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Latest updates Cisco 700-751 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which are the two characteristics of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.)
A. Improve Application Performance
B. Delivered from the cloud
C. Subscription-based model
D. Provides protection when on the VPN
E. Simple manual installation of hardware
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
What is the interface used to access the Cisco Meraki Dashboard?
A. Cisco IOS command-line interface (CLI)
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. Web browser
D. Terminal (mac) or Command Prompt (Windows)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are the two main reasons for deploying small-medium Wi-Fi solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Obtain enterprise-class solution features at the SMB price
B. Simplify deployment for organizations with limited IT staff
C. Need to identify potentially malicious rogue devices or users
D. Provide single pane of glass for routing and switching
E. Separate guest traffic from production traffic at reasonable OpEx.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of
potential threats
B. Limit secure access to a growing set of Cloud applications
C. Cisco delivers a common platform across the network, infrastructure, appliances, and the cloud
D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly
detection and network telemetry
E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate
deployment and unify management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express?
A. mDNS Gateway
B. Guest WLAN enhancements
C. Expert View in the WebUI
D. Schedule WLAN
E. CMX Cloud support
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which device belongs to Business Class Cisco On-Premise Switching Solutions?
A. Cisco Meraki MS 225
B. Cisco Meraki MS 250/350
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960-L
D. Cisco 350X/550X
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which are two major security challenges that occur due to the proliferation of users and applications at the branch?
(Choose two.)
A. Increased threat surface area
B. Increased complexity for mitigation
C. Increased complexity for mobility
D. Increased complexity in Omni-channel experience
E. Increase in threat naivety
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)?
A. 100-120
B. 10-120
C. 1000-1200
D. 10-200
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statement represents increasing sophistication in the security threat landscape?
A. 25% of users spent their work time off the network
B. 85% of intrusions are not discovered for weeks
C. 28% of top security constrains is product compatibility
D. 50B devices connected by 2020 (66% mobile)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is the right approach to achieve secure infrastructure against attack requirements of WAN connectivity?
A. Monitoring application performance
B. Operational simplicity for server infrastructure
C. Simple and agile service deployment model
D. Introduce Advanced Threat Defense solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What are Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Comprehensive
B. Advanced security
C. Enterprise
D. Essential
E. Defended
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
How do Cisco Business-Class SMB switches provide two simplified managements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure Support
B. Limited scalability and hardware choices
C. Uncompromised security enabled by TrustSec and Identify Services Engine (ISE)
D. Standalone Configuration with Web GUI
E. Integrated live tools for fast troubleshooting
Correct Answer: AD

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Latest updates Cisco 700-680 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two features are available in the Cisco Webex Web App? (Choose two.)
A. Webex App only works on desktop devices
B. Has to be re-downloaded every time you attend a meeting
C. Available to Chrome Browsers Only
D. Ability to share screens or specific applications
E. Centralized meeting controls like chat and QandA
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 2
Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid?
A. CCW order
B. Customer Smart Account
C. Product Access Key (PAK)
D. Holding Account
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What are the two management views for Control Hub?
A. Customer and Partner views
B. The customer has two management views
C. Cisco and Salesforce
D. Partner has two management views
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which key benefit of the Webex Teams collaboration is valid?
A. Only the moderator of space is able to use important meeting features
B. Replaces the need for a firewall appliance
C. Webex Teams does not support API\\’s or SDK\\’s
D. Integrates persistent context chats, file sharing, and whiteboarding
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about Cisco Webex Meetings are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Webex limits meetings to 50 people.
B. Webex Meetings and Webex Teams use different cloud engines.
C. Webex Meetings provides only audio.
D. Host and attendees can see up to 25 participants in one full-screen mode.
E. End users have the same experience regardless of which device they choose.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Webex Teams message encryption is valid?
A. Messages are encrypted using the AES-512-GCM cipher
B. Messages are encrypted using the AES-256-GCM cipher
C. Messages are encrypted using the AES-128-GCM cipher D. Messages are encrypted ONLY if they include data
classified as “confidential”
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which description for the Webex Calling app is valid?
A. application for use only in Contact Centers
B. an application for desktop video conferencing only
C. a soft client for calling from a desktop and mobile devices
D. an application for mobile device conferencing only
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which Webex Try and Buy Program benefit is included in the purchase?
A. one (1) year of Webex conferencing at no cost
B. Webex conferencing only
C. Webex conferencing, Webex Teams and Devices
D. Unlimited Webex licenses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter?
A. Webex Edge Connect
B. An Apple iPad
C. Room Kit Plus Connector
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners?
A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders
B. quote and order resale product only
C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers
D. ordering tool for Distributors only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the Collaboration Flex Plan Value Transfer program is valid?
A. is only available for IP Phones
B. provides deeper discounts for Flex Plan deals
C. allows trade-in of eligible perpetual licenses and active Cisco Software Support (SWSS) contracts in exchange for a
purchase credit on Flex Plan
D. provides training credits to the partner when they sell a Flex Plan
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan?
A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams
B. Meetings with Teams
C. Video conferencing only
D. Calling with Teams
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which buying model for Meetings in the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan is valid?
A. Meetings are not available on the Collaboration Flex Plan
B. Named User only
C. Enterprise Agreement only
D. Enterprise Agreement, Active User and Named User
Correct Answer: D

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Selling HPE Hybrid Cloud Solutions | Certification and Learning: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/datacard/Exam/HPE2-E72

This exam tests your ability to identify potential HPE customers and validate and qualify opportunities by engaging customers
in strategic IT conversations. It tests your ability to uncover business needs and qualify customers for HPE hybrid cloud solutions.

HP HPE2-E72 exam Objectives:

12%– Digital Transformation and Trends

  • Explain the challenges customers face in completing their digital transformation
  • Describe the technologies companies are using to complete their digital transformation
  • Explain how customers are changing the way they pay for IT and consume services to achieve their desired business outcomes

13%– Consultative selling

  • Engage your customers with a value-oriented approach and the business value framework (BVF)
  • Explain why your customers should trust HPE with providing hybrid cloud solutions

25%– Delivering Everything as a Service

  • Use appropriate discovery questions to uncover customer’s needs for HPE GreenLake
  • Identify customer characteristics that indicate an opportunity for HPE GreenLake
  • Describe the value of HPE GreenLake
  • Qualify customers for HPE GreenLake based on their business drivers
  • Identify and overcome barriers and objections by recognizing key differentiators with HPE GreenLake

25%– Delivering a Cloudlike Experience

  • Use appropriate discovery questions to uncover customers’ needs for solutions that deliver a cloudlike experience on-premises
  • Identify customer characteristics that indicate opportunities to sell HPE hybrid cloud solutions
  • Describe the business value of HPE hybrid cloud solutions
  • Qualify customers for HPE software-defined solutions based on their business drivers
  • Identify and overcome barriers and objections by recognizing HPE’s key differentiators in software-defined solutions for Hybrid IT

25%– Delivering an Intelligent Data Platform

  • Use appropriate discovery questions to uncover customers’ needs for intelligent storage
  • Identify customer characteristics that indicate an HPE Intelligent Data Platform opportunity
  • Describe the business value of HPE Intelligent Data Platform
  • Qualify customers for HPE Intelligent Data Platform based on their business drivers
  • Overcome objections by recognizing HPE’s key differentiators for intelligent storage

Latest Updates HP HPE2-E72 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

What is one challenge of implementing machine learning?
A. Biased or inaccurate data can teach the algorithm to behave in undesirable ways.
B. Developers struggle to make decision-makers see the value of machine learning.
C. Few models for artificial intelligence and machine learning exist yet.
D. Companies do not have enough data to implement machine learning.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/newsroom/press-release/2019/09/hpe-accelerates-artificial-intelligenceinnovation-with-enterprise-grade-solution-for-managing-entire-machine-learning-lifecycle.html

QUESTION 2

What issue with public cloud leads some companies to move workloads back on-premises?
A. Limited scalability
B. Time-consuming manual configuration
C. Underutilized resources
D. Lack of control

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/insights/articles/decision-guide-public-cloud-versus-on-prem-storage-1701.html

QUESTION 3

What is one way HPE differentiates itself as a provider of hybrid cloud solutions?
A. HPE enables companies to customize their solutions with a Unified API
B. HPE provides hybrid cloud solutions that integrate with the top two public cloud providers
C. HPE provides development tools for public and private clouds
D. HPE provides a superior public cloud experience and seamless integration with private clouds

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/greenlake.html

QUESTION 4

Which issue is one of the business drivers for HPE GreenLake?
A. Flat growth
B. Increased price competition
C. Inefficient workflows for a line of business
D. Long procurement cycles

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

What is an appropriate discovery question for uncovering a customer\’s need for an HPE composable infrastructure
solution?
A. How much insight do you have into your public cloud spending?
B. What do you understand about APIs and how they work?
C. What are your plans for implementing storage class memory (SCM) now and in the future?
D. What are your plans for automating operations and simplifying management?

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

A customer tells you that their costs for public cloud services fluctuate more than they would like from month to month.
What can you tell the customer about HPE GreenLake?
A. With HPE GreenLake, the costs will be the same every month, so customers can better plan their OpEx spending.
B. HPE GreenLake provides sophisticated metering, which gives customers complete transparency into costs.
C. HPE GreenLake provides significant cost savings over public cloud services so even if the cost fluctuates, it is
lower than what the customer is paying now.

D. With HPE GreenLake, customers are notified if their costs increase more than 5% month over month.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

A customer has a hybrid environment with services deployed on-prem, in Amazon Web Services (AWS), and Microsoft
Azure. The customer needs a storage solution. What is one benefit of HPE that you should explain?
A. HPE SimpliVity gives customers a hook into the cloud with stretched clusters that have a mix of on-prem and cloud nodes.
B. HPE Nimble and Cloud Volumes will let the customers move their data freely around the hybrid environment.
C. HPE Primera includes an embedded cloud catalog that will help customers deploy services and data in their hybrid
environment.

D. HPE 3PAR will help the customer move the data on-prem and eliminate the need for cloud services.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What is an accurate trend in how companies procure infrastructure?
A. More companies are looking for a pay-as-you-go model, event for on-prem infrastructure.
B. After experimenting with pay-as-you-go in the cloud, more and more customers want to return to a traditional CAPEX
model.
C. Most customers do not have a preference for CAPEX or OPEX as long as they like the solution.
D. Companies are trying to pay for their infrastructure upfront to avoid interest costs.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

You are trying to uncover an opportunity to sell HPE GreenLake to a customer. Which challenges should you discuss as
part of the conversation?
A. Challenges in helping the company manage a lower than the expected growth rate of 2%.
B. Challenges in maintaining security with an IoT network with printers, thermostats, and other devices.
C. Challenges in finding time for IT staff to innovate instead of just handling day-to-day tasks.
D. Challenges in the cultural changes required to embrace the optimization offered by AI.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You are proposing an HPE Intelligent Data Platform solution to a customer. The customer says: “I\’m actually strongly
considering cloud storage instead. On-prem storage solutions are too slow to deploy and too expensive to scale.” What
is one way that can you overcome this objection?
A. “Sure, your public cloud solution is convenient. But what about orchestrating your infrastructure? In the cloud, it\’s all
siloed.”
B. “Public cloud providers are offering outdated tools to develop apps. Only private cloud environments allow you to
containerize your apps.”
C. “HPE GreenLake offers the same scalability and pay-as-you-go economics of the public cloud but in the safety of an
on-prem environment.”

D. “Public cloud is the right choice, but with HPE\’s public cloud, you\’ll have greater performance and reliability.
There\’s no oversubscription and no downtime.”

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Your mid-sized customer wants to implement an HPE hybrid cloud solution but is worried about the cost. What should
Do you talk about overcoming this objection?
A. The HPE Business Scholarships program offers smaller businesses a chance to earn extra capital and complete
with bigger enterprises.
B. HPE data analytics determine on a daily basis whether the customer is actually financially at-risk or not.
C. On a price-per-unit basis, HPE is the most affordable option in the market.
D. HPE Financial Services helps customers find a way to implement a new solution that is within their budget.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/services/financial-services.html

QUESTION 12

Which statement accurately describes HPE Synergy?
A. HPE Synergy provides a single infrastructure that adapts to meet the requirements for any workload.
B. HPE Synergy supports the predictive analytics of HPE InfoSight, enabling IT to determine which compute module to
use for each workload.
C. HPE Synergy supports high-performance computing (HPC) for mission-critical workloads in enterprise environments.
D. HPE Synergy is designed to provide density-optimized storage and compute for the customer\’s most demanding
workloads
.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/servers/density-optimized.html

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This ATP certification validates a successful candidate has foundational knowledge and skills of the HPE infrastructure strategy,
encompassing SMB server, storage, networking, and management tools and their underlying architecture technologies. Given a set of customer requirements and a solution design, implement the solution.

HP HPE0-V14 exam Objectives:

20% Describe, differentiate, and apply industry-standard, foundational SMB architectures and technologies Identify and explain industry-standard IT technologies used in small and medium-sized solutions and their use cases

20% Recommend and position HPE products, solutions, and appropriate services for use cases Given a use case, recommend the appropriate HPE products, solutions, and services to meet the business requirement

20% Evaluate customer environment, and plan and design solutions using the HPE portfolio to meet customer requirements

  • identify and describe planning, design, and sizing tools and when to use them.
  • Given customer requirements, design an HPE server solution to meet those requirements
  • Given customer requirements, design an HPE storage solution to meet those requirements
  • Given customer requirements, design an HPE network solution to meet those requirements.
  • Given customer requirements, design an end-to-end, small to medium-sized HPE solution to meet those requirements

20% Install, configure, and upgrade HPE solutions and their components and validate the implementation

  • Install physical solution systems including racking, power, and cabling connections
  • Given a solution, configure and validate the server, storage, and/or networking components including integrating subsystems. 

10% – Troubleshoot and remediate HPE solution components

  • Identify the tools and methods to troubleshoot and remediate an HPE solution and when to use each tool and method 
  • Analyze, troubleshoot, and remediate HPE solutions including component integrations (server, storage, and networking)

10% – Manage, monitor, administer, and operate HPE solutions and their components Manage HPE solutions and subsystems to ensure the solution continues to meet customer requirements

Latest Updates HP HPE0-V14 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

A customer is planning to deploy a new Top of Rack solution. They plan to use a stacking technology that meets the
following requirements:
1.
Support for Multi-Chassis Link Aggregation in an active-active mode.
2.
The control plane must not be a single point of failure.
3.
Rapid Fail-over.
4.
Unified Management.
5.
They require a maximum of two switches per stack. Which stacking technology meets the customer\’s requirements?
A. HPE Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
B. HPE Distributed Trunking
C. Aruba Virtual Switching Extension (VSX)
D. Aruba Virtual Switching Framework (VSF)

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/tg/AVD_Midsize-Campus-Design-Deploy.pdf

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT
A solution integrator is installing new equipment to the rack.
Click the recommended location for HPE R/T3000 Extended Runtime Module.
Hot Area:

newxpass hpe0-v14 q2

Correct Answer:

newxpass hpe0-v14 q2-1

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

newxpass hpe0-v14 q3

A customer needs a server with four 10Gb network adapters. They need it to be configured for the best possible
network throughput. Given the BOM in the exhibit, what do you need to add to this server to meet the customer
requirement?
A. Workload Accelerator
B. SSD Drives
C. Smart Storage Hybrid Capacitor
D. Secondary Riser Kit

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A customer needs NFS access on a fiber channel array.
What must be included in the solution to meet this requirement?
A. StoreEver
B. Storage File Controller
C. Smart Array Controller
D. StoreOnce RMC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/gethtml.aspx?docname=a00047729enw

QUESTION 5

A customer is planning to deploy a branch office server rack. The environment will have the following requirements:
1.
Single rack with 20 HPE ProLiant DL360 Gen10 Servers.
2.
Each Server will have 6 x 10G SFP+ Ports.
3.
Each Server will have a dedicated iLO port.
4.
The customer requires that only two switches be used.
5.
The customer requires separate control planes. Which switch configuration can meet these requirements?
A. 2 x HPE 5945 Series switch with IRF
B. 2 x Aruba 8325 Series switches with VSX
C. 2 x HPE 5945 Series switches standalone
D. 2 x Aruba 8325 Series switches with backplane stacking.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

newxpass hpe0-v14 q6

A customer has two HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 servers running as an Oracle cluster. They are trying to reduce
licensing costs and want to move to the best processor available from the list to minimize licensing costs while still
providing a high level of performance for the Oracle database.
Which DL380 Gen10 processor would you recommend?
A. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8280M
B. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8280
C. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8256
D. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8253

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit.

newxpass hpe0-v14 q7

An administrator connected a hypervisor to interface Ten-GigabitEthernet1/0/1 in a switch. The administrator created
virtual machines in VLAN 10 and 20 on the hypervisor. VLAN 10 is configured to be tagged, and VLAN 20 is configured
to
be untagged on the hypervisor.
The administrator found that all the virtual machines in VLAN 20 can communicate with each other, but not with any
virtual machines on VLAN 20 external to the hypervisor.
Given the output in the exhibit, what should you do to resolve the issue?
A. Permit VLAN 1 on the interface.
B. Configure the PVID of the interface to be VLAN 20.
C. Configure the interface as an access port.
D. Configure the interface as an IRF port.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?
A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)
B. Twin-Ax
C. Single Mode Fiber
D. Multi-mode Fiber

Correct Answer: C

Single-mode uses a single relatively straight beam of light, transmitted directly through a core of glass (or occasionally
plastic) that\’s usually 50 microns across. Single-mode accommodates large power levels, and is almost exclusively
used for Long Range (LR) applications.
Reference: https://info.hummingbirdnetworks.com/blog/answering-your-frequently-asked-questions-about-different-typesof-10-gigabit-cisco-sfp-units

QUESTION 9

You have configured a port on an HPE FlexFabric 5900 series switch that is connected to a VMware ESXi server to
support multiple VLANs.

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Given the configuration above, what should happen to any of the untagged traffic coming from the VMware ESXi host?
A. The untagged traffic with being dropped.
B. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in VLAN 2.
C. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in VLAN 50.
D. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

DRAG DROP
Match each adapter to its characteristic.
Select and Place:

newxpass hpe0-v14 q10

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 11

Which backup targets are available from an HPE StoreOnce backup system? (Choose two.)
A. VTL
B. Catalyst
C. NVMe
D. S3
E. iSCSI

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=emr_na-c03824941

QUESTION 12

A customer has a VMware environment with HPE ProLiant servers and Nimble storage. They have been using a
Windows VM to provide file services for their employees.
The customer is experiencing performance issues with the solution due to memory constraints on the virtual
environment.
What could be added to the existing environment that will provide dedicated file services with better performance that
would still utilize the existing storage and backup solutions?
A. HPE StoreEver 30750
B. HPE Storage Performance File Controller
C. HPE StoreEasy 1460 Storage
D. HPE StoreEasy 1650 Expanded Storage

Correct Answer: C

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Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-101

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills measured

  • The content of this exam was updated on December 4, 2019. Please download the Skills measured document below to see what changed.
  • Implement modern device services (30-35%)
  • Implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management (30-35%)
  • Manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance (35-40%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-101 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint
sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization.
You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future.
Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You have a data loss prevention (DIP) policy.
You need to increase the likelihood that the DLP policy will apply to data that contains medical terms from the
International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9-CM). The solution must minimize the number of false positives.
Which two settings should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Your company has a Microsoft 365 E3 subscription.
All devices run Windows 10 Pro and are joined to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to change the edition of Windows 10 to Enterprise the next time users sign in to their computer. The solution
must minimize downtime for the users.
What should you use?
A. Windows Autopilot
B. Windows Update
C. Subscription Activation
D. an in-place upgrade
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure pilot co-management.
You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1.
You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: You unjoin Device1 from the Active Directory domain.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Your company uses Microsoft Cloud App Security.
You plan to integrate Cloud App Security and security information and event management (SIEM).
You need to deploy a SIEM agent on a server that runs Windows Server 2016.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
You need to meet the Intune requirements for the Windows 10 devices.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q6-1

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You implement Microsoft Azure Information Protection.
You need to automatically protect email messages that contain the word Confidential in the subject line.
What should you create?
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A. a mail flow rule from the Exchange admin center
B. a message trace from the Security and Compliance admin center
C. a supervision policy from the Security and Compliance admin center
D. a sharing policy from the Exchange admin center
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-exo-rules

QUESTION 8
You need to meet the compliance requirements for the Windows 10 devices. What should you create from the Intune
admin center?
A. a device compliance policy
B. a device configuration profile
C. an app protection policy
D. an app configuration policy
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/information-protection/windows-information-protection/create-wip-policy-using-intune-azure

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a role group named US eDiscovery Managers by copying
the eDiscovery Manager role group.
You need to ensure that the users in the new role group can only perform content searches of mailbox content for users
in the United States.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run the New-AzureRmRoleAssignment cmdlet with the appropriate
parameters.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have Windows 10 Pro devices that are joined to an Active Directory domain.
You plan to create a Microsoft 365 tenant and to upgrade the devices to Windows 10 Enterprise.
You are evaluating whether to deploy Windows Hello for Business for SSO to Microsoft 365 services.
What are two prerequisites of the deployment? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. computers that have biometric hardware features
B. Microsoft Intune enrollment
C. Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
D. smartcards
E. TPM-enabled devices
Correct Answer: BC
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-hybrid-aadj-sso-base

QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com.
You have two users named User 1 and User2.
From the Security and Compliance admin center, you add User1 to the ediscovery Manager role group.
From the Security and Compliance admin center, User1 creates a case named Case1
You need to ensure that User1 can add User2 as a case member. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
To which role group should you add User2?
A. eDiscovery Manager
B. eDiscovery Administrator
C. Security Administrator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a group named Support. Users in the Support group frequently send email messages to external users.
The manager of the Support group wants to randomly review messages that contain attachments.
You need to provide the manager with the ability to review messages that contain attachments sent from the Support
group users to external users. The manager must have access to only 10 percent of the messages.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam question q12-1

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You configure a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
You discover that users are incorrectly marking content as false positive and bypassing the DLP policy.
You need to prevent the users from bypassing the DLP policy.
What should you configure?
A. incident reports
B. actions
C. exceptions
D. user overrides
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

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Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-100

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills measured

  • Design and implement Microsoft 365 services (25-30%)
  • Manage user identity and roles (35-40%)
  • Manage access and authentication (20-25%)
  • Plan Office 365 workloads and applications (10-15%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-100 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Dashboard in Security and Compliance.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains
a user named User1.
You suspect that an imposter is signing in to Azure AD by using the credentials of User1.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin1 can view all the sign in details of User1 from the past 24
hours.
To which three roles should you add Admin1? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Security administrator
B. Password administrator
C. User administrator
D. Compliance administrator
E. Reports reader
F. Security reader
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 Enterprise subscription.
You have a conditional access policy to force multi-factor authentication when accessing Microsoft SharePoint from a
mobile device.
You need to view which users authenticated by using multi-factor authentication.
What should you do?
A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Security and Compliance reports.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the user sign-ins.
C. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, view the Usage reports.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, view the audit logs.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting

QUESTION 4
Your company has on-premises servers and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
Several months ago, the Azure AD Connect Health agent was installed on all the servers.
You review the health status of all the servers regularly.
Recently, you attempted to view the health status of a server named Server1 and discovered that the server is NOT
listed on the Azure Active Directory Connect Servers list.
You suspect that another administrator removed Server1 from the list.
You need to ensure that you can view the health status of Server1.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Register-AzureADConnectHealthSyncAgent cmdlet.
B. From Azure Cloud shell, run the Connect-AzureAD cmdlet.
C. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic (Delayed Start).
D. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic.
E. From Server1, reinstall the Azure AD Connect Health agent.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
You create the Microsoft 365 tenant.
You implement Azure AD Connect as shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q5

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q5-2

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
An external user has a Microsoft account that uses an email address of [email protected]
An administrator named Admin1 attempts to create a user account for the external user and receives the error message
shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q6

You need to ensure that Admin1 can add the user.
What should you do from the Azure Active Directory admin center?
A. Add a custom domain name named outlook.com.
B. Modify the Authentication methods.
C. Modify the External collaboration settings.
D. Assign Admin1 the Security administrator role.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your organization has an on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization is in the
company\\’s main office in Melbourne. The main office has a low-bandwidth connection to the Internet.
The organization contains 250 mailboxes.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription and plan to migrate to Exchange Online next month.
In 12 months, you plan to increase the bandwidth available for the Internet connection.
You need to recommend the best migration strategy for the organization. The solution must minimize administrative
effort.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the
BEST answer.
A. network upload
B. cutover migration
C. hybrid migration
D. staged migration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD) as shown in the following two exhibits.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8

You create a user named User1 in Active Directory as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q8-3

QUESTION 9
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. All the branch offices connect to the main office by using a
WAN link. The main office has a high-speed Internet connection. All the branch offices connect to the Internet by using
the
main office connections.
Users use Microsoft Outlook 2016 to connect to a Microsoft Exchange Server mailbox hosted in the main office.
The users report that when the WAN link in their office becomes unavailable, they cannot access their mailbox.
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription, and then migrate all the user data to Microsoft 365.
You need to ensure that all the users can continue to use Outlook to receive email messages if a WAN link fails.
Solution: You deploy a site-to-site VPN from each branch office to Microsoft Azure.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to deploy Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus applications to all the client computers at your company.
You prepare the following XML file for the planned deployment.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q10-2

QUESTION 11
You need to meet the security requirement for Group1. What should you do?
A. Configure all users to sign in by using multi-factor authentication.
B. Modify the properties of Group1.
C. Assign Group1 a management role.
D. Modify the Password reset properties of the Azure AD tenant.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-howitworks

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains a guest user named User1. User1 is assigned the User
administrator role.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. Contoso.com is configured as
shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass ms-100 exam question q12

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q12-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q12-2

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains five domain
controllers.
Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates a Microsoft Azure Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.onmicrosoft,com.
You plan to establish federation authentication between on-premises Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant by using
Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).
You need to establish the federation.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam question q13-1

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The CompTIA IT Fundamentals exam focuses on the essential IT skills and knowledge needed to perform tasks commonly performed by advanced end-users and entry-level IT professionals alike, including:

  • Using features and functions of common operating systems and establishing network connectivity
  • Identifying common software applications and their purpose
  • Using security and web browsing best practices

Latest updates CompTIA FC0-U61 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

A UPS provides protection against: 

A. denial of service 

B. replay attack. 

C. power outages. 

D. wiretapping. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 2

For a disaster recovery exercise, a company wants to ensure customer data is recovered before operational data. This

is an example of: 

A. redundancy. 

B. replication. 

C. prioritization. 

D. fault tolerance. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 3

A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized

access. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure? 

A. WPA 

B. SSID 

C. WEP 

D. WPA2 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 4

Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file? 

A. Data querying 

B. Data reports 

C. Data importing 

D. Data persistence 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 5

An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database. Which of the following actions was

performed? 

A. Data correlation 

B. Data manipulation 

C. Data gathering 

D. Data definition 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 6

The IT department has established a new password policy for employees. Specifically, the policy reads: 

Passwords must not contain common dictionary words 

Passwords must contain at least one special character. 

Passwords must be different from the las six passwords used. 

Passwords must use at least one capital letter or number. 

Which of the following practices are being employed? (Select TWO). 

A. Password lockout 

B. Password complexity 

C. Password expiration 

D. Passwords history 

E. Password length 

F. Password age 

Correct Answer: BD 

QUESTION 7

Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by

Internet browsing? 

A. Turn on private browsing 

B. Delete browsing history on program close. 

C. Notify when downloads are complete. 

D. Configure prompting before downloading content. 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 8

For which of the following is a relational database management system MOST commonly used? 

A. Building flowcharts 

B. Storing information 

C. Generating reports 

D. Creating diagrams 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 9

A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible. The data does not need to

remain persistent. Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data? 

A. Flat file 

B. Memory 

C. Relational database 

D. Solid state drive 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 10

Joe, a developer, is writing a program in which he needs to store a number that changes over the duration of the

program\\’s run. Which of the following would Joe MOST likely use to accomplish this? 

A. Loop 

B. Variable 

C. Constant 

D. Function 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 11

Joe, a user, finds out his password for a social media site has been compromised. Joe tells a friend that his email and

banking accounts are probably also compromised. Which of the following has Joe MOST likely performed? 

A. Password reuse 

B. Snooping 

C. Social engineering 

D. Phishing 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 12

A technician is called to replace a display for a workstation. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to

connect the display to the workstation? 

A. USB 

B. NFC 

C. DSL 

D. DVI 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following would work BEST stored as a flat file rather than stored in a database? 

A. Contact list 

B. Movie theater locations 

C. Directions to doctor\\’s office 

D. Store inventory 

Correct Answer: A

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Real and effective RedHat EX200 exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Configure a default software repository for your system.
One
YUM has already provided to configure your system on http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server, and
can be used normally.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
Yum-config-manager –add-repo=http://content.example.com/rhel7.0/x86-64/dvd” is to generate a file vim
content.example.com_rhel7.0_x86_64_dvd.repo, Add a line gpgcheck=0 Yumcleanall Yumrepolist Almost 4305
packages are right, Wrong Yum Configuration will lead to some following questions cannot be worked out.

 

QUESTION 2
Configure autofs.
Configure the autofs automatically mount to the home directory of LDAP, as required:
server.domain11.example.com use NFS to share the home to your system. This file system contains a pre configured
home directory of user ldapuserX.
Home directory of ldapuserX is:
server.domain11.example.com /home/guests/ldapuser
Home directory of ldapuserX should automatically mount to the ldapuserX of the local /home/guests Home directory’s
write permissions must be available for users ldapuser1’s password is password
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
yum install -y autofs mkdir /home/rehome
/etc/auto.master /home/rehome/etc/auto.ldap Keep then exit cp /etc/auto.misc /etc/auto.ldap
/etc/auto.ldap ldapuserX -fstype=nfs,rw server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ Keep then exit systemctl start
autofs systemctl enable autofs su – ldapuserX// test
If the above solutions cannot create files or the command prompt is -bash-4.2$, it maybe exist multi-level directory, this
needs to change the server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ to server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/
ldapuserX. What is multi-level directory? It means there is a directory of ldapuserX under the /home/guests/ldapuserX in
the questions. This directory is the real directory.

 

QUESTION 3
Add admin group and set gid=600
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
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# groupadd -g 600 admin

 

QUESTION 4
Add user: user1, set uid=601 Password: redhat The user\\’s login shell should be non-interactive.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
# useradd -u 601 -s /sbin/nologin user1 # passwd user1 redhat

 

QUESTION 5
Configure the permissions of /var/tmp/fstab
Copy the file /etc/fstab to /var/tmp/fstab. Configure the permissions of /var/tmp/fstab so that:
the file /var/tmp/fstab is owned by the root user.
the file /var/tmp/fstab belongs to the group root.
the file /var/tmp/fstab should not be executable by anyone.
the user natasha is able to read and write /var/tmp/fstab.
the user harry can neither write nor read /var/tmp/fstab.
all other users (current or future) have the ability to read /var/tmp/fstab.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
cp -a /etc/fstab /var/tmp
cd /var/tmp
ls -l
getfacl /var/tmp/fstab
chmod ugo-x /var/tmp/fstab
[ No need to do this, there won\\’t be execute permission for the file by default]
# setfacl -m u:natasha:rw /var/tmp/fstab # setfacl -m u:harry:0 /var/tmp/fstab(zero)
[Read permission will be there for all the users, by default. Check it using ls -l /var/tmp/fstab] Verify by [ ls -la
/var/tmp/fstab]

 

QUESTION 6
Who ever creates the files/directories on a data group owner should automatically be in the same group owner as data.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
1.
chmod g+s /data
2.
Verify using: ls -ld /data Permission should be like this: drwxrws— 2 root sysadmin 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /data If SGID bit
is set on directory then who every users creates the files on directory group owner automatically the owner of parent
directory. To set the SGID bit: chmod g+s directory To Remove the SGID bit: chmod g-s directory

 

QUESTION 7
Configure NTP.
Configure NTP service, Synchronize the server time, NTP server: classroom.example.com
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
Configure the client: Yum -y install chrony Vim /etc/chrony.conf Add: server classroom.example.com iburst Start:
systemctl enable chronyd systemctl restart chronyd Validate: timedatectl status

 

QUESTION 8
One Logical Volume named /dev/test0/testvolume1 is created. The initial Size of that disk is 100MB now you required
more 200MB. Increase the size of Logical Volume, size should be increase on online.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
lvextend -L+200M /dev/test0/testvolume1 Use lvdisplay /dev/test0/testvolume1)
ext2online -d /dev/test0/testvolume1
lvextend command is used the increase the size of Logical Volume. Other command lvresize command also here to
resize. And to bring increased size on online we use the ext2online command.

 

QUESTION 9
One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical
Volume is 400MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 200MB without losing any data. The size of logical
volume 200MB to 210MB will be acceptable.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
Make sure that the filesystem is in a consistent state before reducing: # fsck -f /dev/vo/myvol
Now reduce the filesystem by 200MB. # resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol 200M
It is now possible to reduce the logical volume. #lvreduce /dev/vo/myvol -L 200M
Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol
Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h

 

QUESTION 10
Install the appropriate kernel update from http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/updates. The following criteria must
also be met: The updated kernel is the default kernel when the system is rebooted The original kernel remains available
and bootable on the system
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
ftp server.domain11.example.com Anonymous login ftp> cd /pub/updates ftp> ls ftp> mget kernel* ftp> bye
rpm -ivh kernel*
vim /etc/grub.conf Check the updatted kernel is the first kernel and the orginal kernel remains available. set default=0
wq!

 

QUESTION 11
Create a volume group, and set the size is 500M, the size of single PE is 16M. Create logical volume named lv0 in this
volume group, set size is 20 PE, make it as ext3 file system, and mounted automatically under data.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
fdisk /dev/vda pvcreate /dev/vda3 vgcreate –s 16M vg0 /dev/vda3 lvcreate –n lv0 –l 20 vg0 mkfs.ext3
/dev/mapper/vg0-lv0 mkdir /data /etc/fstab: /dev/mapper/vg0-lv0 /data ext3 defaults 0 0 mount –a mount | grep data

 

QUESTION 12
YUM repository has been provided at http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server. Configure your system
to use this location as a default repository.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
vim/etc/yum.repos/base.repo [base] name=base baseurl= http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server
gpgcheck=0 enable=1 Save and Exit Use yum list for validation, the configuration is correct if list the package
information. If the Yum configuration is not correct then maybe cannot answer the following questions.

 

QUESTION 13
Make on /archive directory that only the user owner and group owner member can fully access.
Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation.
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chmod 770 /archive
Verify using : ls -ld /archive Preview should be like: drwxrwx— 2 root sysuser 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /archive To change the
permission on directory we use the chmod command. According to the question that only the owner user (root) and
group member (sysuser) can fully access the directory so: chmod 770 /archive

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Real and effective Polycom 1K0-001 exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Does IEEE oversee which of the following?
A. ANSI standards
B. ISO standards
C. 802 LAN groups
D. OSI Model
E. Bell Standards
F. All of the above
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
How is the noise measured?
A. Volume
B. Distance
C. Amplitude
D. Impedance
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following audio coding provides a frequency response bandwidth range of 50- 7000Hertz?
A. G.711 and G.721
B. G.723.1 and G.729
C. G.721 and G.725
D. G.726 and G.729
E. G.722 and G.722.1
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 4
What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over a network
connection?
A. greater than 64,000
B. greater than 16,000
C. less than 5,000
D. less than 10,000
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
The scope of the H.225 Standard describes:
A. video and audio coders for H.323.
B. channel bandwidth sub-division.
C. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded and packetized for transport between
H.323 equipment on a packet-based network.
D. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded and channelized for transport between
H.320 equipment on a channel network.
E. the Coding Operation details for video and audio.
F. A and C
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following correctly describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AEC)?
A. Training is a process by which AEC adapts to the room acoustics
B. Training is dependent on room AEC related audio components and gain settings.
C. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in a given room and AEC functions will only work if the mute the button is pressed.
D. Training requires no input from any microphone signals in a videoconferencing room.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Video Conferencing Terminals that are designed to tolerate Network delay, packets lost, packets out of sequence, and
jitter are called________.
A. H.321 Terminals
B. H.320 Terminals
C. H.323 Terminals
D. F.150 Terminals
E. T.120 Data Transfer ANSI Terminals.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must use signaling to establish a media channel conference Call Setup.
Call Operations are part of what Standard?
A. LAP / B
B. LAP / D
C. H.225/Q.921
D. H.225/H.261
E. H.225/Q.931
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 9
Which of the following most accurately defines white balance?
A. The number of white pixels that appear in a video frame
B. A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum
C. A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white
D. A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video signals.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Muting audio during a connected videoconference is typically performed when you:
A. need to move the microphone.
B. do not want to hear the other parties.
C. needs to move the conference table.
D. are listening and your room is very noisy.
E. needs to hang up the video call.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 11
Real-Time Transport Protocol and Real-Time Transport Control Protocol are used to provide:
A. Lower Layer Transport of Data Collaboration.
B. Lower Layer Transport of Audio and Video.
C. Upper Layer Data Packet Sequencing, Timing, and Synchronization for Audio and Video.
D. Upper-Layer Packet Loss and Packet Errors Statistics and Corrective Action.
E. A and B.
F. C and D.
G. all of the above.
Correct Answer: F

 

QUESTION 12
Which Network Services speeds are governed by cable length and cable wire gauge?
A. Packet Switching
B. Integrated Services Digital Network Primary Rate
C. D-Channels
D. B-channels
E. Digital Subscriber Line Services
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 13
H.323 Media Gateways require H.323 Terminals, which wish to make calls through the Gateway to ISDN sites, too:
A. perform a test with the other H.323 Terminals first
B. be registered with the MCU first
C. be registered with the Gatekeeper first
D. call the Network administrator first
E. be using a Gateway Prefix registered on an Active Gatekeeper
F. be using a Gatekeeper Prefix defined on the End Point
Correct Answer: E

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Latest NetApp NS0-159 exam List

NetApp NetApp NS0-159 Exam Video

NetApp Certified Data Administrator, ONTAP | NetApp: https://www.netapp.com/us/services-support/university/certification/ncda.aspx

Latest updates NetApp NS0-159 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
On an All Flash FAS, where is the root parity information located on a node using Advanced Disk Partitioning?
A. on a single SSD drive, regardless of RAID type
B. on a single SSD partition
C. distributed among SSD partitions
D. on two SSD drives, regardless of RAID type
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.newxpass ns0-159 exam questions q2

You use the commands shown in the exhibit to provision a FlexVol volume and LUN on an AFF A300. The volume
shows 40% storage efficiency savings.
In which container is the free space returned?
A. tree
B. aggregate
C. RAID group
D. LUN
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A storage administrator moves a LUN from one volume to another.
In this scenario, what is left behind in the volume?
A. clones of the LUN
B. LUN geometry settings
C. all of the deduplicated blocks from the base LUN
D. Snapshot copies of the volume
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator encountered a ransomware attack that affected the active file system data. They have been creating
Snapshot copies on an hourly schedule. They determine that the entire volume needs to be recovered. In this scenario,
which command would you use?
A. volume snapshot restore
B. volume snapshot modify
C. volume snapshot create
D. volume snapshot delete
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which NetApp tool indicates whether you have applied data protection policies to all volumes?
A. OnCommand Unified Manager
B. Config Advisor
C. Virtual Storage Console
D. OnCommand Service Level Manager
Correct Answer: A

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Latest NetApp NS0-182 exam List

NetApp NetApp NS0-182 Exam Video

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Latest updates NetApp NS0-182 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A customer wants you to add a new AFF A700 HA pair to an existing 4-node AFF8080 EX cluster. The existing cluster
uses NetApp CN1610 switches for the cluster connection and is using the recommended port count.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. You cannot have more than four nodes with AFF.
B. There are not enough ports available on the cluster switch.
C. The AFF A700 is not supported with NetApp CN1610 switches/
D. You cannot mix different AFF models in the same cluster.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which tool allows you to create a new FlexGroup volume?
A. Cluster Config Builder
B. NetAppDocs
C. OnCommand System Manager
D. OnCommand Unified Manager
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
You are installing a pair of Cisco Nexus 3132Q-V cluster switches and receive several syntax errors when the reference
configuration file (RCF) is applied.
In this scenario, what are two reasons for these errors? (Choose two.)
A. An RCF file for a different version has been loaded.
B. The switch was not in maintenance mode.
C. The RCF was already applied.
D. Cables were not removed before applying the RCF.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4
You are configuring a new system with ONTAP 9.5. You created interface groups, VLANs, and a broadcast domain for
the new ports on all the nodes of your cluster. During the configuration, you used an MTU value of 1500 for the
broadcast domain and 9000 for the physical ports. The customer asks you to enable jumbo frames.
What should you do in this scenario?
A. Set the MTU option to jumbo frames on the broadcast domain.
B. Change the MTU value to 9000 on the ifgroup.
C. Set the MTU option to jumbo frames on the ifgroup.
D. Change the MTU value to 9000 on the broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
You are performing an automated upgrade of a 2-node cluster. Node-01 upgrades successfully. But during the node-02
upgrade, there is a power outage at the site. When power is restored and the nodes are booted, you receive this
message: Warning: The Cluster is in a mixed version state. Update all of the nodes to the same version as soon as
possible.
In this scenario, which command provides information that will help you understand the problem?
A. system node upgrade show-task-status
B. system node image package show
C. system node upgrade-revert show
D. system node image show
Correct Answer: B

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Latest NetApp NS0-193 exam List

NetApp NS0-193 Exam Video

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Latest updates NetApp NS0-193 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
After a successful upgrade from ONTAP 9.3 to ONTAP 9.5, you have a compatibility issue and must downgrade to
ONTAP 9.3. Which action must be performed to accomplish this task?
A. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.0 first.
B. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.4 first.
C. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.3 first.
D. ONTAP must be directly downgraded to ONTAP 9.2 first.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-ug-rdg%2FGUIDAC0EB781-583F-4C90-A4C4-BC7B14CEFD39.html

 

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.newxpass ns0-193 exam questions q2

Response times for NFS clients have increased recently. There have been no changes to the data network. Referring to
the exhibit, what would cause the increased response times?
A. Inter-Switch Link (ISL) failure
B. CPU spike
C. disk latency
D. QoS policy limit
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
When troubleshooting an I/O module (IOM), which action should you perform before replacing it?
A. Swap IOM-A with IOM-B on the shelf.
B. Reseat the IOM.
C. Reboot the node.
D. Power cycle the shelf.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which two SVMs would benefit from a load-sharing mirror? (Choose two.)
A. An SVM that is configured for FCP.
B. An SVM that is configured for CIFS.
C. An SVM that is configured for NFS.
D. An SVM that is configured for iSCSI.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368017/html/GUID-4931A901-D6D0-458B-8D3AA92427FDD8B8.html

 

QUESTION 5
Users are complaining about slow file access. You suspect that the ONTAP cluster is causing the problem. In this
scenario, which ONTAP command would help you troubleshoot this problem?
A. application show-statistics
B. QoS statistics volume latency show
C. cluster log-forwarding show
D. storage aggregate verify
Correct Answer: D

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