. What should you do? A. Set the policy to Loopback B. Set the permission to Full Control C. Select the Enforced policy link setting D. Select the Enabled policy link setting Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two) A. Shared storage B. Failover C. Network Load Balancing (NLB) D. Shared services Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13 You need to centralize administration of print servers and network printers. What should you use? A. Print Management B. Printers and Faxes C. Device Manager D. Print queue Correct Answer: A
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Candidates for this exam are familiar with the concepts and the technologies of Windows Server administration. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, account management,and system recovery tools and concepts.
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The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations.The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Latest effective CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 After recovering from a data breach in which customer data was lost, the legal team meets with the Chief Security Officer (CSO) to discuss ways to better protect the privacy of customer data. Which of the following controls support this goal? A. Contingency planning B. Encryption and stronger access control C. Hashing and non-repudiation D. Redundancy and fault tolerance Correct Answer: B Encryption is used to protect data/contents/documents. Access control refers to controlling who accesses any data/contents/documents and to exercise authorized control to the accessing of that data.
QUESTION 2 An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to integrate the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal? A. Unified Threat Management B. Virtual Private Network C. Single sign on D. Role-based management Correct Answer: A Unified Threat Management (UTM) is, basically, the combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc. Advantages of combining everything into one: You only have one product to learn. You only have to deal with a single vendor. IT provides reduced complexity.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is a security risk regarding the use of public P2P as a method of collaboration? A. Data integrity is susceptible to being compromised. B. Monitoring data changes induces a higher cost. C. Users are not responsible for data usage tracking. D. Limiting the amount of necessary space for data storage. Correct Answer: A Peer-to-peer (P2P) networking is commonly used to share files such as movies and music, but you must not allow users to bring in devices and create their own little networks. All networking must be done through administrators and not on a P2P basis. Data integrity can easily be compromised when using public P2P networking.
QUESTION 4 Which of the following technologies when applied to android and iOS environments, can an organization use to add security restrictions and encryption to existing mobile applications? (Select Two) A. Mobile device management B. Containerization C. Application whitelisting D. Application wrapping E. Mobile application store Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 RC4 is a strong encryption protocol that is generally used with which of the following? A. WPA2 CCMP B. PEAP C. WEP D. EAP-TLS Correct Answer: C Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) is a 128-bit stream cipher used WEP and WPA encryption.
QUESTION 6 The Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to improve security surrounding storage of customer passwords. The company currently stores passwords as SHA hashes. Which of the following can the CTO implement requiring the LEAST change to existing systems? A. Smart cards B. TOTP C. Key stretching D. Asymmetric keys Correct Answer: A Smart cards usually come in two forms. The most common takes the form of a rectangular piece of plastic with an embedded microchip. The second is as a USB token. It contains a built in processor and has the ability to securely store and process information. A “contact” smart card communicates with a PC using a smart card reader whereas a “contactless” card sends encrypted information via radio waves to the PC. Typical scenarios in which smart cards are used include interactive logon, e-mail signing, e-mail decryption and remote access authentication. However, smart cards are programmable and can contain programs and data for many different applications. For example smart cards may be used to store medical histories for use in emergencies, to make electronic cash payments or to verify the identity of a customer to an e-retailer. Microsoft provides two device independent APIs to insulate application developers from differences between current and future implementations: CryptoAPI and Microsoft Win32?SCard APIs. The Cryptography API contains functions that allow applications to encrypt or digitally sign data in a flexible manner, while providing protection for the user\\’s sensitive private key data. All cryptographic operations are performed by independent modules known as cryptographic service providers (CSPs). There are many different cryptographic algorithms and even when implementing the same algorithm there are many choices to make about key sizes and padding for example. For this reason, CSPs are grouped into types, in which each supported CryptoAPI function, by default, performs in a way particular to that type. For example, CSPs in the PROV_DSS provider type support DSS Signatures and MD5 and SHA hashing.
QUESTION 7 A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution. Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO). A. TCP 21 B. TCP 23 C. TCP 53 D. UDP 23 E. UDP 53 Correct Answer: CE DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.
QUESTION 8 In order to gain an understanding of the latest attack tools being used in the wild, an administrator puts a Unix server on the network with the root users password to set root. Which of the following best describes this technique? A. Pharming B. Honeypot C. Gray box testing D. phishing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Company XYZ recently salvaged company laptops and removed all hard drives, but the Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned about disclosure of confidential information. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to dispose of these hard drives? A. Degaussing B. Physical Destruction C. Lock up hard drives in a secure safe D. Wipe Correct Answer: B The physical description of hard drives is the only secure means of disposing hard drives. This can include incineration, an acid bath, and crushing.
QUESTION 10 A malicious user has collected the following list of information: 192.168.1.5 OpenSSH-Server_5.8 192.168.1.7 OpenSSH-Server_5.7 192.168.1.9 OpenSSH-Server_5.7 Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to gather this type of data? A. Banner grabbing B. Port scan C. Host scan D. Ping scan Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 It is important to staff who use email messaging to provide PII to others on a regular basis to have confidence that their messages are not intercepted or altered during transmission. They are concerned about which of the following types of security control? A. Integrity B. Safety C. Availability D. Confidentiality Correct Answer: A Integrity means that the messages/ data is not altered. PII is personally identifiable information that can be used to uniquely identify an individual. PII can be used to ensure the integrity of data/messages.
QUESTION 12 A small business needs to incorporate fault tolerance into their infrastructure to increase data availability. Which of the following options would be the BEST solution at a minimal cost? A. Clustering B. Mirrored server C. RAID D. Tape backup Correct Answer: C RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID can achieve fault tolerance using software which can be done using the existing hardware and software.
QUESTION 13 While rarely enforced, mandatory vacation policies are effective at uncovering: A. Help desk technicians with oversight by multiple supervisors and detailed quality control systems. B. Collusion between two employees who perform the same business function. C. Acts of incompetence by a systems engineer designing complex architectures as a member of a team. D. Acts of gross negligence on the part of system administrators with unfettered access to system and no oversight. Correct Answer: D Least privilege (privilege reviews) and job rotation is done when mandatory vacations are implemented. Then it will uncover areas where the system administrators neglected to check all users\\’ privileges since the other users must fill in their positions when they are on their mandatory vacation.
QUESTION 14 A cafe provides laptops for Internet access to their customers. The cafe is located in the center corridor of a busy shopping mall. The company has experienced several laptop thefts from the cafe during peak shopping hours of the day. Corporate has asked that the IT department provide a solution to eliminate laptop theft. Which of the following would provide the IT department with the BEST solution? A. Attach cable locks to each laptop B. Require each customer to sign an AUP C. Install a GPS tracking device onto each laptop D. Install security cameras within the perimeter of the caf? Correct Answer: A All laptop cases include a built-in security slot in which a cable lock can be inserted to prevent it from easily being removed from the premises.
QUESTION 15 Several departments in a corporation have a critical need for routinely moving data from one system to another using removable storage devices. Senior management is concerned with data loss and the introduction of malware on the network. Which of the following choices BEST mitigates the range of risks associated with the continued use of removable storage devices? A. Remote wiping enabled for all removable storage devices B. Full-disk encryption enabled for all removable storage devices C. A well defined acceptable use policy D. A policy which details controls on removable storage use Correct Answer: D Removable storage is both a benefit and a risk and since not all mobile devices support removable storage, the company has to has a comprehensive policy which details the controls of the use of removable s to mitigate the range of risks that are associated with the use of these devices.
QUESTION 16 A compromised workstation utilized in a Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attack has been removed from the network and an image of the hard drive has been created. However, the system administrator stated that the system was left unattended for several hours before the image was created. In the event of a court case, which of the following is likely to be an issue with this incident? A. Eye Witness B. Data Analysis of the hard drive C. Chain of custody D. Expert Witness Correct Answer: C Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you\\’re open to dispute about possible evidence tampering.
QUESTION 17 Which of the following works by implanting software on systems but delays execution until a specific set of conditions is met? A. Logic bomb B. Trojan C. Scareware D. Ransomware Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 A technician has been tasked with installing and configuring a wireless access point for the engineering department. After the AP has been installed, there have been reports the employees from other departments have been connecting to it without approval. Which of the following would BEST address these concerns? A. Change the SSID of the AP so that it reflects a different department, obscuring its ownership B. Implement WPA2 encryption in addition to WEP to protect the data-in-transit C. Configure the AP to allow only to devices with pre-approved hardware addresses D. Lower the antenna\\’s power so that it only covers the engineering department\\’s offices Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 A security administrator suspects that an employee in the IT department is utilizing a reverse proxy to bypass the company\\’s content filter and browse unapproved and non-work related sites while at work. Which of the following tools could BEST be used to determine how the employee is connecting to the reverse proxy? A. Port scanner B. Vulnerability scanner C. Honeypot D. Protocol analyzer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20 A company has decided to move large data sets to a cloud provider in order to limit the costs of new infrastructure. Some of the data is sensitive and the Chief Information Officer wants to make sure both parties have a clear understanding of the controls needed to protect the data. Which of the following types of interoperability agreement is this? A. ISA B. MOU C. SLA D. BPA Correct Answer: A ISA/ Interconnection Security Agreement is an agreement between two organizations that have connected systems. The agreement documents the technical requirements of the connected systems.
QUESTION 21 An administrator performs a risk calculation to determine if additional availability controls need to be in place. The administrator estimates that a server fails and needs to be replaced once every 2 years at a cost of $8,000. Which of the following represents the factors that the administrator would use to facilitate this calculation? A. ARO= 0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE= $2,000 B. ARO=0.5; SLE=$8,000; ALE=$4,000 C. ARO=0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000 D. ARO=2; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000 E. ARO=2; SLE= $8,000; ALE= $16,000 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described? A. Phishing B. Tailgating C. Pharming D. Vishing Correct Answer: D Vishing (voice or VoIP phishing) is an electronic fraud tactic in which individuals are tricked into revealing critical financial or personal information to unauthorized entities. Vishing works like phishing but does not always occur over the Internet and is carried out using voice technology. A vishing attack can be conducted by voice email, VoIP (voice over IP), or landline or cellular telephone. The potential victim receives a message, often generated by speech synthesis, indicating that suspicious activity has taken place in a credit card account, bank account, mortgage account or other financial service in their name. The victim is told to call a specific telephone number and provide information to “verify identity” or to “ensure that fraud does not occur.” If the attack is carried out by telephone, caller ID spoofing can cause the victim\\’s set to indicate a legitimate source, such as a bank or a government agency. Vishing is difficult for authorities to trace, particularly when conducted using VoIP. Furthermore, like many legitimate customer services, vishing scams are often outsourced to other countries, which may render sovereign law enforcement powerless. Consumers can protect themselves by suspecting any unsolicited message that suggests they are targets of illegal activity, no matter what the medium or apparent source. Rather than calling a number given in any unsolicited message, a consumer should directly call the institution named, using a number that is known to be valid, to verify all recent activity and to ensure that the account information has not been tampered with.
QUESTION 23 An administrator intends to configure an IPSec solution that provides ESP with integrity protection, but not confidentiality protection. Which of the following AES modes of operation would meet this integrity-only requirement? A. GMAC B. PCBC C. CBC D. GCM E. CFB Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called: A. Firewalls B. Content filters C. Routers D. NIDS Correct Answer: B A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.
QUESTION 25 The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated web based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) business functions be moved offshore to reduce cost, reduce IT overheads, and improve availability. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) has agreed with the CIO\\’s direction but has mandated that key authentication systems be run within the organization\\’s network. Which of the following would BEST meet the CIO and CRO\\’s requirements? A. Software as a Service B. Infrastructure as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Hosted virtualization service Correct Answer: A Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.
QUESTION 26 A security administrator implements a web server that utilizes an algorithm that requires other hashing standards to provide data integrity. Which of the following algorithms would meet the requirement? A. SHA B. MD5 C. RIPEMD D. HMAC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub- interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces? A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128. B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it. C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic. D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service. Correct Answer: B A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.
QUESTION 28 A website administrator has received an alert from an application designed to check the integrity of the company\\’s website. The alert indicated that the hash value for a particular MPEG file has changed. Upon further investigation, the media appears to be the same as it was before the alert. Which of the following methods has MOST likely been used? A. Cryptography B. Time of check/time of use C. Man in the middle D. Covert timing E. Steganography Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29 After an audit, it was discovered that the security group memberships were not properly adjusted for employees\\’ accounts when they moved from one role to another. Which of the following has the organization failed to properly implement? (Select TWO). A. Mandatory access control enforcement. B. User rights and permission reviews. C. Technical controls over account management. D. Account termination procedures. E. Management controls over account management. F. Incident management and response plan. Correct Answer: BE Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions since they were all moved to different roles. Control over account management would have taken into account the different roles that employees have and adjusted the rights and permissions of these roles accordingly.
QUESTION 30 Mobile tablets are used by employees on the sales floor to access customer data. Ann a customer recently reported that another customer was able to access her personal information on the tablet after the employee left the area. Which of the following would BEST prevent these issues from reoccurring? A. Screen Locks B. Full-device encryption C. Application control D. Asset tracking Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Ann, a security administrator, is strengthening the security controls of the company\\’s campus. Her goal is to prevent people from accessing open locations that are not supervised, such as around the receiving dock. She is also concerned that employees are using these entry points as a way of bypassing the security guard at the main entrance. Which of the following should Ann recommend that would BEST address her concerns? A. Increase the lighting surrounding every building on campus B. Build fences around campus with gate entrances C. Install cameras to monitor the unsupervised areas D. Construct bollards to prevent vehicle entry in non-supervised areas Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Which of the following authentication services should be replaced with a more secure alternative? A. RADIUS B. TACACS C. TACACS+ D. XTACACS Correct Answer: B Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS) is less secure than XTACACS, which is a proprietary extension of TACACS, and less secure than TACACS+, which replaced TACACS and XTACACS.
QUESTION 33 Sara, a security engineer, is testing encryption ciphers for performance. Which of the following ciphers offers strong encryption with the FASTEST speed? A. 3DES B. Blowfish C. Serpent D. AES256 Correct Answer: B Blowfish is an encryption system invented by a team led by Bruce Schneier that performs a 64-bit block cipher at very fast speeds. Blowfish is a fast, except when changing keys. It is a symmetric block cipher that can use variable-length keys (from 32 bits to 448 bits).
QUESTION 34 A web startup wants to implement single sign-on where its customers can log on to the site by suing their personal and existing corporate email credentials regardless of which company they work for. Is this directly supported by SAML? A. Mo not without extensive partnering and API integration with all required email providers B. Yes SAML is a web based single sign-on implementation exactly fir this purpose C. No a better approach would be to use required email providers LDAP or RADIUS repositories D. Yes SAML can use oauth2 to provide this functionality out of the box Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 The chief security officer (CSO) has issued a new policy to restrict generic or shared accounts on company systems. Which of the following sections of the policy requirements will have the most impact on generic and shared accounts? A. Account lockout B. Password length C. Concurrent logins D. Password expiration Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A company is concerned that a compromised certificate may result in a man-in-the-middle attack against backend financial servers. In order to minimize the amount of time a compromised certificate would be accepted by other servers, the company decides to add another validation step to SSL/TLS connections. Which of the following technologies provides the FASTEST revocation capability? A. Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) B. Public Key Cryptography (PKI) C. Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL) D. Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA) Correct Answer: A CRL (Certificate Revocation List) was first released to allow the CA to revoke certificates, however due to limitations with this method it was succeeded by OSCP. The main advantage to OCSP is that because the client is allowed query the status of a single certificate, instead of having to download and parse an entire list there is much less overhead on the client and network.
QUESTION 37 A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default? A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 Correct Answer: B When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.
QUESTION 38 Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model? A. Packet Filter Firewall B. Stateful Firewall C. Proxy Firewall D. Application Firewall Correct Answer: B Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.
QUESTION 39 An intrusion has occurred in an internet facing system. The security administrator would like to gather forensic evidence while the system is still in operation. Which of the following procedures should the administrator perform FIRST on the system? A. Make a drive image B. Take hashes of system data C. Collect information in RAM D. Capture network traffic Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40 A company hosts its public websites internally. The administrator would like to make some changes to the architecture. The three goals are: reduce the number of public IP addresses in use by the web servers drive all the web traffic through a central point of control mitigate automated attacks that are based on IP address scanning Which of the following would meet all three goals? A. Firewall B. Load balancer C. URL filter D. Reverse proxy Correct Answer: D The purpose of a proxy server is to serve as a proxy or middle man between clients and servers. Using a reverse proxy you will be able to meet the three stated goals.
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Server+ covers server architecture, administration, storage, security, networking, troubleshooting as well as disaster recovery.
Latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-003 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 An administrator has been instructed to add four additional drives to a server configured with RAID 5. The server is using 146GB drives for the data. Without changing the configuration, how much additional data space would be available if the administrator purchased 300GB drives and added them to the existing array? A. 438GB B. 584GB C. 900GB D. 1200GB Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An administrator has figured out a possible cause to a problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take? A. Implement the solution. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Establish a plan of action to identify the problem. D. Test the theory. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday, incremental backups on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and differential backups on Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday. To fully restore the server, which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which of the following RAID levels would be appropriate given two drives and a need for fault tolerance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system, which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A. Load on UPS B. Rack temperature C. Room temperature D. Ease of access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following uses a switching fabric to connect storage LUNs to hosts? A. Fiber Channel B. SCSI C. SATA D. Ethernet Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on all servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port. Which of the following should the technician do? A. Update the antivirus application B. Install critical update security patches C. Adjust the software firewall settings D. Replace the current antivirus program Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 The staff is not able to access a database server. The server has an \\’Operating System not found\\’ error and is set to boot from a fiber channel SAN. All other database servers are set to boot from the SAN and access the same switch and data as this database server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The SAN is offline B. Fiber channel switch C. Multiple failed drives in the SAN D. HBA Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which of the following protocols is used to monitor both hardware and software? A. TCP/IP B. SMTP C. RDP D. SNMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A technician notices the storage space available on a data server is rapidly decreasing. A few users seem to be storing considerably more data than the other users. Which of the following should the technician implement to give all users the same amount of available storage space? A. Disk quotas B. Group memberships C. Logon scripts D. Shadow volumes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 An administrator is in charge of a server that houses various applications. Which of the following BEST explains this server type? A. Dedicated Application Server B. File Server C. Shared Application Server D. Peer-to-Peer Application Server Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A technician needs to replace the processor on a server\\’s motherboard. The motherboard supports Socket 478 processors. Which of the following processors would be compatible with this motherboard? A. AMD Athlon B. Pentium III C. Atom D. Pentium 4 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 An administrator is testing setting the IP address on a Linux server from command line. Which of the following commands is used to set the default gateway for the server? A. route B. traceroute C. ipconfig D. nmap Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A. PCI B. Frontside bus C. Backside bus D. System I/O bus Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 An administrator logs into a server and notices slow performance. While troubleshooting the problem the administrator notices that an unfamiliar process in the Task Manager is running at 100% CPU usage. The administrator tries to end the task and receives `Access is denied\\’. Which of the following steps would allow the administrator to terminate that process? A. Adding the `Run as a service\\’ permission to their account. B. Running the kill utility. C. Adding their account to the remote users group. D. Ending the services.exe process then ending the runaway process. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 A company backs up their data using daily, weekly, and monthly tape backups. The weekly backups are also known as which of the following? A. Son B. Father C. Grandfather D. Great-grandfather Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Given four drives, which of the following RAID levels will allow for the GREATEST performance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Several remote sales employees, who have come into the office this week, report that they are unable to get on the Internet, but no other users have reported similar issues. The helpdesk has escalated the issue and the case notes state that the users have IP addresses that begin with 169. Which of the following should the system administrator check FIRST? A. DHCP server B. Network switches C. DNS server D. Core router Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for backing up data? A. Incremental B. Snapshot C. Differential D. GFS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 Which of the following on-board components is used exclusively for exchanging data with remote machines? A. PCI B. USB C. AGP D. NIC Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A dedicated management port would use which of the following protocols? A. POP3 B. IPMI C. TFTP D. SFTP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 An administrator creates a new directory then shares it on the Windows server. The administrator sets the permissions for everyone to “Modify” but users report they are unable to create or delete documents. Which of the following is the cause? A. The administrator forgot to change the share permissions B. The users were not part of the “Everyone” built in group C. The administrator shared the files but not the folder D. “Modify” only allows users to change existing documents Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A. Default gateway B. The ports on the switch C. Port security on the server\\’s switch port D. Ethernet cable Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 As a best practice, when should the server be rebooted to apply the reboot required patches? A. During scheduled downtime B. Once a year C. As soon as the patches are finished installing D. At the same time every day Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 A server technician needs a way to map a network drive to all the users in the company. Which of the following could the technician use to accomplish this task? A. Logon script B. Disk management C. Group membership D. SNMP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A. Local laws and regulations B. Escalation procedure regulations C. Manufacturer\\’s regulations D. Server OEM regulations Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files? A. Differential backup B. Snapshot C. VSS D. Incremental backup Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 Which of the following RAID levels combines mirroring and striping? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is intended for only has a dual channel capable motherboard. Which of the following is the BEST action to perform? A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the additional module will be for parity C. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 The failure of which of the following components can cause a server to display a POST error message? A. Parallel HASP key B. DVD driver C. Memory D. Chassis LED Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that a server is up-to-date with all updates as soon as they are released? A. Automatic updates set to install once per week B. Automatic updates set to install updates automatically C. Automatic updates set to download all updates automatically D. Manual updates done daily at noon Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Recently traffic to the company web server has more than doubled, resulting in slower response times from the server. An administrator has decided to add a second, identical 10/100/1000 NIC to the server. The server is presently connected to a 10/100/1000 switch, with four open ports on the switch. Which of the following is the BEST solution to speed up web traffic? A. Free up more ports on the switch B. Enable server load balancing C. Move the second network adapter to a new subnet D. Enable network adapter teaming Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33 A company has recently switched ISPs and is being assigned a new block of public addresses. The public web and FTP servers must be re-addressed to support this change. After changing IP addresses and updating the DNS records many customers have reported that they are not able to access the web or FTP servers. Which of the following could have been done prior to making these changes to make it more transparent to users? A. Reduce the TTL on the DHCP records. B. Configure a primary DNS server for the PTR records. C. Reduce the TTL on the DNS records. D. Configure a caching only DNS server. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory supported? A. 1GB B. 2GB C. 4GB D. 8GB Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35 Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A. Server build checklist B. Server baselining tools C. Architecture diagrams D. Hardware compatibility list Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 A company wants to expand their storage capacity in a flexible manner over their existing network. Which of the following storage solutions would they consider? A. External RAID array on an existing server B. Network Attached Storage C. Storage Area Network D. Tape library Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which of the following will identify the symbol used on Single-Ended SCSI devices? A. A B. B C. C D. D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Which of the following is an advantage of using a KVM with multiple servers? A. Eliminates the need for backup tapes B. Increases redundancy C. Saves physical space in the racks D. Offers additional runtime for the UPS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39 Which of the following would restrict traffic from a specific host to a network? A. MIBs B. NAS C. ACL D. SMTP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 Which of the following types of backup modifies the archive bit? (Select TWO). A. Copy backup B. Selective backup C. Differential backup D. Incremental backup E. Full backup Correct Answer: DE
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Latest effective Citrix CCA 1Y0-A28 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A network engineer has created and bound an UDP-ECV monitor to identify the status of a UDP service. However, no matter what the response is, the service is always marked as UP. A possible cause of this behavior is that the network engineer __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. forgot to add a receive string B. added the string ns_true as receive string C. added a string that is invalid and thus skipped D. added a string that is always part of the UDP handshake Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A network engineer has modified the configuration of a content-switching virtual server, Website_main, because a second content-switching server that is capable of handling more connections has been added to the NetScaler implementation. Both servers will remain in operation. The engineer made the following configuration changes: >set cs vserver Website_main -lbvserver New_Server -backupVserver Old_Server -redirectURL http:// www.mydomain.com/maintenance -soMethod Connection -soThreshold 1000 Why did the engineer enable the spillover option? A. To handle incoming connections in case the new server is unavailable B. To handle the extra connections using the old server without dropping them C. To redirect the extra connections to the Maintenance website when it is needed D. To handle incoming connections while the server reaches its limit of connections Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A NetScaler engineer would like to present different web pages to a user based on the device and browser type from which they are connecting. Which responder policy could assist with this requirement? A. HTTP.RES.URL.PATH B. HTTP.REQ.Host(“Host”) C. HTTP.RES.BODY(1024) D. HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A network engineer plans to configure an Active Directory Server as the default authentication for a NetScaler deployment and provide users with the option to change their password if it is expired. Which two actions should the engineer take to configure this authentication requirement on the NetScaler system? (Choose two.) A. Configure a pre-authentication policy. B. Select security type as SSL on Authentication policy. C. Configure Authentication server with SSO name attribute. D. Configure Authentication server with allow Password change option. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 Scenario: The NetScaler is connected to two subnets. The NSIP is 10.2.9.12. The external SNIP is 10.2.7.3. The MIP for internal access is 10.2.9.3. Web servers, authentication servers and time servers are on the 10.2.10.0/24 network which is available through the 10.2.9.1 router. The external firewall has the 10.2.7.1 address. Traffic bound for Internet clients should flow through the external firewall. Which command should be used to set the default route? A. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.7.1 B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.9.1 C. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.9.1 D. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.7.1 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A network engineer gets an error message when using the configuration utility to import a PKCS#12 certificate that contains a dollar sign ($), a backquote (`), or an escape (\) character password. In order to address this error, the network engineer could prefix it with __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. an escape character (\) B. a backquote character (`) C. a dollar sign character ($) D. a double quotation character (“) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A network engineer might choose to use SSL_Bridge instead of a SSL virtual server in order to __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. be able to decrypt the SSL traffic B. enable use of OCSP for revoked certificates C. pass user certificates to the back-end servers D. enable SSL server certificates on the service group Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user\\’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place. Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue? A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes. B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP. C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1. D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A network engineer has installed a NetScaler system into their corporate DMZ and would like to provide access to a web server on the internal LAN. The web server will be accessed by external users through the Netscaler. The firewall administrator has opened the relevant ports required on the external and the internal firewall. The engineer notices that the virtual server and services representing the web server are down and the internal web server does NOT appear accessible from the NetScaler. What could be the cause of this? A. USIP is not enabled. B. Client IP Insertion is not enabled. C. A URL rewrite policy is not created. D. A SNIP address has not been added. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 An engineer has bound three monitors to a service group and configured each of the monitors with a weight of 10. How should the engineer ensure that the members of the service group are marked as DOWN when at least two monitors fail? A. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 0. B. Configure the service group with a threshold of 21. C. Configure the service group with a threshold of 20. D. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 5, and configure the service group threshold to 15. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Scenario: The NetScaler has connections to a large number of VPNs. The network engineer wants to minimize the number of ARP requests. Which feature should the network engineer enable to minimize ARP requests? A. TCP Buffering B. Use Source IP C. Edge Configuration D. MAC based forwarding Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Scenario: A network engineer would like to prevent blacklisted remote clients from accessing NetScaler hosted application services. An IP address blacklist database is maintained by an external company and available to query over the Internet. The engineer would like to reject any connections from IP addresses that are contained in the blacklist. What could the engineer configure to achieve this goal? A. SSL offload B. HTTP callout C. URL transformation D. SSL certification revocation list check Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 A network engineer needs to investigate why a few users have issues logging on to the NetScaler system. How can the engineer troubleshoot authentication issues on the NetScaler system? A. Use ECV monitoring. B. Run a violations report in Reporting. C. Use the CAT aaad.debug command. D. Check the system-authentication setting in the GUI. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Scenario: A network engineer has configured an HTTP application to be load balanced using a virtual server named Svr1. Users have reported intermittent errors and the engineer has been given the client IP address of an affected user and asked to determine which back end service they are connected to. Using the command-line interface, how could the engineer find this information? A. Show lb vServer Svr1 B. Show system session C. Show lb vServer Svr1 -Summary D. Show lb persistentSessions Svr1 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15 Some SSL certificate files may be missing from a NetScaler appliance. Which directory should an engineer check to determine which files are missing? A. /nsconfig/ssl B. /nsconfig/ssh C. flash/nsconfig/ D. /var/netscaler/ssl/ Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 When configuring an advanced HTTP callout based on attributes, what are two valid parameters? (Choose two.) A. SSL cipher type B. Down state flush C. Gateway address D. IP address and port E. URL stem expression Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 17 How could an engineer configure a monitor to ensure that a server is marked as DOWN if the monitor test is successful? A. Enable the LRTM option for the monitor B. Enable the Reverse option for the monitor C. Disable Down state flush for the service group D. Disable the Health monitoring option for the service group Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18 Scenario: A user browses to a page and is presented with a warning that he is trying to enter a web site with an untrusted certificate. The network engineer had added the correct certificate to the SSL virtual server. What could be the cause of this issue? A. TLS is disabled on the virtual server. B. The certificate is not linked to the intermediate CA. C. The certificate has expired and needs to be renewed. D. The CA certificate has not been added to the SSL virtual server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Scenario: A network engineer has bound four policies to a virtual server as follows: PolicyA has a priority of 10 PolicyB has a priority of 20 PolicyC has a priority of 30 PolicyD has a priority of 0 Which policy will be evaluated first? A. PolicyA B. PolicyB C. PolicyC D. PolicyD Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20 Users have reported that they are receiving a confusing error message related to SSL sessions when connecting from older browsers. How could the network engineer present this error to users in a customized format? A. Enable the SSL v2 protocol. B. Set a URL on the backup virtual server. C. Add a redirect URL to the virtual server. D. Configure SSL v2 Redirection for the virtual server. Correct Answer: D
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Latest effective Citrix CCA-N 1Y0-253 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has customized some NetScaler configuration files. The administrator now plans on upgrading the NetScaler Gateway from NetScaler 10.1 to NetScaler 10.5. What should the administrator do prior to the upgrade to avoid losing the customizations? A. Backup the ns.conf file. B. Backup the files in the jvarjnetscaler directory. C. Move the customized files to a backup directory. D. Move the customized files to the jnsconfig directory. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which protocol could an administrator apply with rate-based monitor? A. FTP B. ARP C. DNS D. HTTPS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A penetration test has been performed against the NetScaler Gateway virtual IPs (vIPs) resulting in the SSL RC4-based ciphers being flagged. What should the administrator do to address the vulnerability? A. Remove all the SSL ciphers from the virtual server. B. Assign Cipher Group \\’ALL\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server. C. Assign Cipher Group \\’HIGH\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server. D. Assign Cipher Group \\’DEFAULT\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which two things occur after adding a Subnet IP (SNIP) to a NetScaler which already has a Mapped IP (MIP)? (Choose two.) A. The NetScaler IP (NSIP) is no longer required. B. A SNIP will be used in preference to a MIP. C. Adding a SNIP adds an entry to the routing table. D. Client machines can use the MIP instead of the virtual IP (vIP). Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5 Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake of a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, the administrator needs to disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users\\’ continued access to published applications. Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the connected users? A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy. B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication. C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a content switching virtual server. The administrator is unable to bind the load balancing virtual server to the content switching virtual server. Which protocol is being used on the load balancing virtual server that is causing this issue? A. SSL B. TCP C. UDP D. SSL Bridge Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Scenario: A NetScaler Gateway is configured to use RADIUS for authentication. A Citrix Administrator needs to know whichNetScalerIP(NSIP)addressisusedforoutgoingRADIUStraffic. How can the administrator verify which NSIP is used? A. Check the ns.log file. B. Use the ping command. C. Check the messages log file. D. Use the nstcpdump.sh command. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 While logged on to the NetScaler Configuration Utility, a Citrix Administrator notices that CPU utilization is higher than expected. What should the administrator configure to receive notification of this event in the future, when the administrator is NOT logged on? A. Auditing B. SNMP Trap C. SNMP view D. AppFlow Logging Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Scenario: NetScaler Gateway is implemented to provide Web Resources, including Outlook Web Access and an SAP portal, to users. Marketing and Sales department employees normally work from outside the office location and should be able to access Web Resources from different types of devices that are NOT maintained by the company. Which user access connection method should an administrator configure to meet the needs of this scenario? A. Citrix Receiver B. PN Agent plug-in C. Clientless access D. Access Gateway plug-in Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file. What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace? A. NS-root key B. NS-serverkey C. Private key of the root certification authority D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Scenario: An administrator has configured several load balancing virtual servers on a NetScaler to accelerate the Web content. After an update on the Web content platform, all the servers need the client IP address to perform tracking operations. Which two tasks should the administrator complete to pass the client IP address to all the load balancing virtual servers? (Choose two.) A. Activate the Source-IP feature on the service. B. Configurearewritepolicy, thenbinditglobally. C. Activate the Client-IP Header insertion on the services. D. Configurearesponderpolicy, thenbindittoallservers. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only. The administrator must include two-factor authentication. Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this environment? (Choose two.) A. Bind the RSA policy first. B. Bind the LDAP policy first. C. Create an authentication policy. D. Create a pre-authentication policy. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13 Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external addresses. Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled? A. Layer 3 B. Layer 2 C. Use Subnet IP D. Use Source IP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 A Citrix Administrator needs to shorten the URL for users to connect to a StoreFront website without knowing the store name. Which policy should the administrator use to accomplish this requirement? A. Rewrite B. AppQoE C. Spillover D. Responder Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15 Scenario: An administrator is planning to implement NetScaler Gateway. The administrator must ensure that users are able to change their passwords when the passwords have expired. To meet the needs of the scenario, the administrator must ensure that is included in the plan. A. LDAP authentication B. RADIUS authentication C. nested groups (enabled) D. the nsroot username added to Active Directory Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16 5AnadministratorcreatedaserviceforaWebInterfaceserverthatisencryptedbyanSSLcertificate. Which command should the administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it with a test user\\’s credentials? A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain DomainName -password [email protected] -secure YES C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain DomainName -password [email protected] -destPort 443 D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted -secure YES Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Scenario: A NetScaler Gateway virtual server is configured for a XenApp infrastructure. The Citrix Administrator is asked to configure monitoring on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server to ensure the health and availability of XenApp published applications. Which monitoring type should the administrator configure? A. STOREFRONT B. CITRIX-XD-DDC C. CITRIX-XML-SERvICE D. CITRIX-WEB-INTERFACE Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 Scenario:AcompanywebsitecurrentlyhasthousandsofGIFimages.UsingtheNetScaler, aCitrixAdministratorneeds to convert the GIFs to PNG format to reduce bandwidth requirements. Which feature on the NetScaler can accomplish this task? A. Priority Queueing B. Content Switching C. Content Accelerator D. Front End Optimization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 Scenario: An administrator configures load balancing in an environment to load balance a Web server. The administrator needs to enhance availability in the case that the virtual server goes down. Which two options could the administrator configure to meet the load balancing needs for this environment? (Choose two.) A. Redirect URL B. Reversemonitoring C. Backup virtual server D. Content Switching virtual server Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20 A Citrix Administrator is upgrading NetScaler 10.1 appliances in a high availability (HA) pair to NetScaler 10.5. What is the first step to launch the upgrade according to Citrix best practice? A. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the primary appliance to force HA failover. B. Execute the installns command on the primary appliance. C. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the secondary appliance to force HA failover. D. Execute the installns command on the secondary appliance. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A Citrix Administrator is configuring MicrovPN with MDX wrapped apps to support StoreFront. Which two settings must the administrator configure in the NetScaler Gateway Global settings under `Configure Domains for Clientless Access\\’? (Choose two.) A. StoreFront URL B. XenMobile Gateway URL C. App Controller Host name D. Secure Ticketing Authority Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 22 A Citrix Administrator needs to set up two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway for mobile devices. Which two actions should the administrator take to allow users to log on using mobile devices? (Choose two.) A. Create a pre-authentication policy B. Create a RADIUS authentication policy C. Bind the LDAP policy for primary authentication D. Bind the RADIUS policy for primary authentication E. Bind the RADIUS policy for secondary authentication Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23 What should a Citrix Administrator configure to optimize an internal NetScaler Gateway virtual server when more bandwidth is available for use and other websites are NOT affected? A. Windows Scaling within TCP parameters. B. Max Connections within HTTP parameters. C. A Net Profile that is applied to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. D. Windows Scaling within a TCP Profile that is applied to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24 An administrator plans to use only Citrix Receiver for XenDesktop remote access through a NetScaler Gateway device. Which type of policy should the administrator configure to meet this requirement? A. Session B. Authentication C. Clientless access D. Pre-authentication Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic. Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue? A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell. B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface. C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only. D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26 Scenario: NetScaler is used to load balance Microsoft SharePoint for internal users. An administrator needs to configure the NetScaler device to allow for external access to the SharePoint site. Which action could the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario? A. Bind the SharePoint certificate to the virtual server. B. Add the Microsoft SharePoint server to a Web Interface site. C. Configure an Authentication, Auditing and Authorization server. D. Enable \\’ICA proxy only\\’ on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 Which two methods should be used for generating a configuration data and statistics report for evaluation by Citrix? (Choose two.) A. Run Ishow callhomeI using the command-line interface. B. Run Ishow techsupportI using the command-line interface. C. Click the Call Home link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility. D. Click the Download trace files link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility. E. Click the Generate support file link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 28 An administrator needs to allow remote users to access their locally-installed corporate applications over a secure connection. In order to meet this requirement, the administrator could configure on the NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. SSL vPN B. ICA Proxy C. SSL Offload D. Clientless Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29 Which two commands, when run at the command-line interface by a Citrix Administrator, can display interfaces configured for high availability monitoring? (Choose two.) A. show node B. show status C. show monitor D. showinterface E. show hardware Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 30 Scenario: An administrator plans to implement NetScaler to load balance Web Interface traffic. The Web Interface servers are using standard non-secure ports. Company policy states that all external traffic must be secure. The administrator has added the servers for the Web Interface under Load Balancing. In order to load balance the Web Interface traffic and comply with company policy, the administrator should add services for and create an . (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.) A. SSL; SSL virtual server B. SSL; HTTP virtual server C. HTTP; SSL virtual server D. HTTP; HTTP virtual server Correct Answer: C
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Latest effective Cisco 300-208 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which profiling capability allows you to gather and forward network packets to an analyzer? A. collector B. spanner C. retriever D. aggregator Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which option is the code field of n EAP packet? A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 In the command \\’aaa authentication default group tacacs local\\’, how is the word \\’default\\’ defined? A. Command set B. Group name C. Method list D. Login type Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 When configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS, what is a recommended best practice? A. Synchronize the router\\’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update. B. Clear the router\\’s flash of unused signature files. C. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency. D. Create the appropriate directory on the router\\’s flash memory to store the downloaded signature files. E. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which component hosts the web authentication portal? A. the endpoints B. the WLC C. the access point D. the switch E. ISE Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are true? (Choose two.) A. They send endpoint data to AAA servers. B. They collect endpoint attributes. C. They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies. D. They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints. E. They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles. F. They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements. Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 7 Which redirect-URL is pushed by Cisco ISE for posture redirect for corporate users? A. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cppandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e 300-208 Practice Test | 300-208 Exam Questions | 300-208 Braindumps 3 / 16https://www.lead4pass.com/300-208.html 2019 Latest lead4pass 300-208 PDF and VCE dumps Download B. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cwaandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e C. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=mdmandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e D. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=drwandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose two.) A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field. B. DoS C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests D. ARP cache poisoning on the router E. client unable to access network resources Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9 Which two Cisco Catalyst switch interface commands allow only a single voice device and a single data device to be connected to the IEEE 802.1X-enabled interface? (Choose two.) A. authentication host-mode single-host B. authentication host-mode multi-domain C. authentication host-mode multi-host D. authentication host-mode multi-auth Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Which 802.1x command is needed for ACL to be applied on a switch port? A. dot1x system-auth-control B. dot1x pae authenticator C. authentication port-control auto D. radius-server vsa send authentication E. aaa authorization network default group radius Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE? A. the http secure-server command B. RADIUS Attribute 29 C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What are the two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.) A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list B. Client certificate is not included in the Trusted Certificate Store C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list D. Default rule denies all traffic E. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13 A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown\\’ for a single corporate mac address but unknown machines are reported as `complaint\\’. Which option is the reason for machine being reported `unknown\\’. A. Posture service disabled on cisco ISE B. Posture policy does not support the OS C. Posture agent not installed on the machine D. Posture compliance condition is missing on the machine Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which type of SGT classification method is required when authentication is unavailable? A. Bypass B. Dynamic C. Static D. Inline Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 When enabling the Cisco IOS IPS feature, which step should you perform to prevent rogue signature updates from being installed on the router? A. configure authentication and authorization for maintaining signature updates B. install a known RSA public key that correlates to a private key used by Cisco C. manually import signature updates from Cisco to a secure server, and then transfer files from the secure server to the router D. use the SDEE protocol for all signature updates from a known secure management station Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT? A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the enterprise security policy B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with inside endpoints. C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies. D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment? A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint. B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain. C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain. D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain. E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Which two authentication stores are supported to design a wireless network using PEAP EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the authentication method? (Choose two.) A. Microsoft Active Directory B. ACS C. LDAP D. RSA Secure-ID E. Certificate Server Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 Which three statement about Windows Server Update Services remediation are true? A. WSUS can install the latest service pack available B. WSUS checks for automatic update configuration on Windows C. WSUS checks for client behavior anomalies D. WSUS remediates Windows client from a locally manage WSUS server E. WSUS remediates Windows client from a Microsoft manage WSUS server F. WSUS provides links to update AV/AS Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 20 Which statement about IOS accounting is true? A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined. B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined. C. Authorization must be configured before accounting. D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 Which of these is a configurable Cisco IOS feature that triggers notifications if an attack attempts to exhaust critical router resources and if preventative controls have been bypassed or are not working correctly? A. Control Plane Protection B. Management Plane Protection C. CPU and memory thresholding D. SNMPv3 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22 Which two simple posture conditions are valid? A. Service B. Antispyware C. Firewall D. File E. Antivirus Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23 Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE? A. the http secure-server command B. RADIUS Attribute 29 C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Security Group Access requires which three syslog messages to be sent to Cisco ISE? (Choose three.) A. IOS-7-PROXY_DROP B. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_DOS_ATTACK C. MKA-2-MACDROP D. AUTHMGR-5-MACMOVE E. ASA-6-CONNECT_BUILT F. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_FALLBACK_REQ Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 25 Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.) A. multidomain authentication host mode B. multihost mode C. multi-MAC host mode D. single-host mode E. dual-host mode F. multi-auth host mode Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 26 When Cisco IOS IPS signatures are being tuned, how is the Target Value Rating assigned? A. It is calculated from the Event Risk Rating. B. It is calculated from a combination of the Attack Severity Rating and Signature Fidelity Rating C. It is manually set by the administrator. D. It is set based upon SEAP functions. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 Which two are best practices to implement profiling services in a distributed environment? (Choose two) A. use of device sensor feature B. configuration to send syslogs to the appropriate profiler node C. netflow probes enabled on central nodes D. node-specific probe configuration E. global enablement of the profiler service Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 28 When RADIUS NAC and AAA Override are enabled for WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about RADIUS NAC are true? (Choose two.) A. It will return an access-accept and send the redirection URL for all users. B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the ISE. C. It allows the ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated. D. It is used for posture assessment, so the ISE changes the user profile based on posture result. E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 29 Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode? A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Which command can check a AAA server authentication for server group Group1, user cisco, and password cisco555 on a Cisco ASA device? A. ASA# test aaa-server authentication Group1 username cisco password cisco555 B. ASA# test aaa-server authentication group Group1 username cisco password cisco555 C. ASA# aaa-server authorization Group1 username cisco password cisco555 D. ASA# aaa-server authentication Group1 roger cisco555 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 A network security engineer is considering configuring 802.1x for security. He wants to use single host for data and single host for voice. Which port authentication method he use? A. Single host B. Multi host C. Multi auth D. Multi-domain Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32 Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE Authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication? A. Dot1x and if authentication failed continue B. MAB and if user not found continue C. MAB and if authentication failed continue D. Dot1x and if user not found continue Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 Where would a Cisco ISE administrator define a named ACL to use in an authorization policy? A. In the conditions of an authorization rule. B. In the attributes of an authorization rule. C. In the permissions of an authorization rule. D. In an authorization profile associated with an authorization rule. 300-208 Practice Test | 300-208 Exam Questions | 300-208 Braindumps 11 / 16https://www.lead4pass.com/300-208.html 2019 Latest lead4pass 300-208 PDF and VCE dumps Download Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which effect does the ip http secure-server command have on a Cisco ISE? A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line. B. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect by using web-based authentication. C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect by using web-based authentication. D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35 What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify certificate on an ISE device? A. 1. Download the CA server certificate. 2. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the ISE. B. 1. Download the CA server certificate. 2. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the CA server. C. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 2. Download the CA server certificate. 3. Access the ISE server and submit the CA request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the CA server. D. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 2. Download the CA server certificate. 3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the ISE. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.) A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching B. uRPF C. routing protocol authentication D. CPPr E. BPDU protection F. role-based access control Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 37 What is a required step when you deploy dynamic VLAN and ACL assignments? A. Configure the VLAN assignment. B. Configure the ACL assignment. C. Configure Cisco IOS Software 802.1X authenticator authorization. D. Configure the Cisco IOS Software switch for ACL assignment. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 A network administrator wants to use dynamic VLAN assignment from Cisco ISE. Which option must be configured on the switch to support this? A. AAA authentication B. VTP C. DTP D. AAA authorization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 Which three features should be enabled as best practices for MAB? (Choose three.) A. MD5 B. IP source guard C. DHCP snooping D. storm control E. DAI F. URPF Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 40 What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.) A. The port is error disabled. B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port. C. The port generates a port resistance error. D. The port attempts to repair the violation. E. The port is placed in quarantine state. F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.
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Latest effective Cisco 300-206 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.) A. DHCP snooping B. IP Source Guard C. Telnet D. Secure Shell E. SNMP Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 Choose two correct statements about private-vlan. A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch) B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also configured as protected (same switch) C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ? Correct Answer: DE You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not take effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI. A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.
QUESTION 3 What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS access? A. sslconfig B. sslciphers C. tlsconifg D. certconfig Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 When you set a Cisco IOS Router as an SSH server, which command specifies the RSA public key of the remote peer when you set the SSH server to perform RSA-based authentication? A. router(config-ssh-pubkey-user)#key B. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string C. router(config-ssh-pubkey)#key-string D. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string enable ssh Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Where do you apply a control plane services policy to implement Management Plane Protection on a Cisco Router? A. Control-plane router B. Control-plane host C. Control-plane interface management 0/0 D. Control-plane service policy Correct Answer: B http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t11/htsecmpp.html
QUESTION 6 Which three statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose three.) A. Isolated ports can talk to promiscuous and community ports. B. Promiscuous ports can talk to isolated and community ports. C. Private VLANs run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in client mode. D. Private VLANS run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in transparent mode. E. Community ports can talk to each other as well as the promiscuous port. F. Primary, secondary, and tertiary VLANs are required for private VLAN implementation. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7 Which option is the Cisco ASA on-box graphical management solution? A. SSH B. ASDM C. Console D. CSM Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which three options describe how SNMPv3 traps can be securely configured to be sent by IOS? (Choose three.) A. An SNMPv3 group is defined to configure the read and write views of the group. B. An SNMPv3 user is assigned to SNMPv3 group and defines the encryption and authentication credentials. C. An SNMPv3 host is configured to define where the SNMPv3 traps will be sent. D. An SNMPv3 host is used to configure the encryption and authentication credentials for SNMPv3 traps. E. An SNMPv3 view is defined to configure the address of where the traps will be sent. F. An SNMPv3 group is used to configure the OIDs that will be reported. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9 What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on interfaces? A. 1024 bytes B. 1518 bytes C. 2156 bytes D. 9216 bytes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual cloud environment? A. Cisco Nexus 1000V B. Cisco VSG C. WSVA D. ESVA Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 With Cisco ASA active/standby failover, by default, how many monitored interface failures will cause failover to occur? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 You are going to add ASA to CSM (Cisco Security Manager). Which port on ASA must be reachable for CSM to succeed? A. 21 B. 22 C. 80 D. 443 Correct Answer: D Security Manager can use these transport protocols: SSL (HTTPS)–Secure Socket Layer, which is an HTTPS connection, is the only transport protocol used with PIX Firewalls, Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA), and Firewall Services Modules (FWSM). It is also the default protocol for IPS devices and for routers running Cisco IOS Software release 12.3 or higher. If you use SSL as the transport protocol on Cisco IOS routers, you must also configure SSH on the routers. Security Manager uses SSH connections to handle interactive command deployments during SSL deployments. Cisco Security Manager was using OpenSSL for the Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocols. Beginning with version 4.13, Cisco Security Manager replaced OpenSSL version 1.0.2 with Cisco SSL version 6.x. Cisco SSL enables FIPS compliance over full FIPS Validation which results in fast and cost-effective connectivity. The Common Criteria mode in Cisco SSL allows easier compliance. Cisco SSL is feature-forward when compared to OpenSSL. The product Security Baseline (PSB) requirements for Cisco SSL ensures important security aspects such as credential and key management, cryptography standards, antispoofing capabilities, integrity and tamper protection, and session, data, and stream management and administration are taken care of. SSH–Secure Shell is the default transport protocol for Catalyst switches and Catalyst 6500/7600 devices. You can also use it with Cisco IOS routers. Telnet–Telnet is the default protocol for routers running Cisco IOS software releases 12.1 and 12.2. You can also use it with Catalyst switches, Catalyst 6500/7600 devices, and routers running Cisco IOS Software release 12.3 and higher. See the Cisco IOS software documentation for configuring Telnet. HTTP–You can use HTTP instead of HTTPS (SSL) with IPS devices. HTTP is not the default protocol for any device type. TMS–Token Management Server is treated like a transport protocol in Security Manager, but it is not a real transport protocol. Instead, by configuring TMS as the transport protocol of a router, you are telling Security Manager to deploy configurations to a TMS. From the TMS, you can download the configuration to an eToken, plug the eToken into the router\\’s USB bus, and update the configuration. TMS is available only for certain routers running Cisco IOS Software 12.3 or higher. Security Manager can also use indirect methods to deploy configurations to devices, staging the configuration on a server that manages the deployment to the devices. These indirect methods also allow you to use dynamic IP addresses on your devices. The methods are not treated as transport protocols, but as adjuncts to the transport protocol for the device. You can use these indirect methods: AUS (Auto Update Server)–When you add a device to Security Manager, you can select the AUS server that is managing it. You can use AUS with PIX Firewalls and ASA devices. Configuration Engine–When you add a router to Security Manager, you can select the Configuration Engine that is managing it.
QUESTION 13 What are two enhancements of SSHv2 over SSHv1? (Choose two.) A. VRF-aware SSH support B. DH group exchange support C. RSA support D. keyboard-interactive authentication E. SHA support Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14 Which two commands can be used to create a Cisco Unified ACL within the ASA CLI? (Choose two.) A. ipv6 access-list B. object-group network C. ipv6 access-list webtype D. access-list extended E. object-group network nat-pat-grp Correct Answer: BD https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/acl_extended.pdf
QUESTION 15 Which statement about Cisco IPS Manager Express is true? A. It provides basic device management for large-scale deployments. B. It provides a GUI for configuring IPS sensors and security modules. C. It enables communication with Cisco ASA devices that have no administrative access. D. It provides greater security than simple ACLs. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance? A. Trace B. Debug C. Informational D. Critical Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 Which two option are main challenges for public cloud data center? A. deployment cost B. tenant isolation C. disaster recovery D. system scalability E. network visibility Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18 If you encounter problems logging in to the Cisco Security Manager 4.4 web server or client or backing up its databases, which account has most likely been improperly modified? A. admin (the default administrator account) B. casuser (the default service account) C. guest (the default guest account) D. user (the default user account) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Which Cisco TrustSec role does a Cisco ASA firewall serve within an identity architecture? A. Access Requester B. Policy Decision Point C. Policy Information Point D. Policy Administration Point E. Policy Enforcement Point Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20 Which statement about Cisco Security Manager form factors is true? A. Cisco Security Manager Professional and Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundles support FWSMs. B. Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional support FWSMs. C. Only Cisco Security Manager Professional supports FWSMs. D. Only Cisco Security Manager Standard supports FWSMs. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 If a switch port goes directly into a blocked state only when a superior BPDU is received, what mechanism must be in use? A. STP bpdu guard B. STP root guard C. SPT bpdu filter Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit. Why was the packet dropped? ****Exhibit is Missing**** (this exhibit is packet capture with traffic destination to port 23 and being drop by access- list) A. Telnet access is not allowed between these two nodes. B. NAT is not applied correctly for the 10.10.96.5 host C. The source port is configured incorrectly In the capture D. There is no route on the Cisco ASA to the destination host Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 A network engineer must mange and configurations to a cisco networking environment solutions accomplishes this task? A. cisco IPS manage express and pushing configuration to the ips units B. cisco security 4.5 or later and pushing configuration bundles to each of the,,,,, C. cisco adaptive security device manager to push configuration to each of the IPS D. fire SIGHT manager to bundle and push configuration to the IPS units installed Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24 A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters: – The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices. – The user needs read-write access to policies. – The account has no more rights than necessary for the job. What role will the administrator assign to the user? A. Administrator B. Security administrator C. System administrator D. Root Administrator E. Exec administrator Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers? A. Cisco ASDM B. Cisco CP Express C. Cisco ASA 5500 D. Cisco CP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 Which are the most secure authentication and encryption options? (Choose two) A. DES B. 3DES C. AES D. MD5 E. SHA Correct Answer: CE https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/next-generation-cryptography.html#2
QUESTION 27 Which policy map action makes a Cisco router behave as a stateful firewall for matching traffic? A. Log B. Inspect C. Permit D. Deny Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 What two are data and voice protocols do ASA 5500 supports? (Choose two) A. CTIQBE Inspection B. H.323 Inspection C. MGCP Inspection D. RTSP Inspection E. SIP Inspection F. Skinny (SCCP) Inspection Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 29 A. choosed to use udp as answer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30 About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be? A. local B. default Correct Answer: A ASA Identity Firewal: The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL. Additionally, the Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).
QUESTION 31 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this access list is true?
A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic Correct Answer: A ASA 9.0(1) code introduced the Unified ACL for IPv4 and IPv6. ACLs now support IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. You can even specify a mix of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses for the source and destination. The any keyword was changed to represent IPv4 and IPv6 traffic. The any4 and any6 keywords were added to represent IPv4-only and IPv6-only traffic, respectively. The IPv6-specific ACLs are deprecated. Existing IPv6 ACLs are migrated to extended ACLs.
QUESTION 32 Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of traffic? A. man-in-the-middle B. denial of service C. distributed denial of service D. CAM overflow Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Hotspot Question
Which statement is true of the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA? A. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to an FTP server before the buffer is overwritten. B. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to flash memory before the buffer is overwritten. C. System log messages with a severity level of six and higher will be logged to the internal buffer. D. System log messages with a severity level of six and lower will be logged to the internal buffer. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true? A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page. B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database. C. The administrator can manually update the page. D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35 Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two) A. RSA-SIG B. MD5 C. AES D. 3DES E. DES Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 36 You must restrict the interface on which management traffic can be received by the routers on your network. Which feature do you enable? A. MPP B. extended ACL on all of the interfaces C. CPP with a port filter D. AAA Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Which statement about static or default route on the Cisco ASA appliance is true? A. The admin distance is 1 by default. B. From the show route output, the [120/3] indicates an admin distance of 3. C. A default route is specified using the 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 address/mask combination. D. The tunneled command option is used to enable route tracking. E. The interface-name parameter in the route command is an optional parameter if the static route points to the next- hop router IP address. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Which Cisco prime Infrastructure features allows you to assign templates to a group of wireless LAN controllers with similar configuration requirements? A. Lightweight access point configuration template B. Composite template C. Controller configuration group D. Shared policy object Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39 CORRECT TEXT
Correct Answer: explanation Answer: Please check the steps in explanation part below: 1) Click on Service Policy Rules, then Edit the default inspection rule. 2) Click on Rule Actions, then enable HTTP as shown here:
3) Click on Configure, then add as shown here:
4) Create the new map in ASDM like shown:
5) Edit the policy as shown: 6) Hit OK
QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco ASA CLI commands configure these static routes in the Cisco ASA routing table? S 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.10, dmzS 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 [2/0] via 172.16.1.11, dmz A. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 B. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 1 C. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 2 D. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 E. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 1 F. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 2 Correct Answer: F
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Hot Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs on a host named Host1.
You configure VM1 to replicate to another host named Host2. Host2 is located in the same physical location as Host1.
You need to add an additional replica of VM1. The replica will be located in a different physical site.
What should you do?
A. From VM1 on Host2, click Extend Replication.
B. On Host1, configure the Hyper-V settings.
C. From VM1 on Host1, click Extend Replication.
D. On Host2, configure the Hyper-V settings.
Correct Answer: A
Extend Replication through UI:
Before you Extend Replication to third site, you need to establish the replication between a primary server and replica server.
Once that is done, go to replica site and from Hyper-V UI manager select the VM for which you want to extend the replication. Right click on VM and select “Replication->Extend Replication …”. This will open Extend Replication Wizard which is similar to Enable Replication Wizard.
NOTE: You configure a server to receive replication with Hyper-V Manager, in this situation the replica site is assumed to be the Replica Server. Therefore you extend replication from VM1 on Host2.
Note 2: With Hyper-V Extend Replication feature in Windows Server 2012 R2, customers can have multiple copies of data to protect them from different outage scenarios. For example, as a customer I might choose to keep my second DR site in the same campus or a few miles away while I want to keep my third copy of data across the continents to give added protection for my workloads. Hyper-V Replica Extend replication exactly addresses this problem by providing one more copy of workload at an extended site apart from replica site.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D
* A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the domain that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm.
* You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations. Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way.
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter network. 70-412 dumps
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A
To add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server On a DNS server for the corporate network, open the DNS snap-in.
1. In the console tree, right-click the applicable forward lookup zone, and then click New Host (A).
2. In Name, type only the computer name of the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, type fs for the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) fs.adatum.com).
3. In IP address, type the IP address for the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, 192.168.1.4).
4. Click Add Host.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012.
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
Correct Answer: CE
C. To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm.
E. Enable seamless second factor authentication
Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added level of access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access them. When a personal device is
Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources.
To enable seamless second factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices.
In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Primary Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Users frequently access the website of an external partner company. The URL of the website is http://partners.adatum.com.
The partner company informs you that it will perform maintenance on its Web server and that the IP addresses of the Web server will change.
After the change is complete, the users on your internal network report that they fail to access the website. However, some users who work from home report that they can access the website.
You need to ensure that your DNS servers can resolve partners.adatum.com to the correct IP address immediately.
What should you do?
A. Run dnscmd and specify the CacheLockingPercent parameter.
B. Run Set-DnsServerGlobalQueryBlockList.
C. Run ipconfig and specify the Renew parameter.
D. Run Set-DnsServerCache.
Correct Answer: D
The Set-DnsServerCache cmdlet modifies cache settings for a Domain Name System (DNS) server.
Run Set-DnsServerCache with the -LockingPercent switch.
Specifies a percentage of the original Time to Live (TTL) value that caching can consume. Cache locking is configured as a percent value. For example, if the cache locking value is set to 50, the DNS server does not overwrite a cached entry for half of the duration of the TTL. By default, the cache locking percent value is 100. This value means that the DNS server will not overwrite cached entries for the entire duration of the TTL.
Note. A better way would be clear the DNS cache on the DNS server with either Dnscmd /ClearCache (from command prompt), or Clear-DnsServerCache (from Windows PowerShell).
Not A. You need to use the /config parameter as well:
You can change this value if you like by using the dnscmd command:
dnscmd /Config /CacheLockingPercent<percent>
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1. Server1 has the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature installed.
On Dc1, you configure Windows Firewall to allow all of the necessary inbound ports for IPAM.
On Server1, you open Server Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can use IPAM on Server1 to manage DNS on DC1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the outbound firewall rules on Server1.
B. Modify the inbound firewall rules on Server1.
C. Add Server1 to the Remote Management Users group.
D. Add Server1 to the Event Log Readers group.
Correct Answer: D
To access configuration data and server event logs, the IPAM server must be a member of the domain IPAM Users Group (IPAMUG). The IPAM server must also be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.
Note: The computer account of the IPAM server must be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed.
Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-412 dumps
You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.com zone only.
What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
Correct Answer: D
Secure dynamic updates are only supported or configurable for resource records in zones that are stored in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS).
Note: To modify security for a resource record
Open DNS Manager.
In the console tree, click the applicable zone.
In the details pane, click the record that you want to view.
On the Action menu, click Properties.
On the Security tab, modify the list of member users or groups that are allowed to securely update the applicable record and reset their permissions as needed.
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE
Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (username and password) created during enrollment. E. The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that includes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Not C. TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to include or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes.
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