Effective channels through the Cisco 300-370 exam – latest 300-370 exam dumps

What is the best way to pass the Cisco 300-370 exam? (First: Exam practice test,
Second: Lead4pass Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-370 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/ccnp-wireless.html .Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-370 Exam Video

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Latest Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-370 google drive

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300-370 WITSHOOT – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/witshoot.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting and optimizing Enterprise wireless infrastructure and related services plus the tools and methodologies needed to identify and resolve client connectivity, performance, and RF issues.

Latest updates Cisco 300-370 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802.11ac WLAN at customer site. Due to interferences with
neighboring 802.11n networks, the engineer must determine the current primary/secondary channel allocation to
enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary 20 MHz channel. Which
combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHz channels?
A. primary 40 MHz: channel 62, primary 80 MHz: channel 58
B. primary 40 MHz: channel 54, primary 80 MHz: channel 58
C. primary 40 MHz: channel 64, primary 80 MHz: channel 60
D. primary 40 MHz: channel 60, primary 80 MHz: channel 56
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in
different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\’s and has
a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and
Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they
do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue?
A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical.
B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC.
C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the
location A Access Points.
D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question q3

Which statement about the join process of the access point is true?
A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management
interface subnet.
Correct Answer: E
References:

 

QUESTION 4
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contains
the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. viaddr
D. giaddr
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending
its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default severity level has been changed. Which
value does the engineer select to reset the severity level to its factory setting?
A. informational
B. major
C. minor
D. warning
E. critical
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer wants to run the Voice Audit tool in PI and wants to be able to verify:
that clients will be capable of having static IPs whether or not Call Admission Control is enabled Which two rules field
descriptions must be checked in the report? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP assignment
B. CAC: max bandwidth
C. ACM
D. DTPC
E. load-based CAC
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/3-2/reference/guide/pi_ref.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
A mobile workstation in a factory contains an AP that is configured as a workgroup bridge. When the workstation moves,
it loses connectivity and disrupts operation. What can the engineer implement to minimize roaming problems?
A. Use 802.1X authentication.
B. Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for fast roaming.
C. Use AES for encryption.
D. Use the mobile station command.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
In a Cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type is used between the access point and the wireless LAN
controller?
A. DTLS
B. TLS
C. STLS
D. OpenSSL
Correct Answer: A
DTLS data encryption is enabled automatically for OfficeExtend access points but disabled by default for all other
access points. Most access points are deployed in a secure network within a company building, so data encryption is
not necessary. In contrast, the traffic between an OfficeExtend access point and the controller travels through an
unsecure public network, so data encryption is more important for these access points. When data encryption is
enabled, traffic is encrypted at the access point before it is sent to the controller and at the controller before it is sent to
the client.

 

QUESTION 9
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true?
A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off.
B. Debug is a message logging severity 7.
C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI.
D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure?
A. The closer the circle is to blue, the more localized the impact is.
B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is.
C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is.
D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all
options are used.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-370 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-370 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question q13

The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error?
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model is not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is not configured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C

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Effective channels through the Microsoft az-301 exam – latest az-301 exam dumps

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Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft Azure az-301 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/az-301.html (192 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Microsoft Azure az-301 Exam Video

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Exam AZ-301: Microsoft Azure Architect Design:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-301

Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations,
including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affect an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

Skills measured

  • Determine workload requirements (10-15%)
  • Design for identity and security (20-25%)
  • Design a data platform solution (15-20%)
  • Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%)
  • Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%)
  • Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft az-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a hybrid deployment of Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the Azure AD tenant can be managed only from the computers on
your on-premises network.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD roles and administrators
B. a conditional access policy
C. Azure AD Application Proxy
D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You have an on-premises Active Directory forest and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All Azure AD users
are assigned a Premium P1 license.
You deploy Azure AD Connect.
Which two features are available in this environment that can reduce operational overhead for your company\\’s help
desk? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management policies
B. access reviews
C. self-service password reset
D. Microsoft Cloud App Security Conditional Access App Control
E. password writeback
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 3
Your company identifies the following business continuity and disaster recovery objectives for virtual machines that host
sales, finance, and reporting application in the company\\’s onpremises data center.
•The finance application requires that data be retained for seven years. In the event ot a disaster, the application must
be able to run from Azure. The recovery in objective (RTO) is 10 minutes,
• The reporting application must be able to recover point in-time data al a daily granularity.
The RTO is eight hours.
•The sales application must be able to fail over to second on-premises data center.
You need to recommend which Azure services meet the business community and disaster recovery objectives. The
solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend for each application? To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct application.
Each service may be used owe. More than once not at an You may need to drag the spin bar between panes or scroll
10
view content.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-301 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
You need to design an architecture to capture the creation of users and the assignment of roles. The captured data
must be stored in Azure Cosmos DB.
Which Azure services should you include in the design? To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct targets.
Each service may be used once. more than once, or not at all. You need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE .Each correct selection worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-103 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-103 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system.
What should you include in the recommendations?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)
C. Azure Storage Service Encryption
D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
You plan to deploy 200 Microsoft SQL Server databases to Azure by using SQL Database and Azure SQL Database
Managed Instance.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution that provides a consistent monitoring approach for all deployments The
solution must meet the following requirements: Support current-state analysis on metrics collected near -real-time
multiple
times per minutes and maintained for up to one hour.
Support longer term analysis based on metrics collected multiple timer per hour and maintained for up two weeks.
Support monitoring of the number of concurrent logins and concurrent sessions.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Monitor
B. dynamic management views
C. SQL Server-Profiler
D. trace flags
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
You store web access logs data in Azure Blob storage.
You plan to generate monthly reports from the access logs.
You need to recommend an automated process to upload the data to Azure SQL Database every month.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Data Migration Assistant
D. AzCopy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
You have the network topology shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass az-103 exam question q8

You have a user-defined route that has a default route of 0.0.0.0/0 and the next hop set to the network virtual
appliance.
You configure the Azure Storage account to use virtual network service endpoints.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-103 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-103 exam question q8-2

 

QUESTION 9
You are planning the implementation of an order processing web service that will contain microservices hosted in an
Azure Service Fabric cluster.
You need to recommend a solution to provide developers with the ability to proactively identify and fix performance
issues. The developers must be able to simulate user connections to the order processing web service from the
Internet, as
well as simulate user transactions. The developers must be notified if the goals for the transaction response times are
not met.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. container health
B. Azure Network Watcher
C. Application Insights
D. Service Fabric Analytics
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy an Azure virtual machine to two Azure regions, and you deploy an Azure Application Gateway.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution for the network configuration of the front-end tier of the payment processing. What
should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Application Gateway
B. Traffic Manager
C. a Standard Load Balancer
D. a Basic load Balancer
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You are planning an Azure solution that will host production database for a high-performance application. The solution
will include the following components:
Two virtual machines that will run Microsoft SQL Server 2016, will be deployed to different data centers in the same
Azure region, and will be part of an Always On availability group.
SQL server data that will be backed up by using the Automated Backup feature of the SQL Server IassS Agent
Extension (SQLIaaSExtension)
You identify the storage priorities for various data type as shown in the following table.lead4pass az-301 exam question q13

Which storage type should you recommend for each data type? To answer, drag the appreciate storage types to the
correct data types. Each storage type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the spilt
bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-301 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam question q13-2

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Effective channels through the Microsoft az-103 exam – latest az-103 exam dumps

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Second: Lead4pass Microsoft expert.) You can get free Microsoft Azure az-103 exam practice test questions here. Or choose https://www.lead4pass.com/az-103.html (331 Q&As). Study hard to pass the exam easily!

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Exam AZ-103: Microsoft Azure Administrator:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-103

Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that span storage, security, networking, and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle and take requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate.

Skills measured

  • Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage storage (15-20%)
  • Deploy and manage virtual machines (VMs) (15-20%)
  • Configure and manage virtual networks (30-35%)
  • Manage identities (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft az-103 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure subscription.
Users access the resources in the subscription from either home or from customer sites. From home, users must
establish a point-to-site VPN to access the Azure resources. The users on the customer sites access the Azure
resources by
using site-to-site VPNs.
You have a line-of-business app named App1 that runs on several Azure virtual machine. The virtual machines run
Windows Server 2016.
You need to ensure that the connections to App1 are spread across all the virtual machines. What are two possible
Azure services that you can use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a public load balancer
B. Traffic Manager
C. an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
D. an internal load balancer
E. an Azure Application Gateway
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result,
these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager
template named ARM1.json.
You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance.
You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: From the Update management blade, you click enable.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/redeploy-to-new-node

 

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is connected to the Internet. You add a
network interface named Interface1 to VM1 as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)lead4pass az-103 exam question q3

From Computer1, you attempt to connect to VM1 by using Remote Desktop, but the connection fails.
You need to establish a Remote Desktop connection to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Start VM1.
B. Attach a network interface.
C. Delete the DenyAllOutBound outbound port rule.
D. Delete the DenyAllInBound inbound port rule.
Correct Answer: A
Incorrect Answers:
B: The network interface has already been added to VM.
C: The Outbound rules are fine.
D: The inbound rules are fine. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop.
Note: Rules are processed in priority order, with lower numbers processed before higher numbers, because lower
numbers have higher priority. Once traffic matches a rule, processing stops. As a result, any rules that exist with lower
priorities (higher numbers) that have the same attributes as rules with higher priorities are not processed.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

 

QUESTION 4
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenet named adatum.com.
You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users.
What should you do?
A. Create a sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
C. Create and configure the Identity Hub.
D. Configure a security policy in Azure Security Center.
Correct Answer: A
With Azure Active Directory Identity Protection, you can: require users to register for multi-factor authentication handle
risky sign-ins and compromised users
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/flows

 

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has Azure AD Privileged Identity Management configured.
You have 10 users who are assigned the Security Administrator role for the tenant. You need the users to verify whether
they still require the Security Administrator role.
What should you do?
A. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure a user risk policy.
B. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, create an access review.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure the Weekly Digest.
D. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, create a conditional access policy.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-how-to-start-security-review

 

QUESTION 6
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.lead4pass az-103 exam question q6 lead4pass az-103 exam question q6-1 lead4pass az-103 exam question q6-2

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you
click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks
stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will
earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to create a virtual network named VNET1008 that contains three subnets named subnet0, subnet1, and
subnet2. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Connections from any of the subnets to the Internet must be blocked. Connections from the Internet to any of the
subnets must be blocked. The number of network security groups (NSGs) and NSG rules must be minimized.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1: Click Create a resource in the portal.
Step 2: Enter Virtual network in the Search the Marketplace box at the top of the New pane that appears. Click Virtual
network when it appears in the search results. Step 3: Select Classic in the Select a deployment model box in the
Virtual
Network pane that appears, then click Create.
Step 4: Enter the following values on the Create virtual network (classic) pane and then click Create:
Name: VNET1008
Address space: 10.0.0.0/16
Subnet name: subnet0
Resource group: Create new
Subnet address range: 10.0.0.0/24
Subscription and location: Select your subscription and location. Step 5: In the portal, you can create only one subnet
when you create a virtual network. Click Subnets (in the SETTINGS section) on the Create virtual network (classic)
pane
that appears.
Click +Add on the VNET1008 – Subnets pane that appears.
Step 6: Enter subnet1 for Name on the Add subnet pane. Enter 10.0.1.0/24 for Address range. Click OK.
Step 7: Create the third subnet: Click +Add on the VNET1008 – Subnets pane that appears. Enter subnet2 for Name on
the Add subnet pane. Enter 10.0.2.0/24 for Address range. Click OK.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/create-virtual-network-classic

 

QUESTION 7
You create an Azure subscription named Subscription1 and an associated Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named Tenant1. Tenant1 contains the users in the following table.lead4pass az-103 exam question q7

You need to add an Azure AD Privileged Identity Management application to Tenant1. Which account can you use?
A. [email protected]
B. [email protected]
C. [email protected]
D. [email protected]
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-getting-started

 

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend an environment for the deployment of App1. What should you recommend?
A. a new App Service plan that uses the P3v2 pricing tier
B. ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I1 pricing tier
C. ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I3 pricing tier
D. a new App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-app-service-environment-control-inbound-traffic

 

QUESTION 9
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

lead4pass az-103 exam question q9

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you
click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and
this
exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete
each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all
other
sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to store media files in the rg1lod7523691n1 storage account. You need to configure the storage account to
store the media files. The solution must ensure that only users who have access keys can download the media files and
that
the files are accessible only over HTTPS.
What should you do from Azure portal?
A. Answer: See solution below.
Correct Answer: A
We should create an Azure file share.
Step 1: In the Azure portal, select All services. In the list of resources, type Storage Accounts. As you begin typing, the
list filters based on your input. Select Storage Accounts.
On the Storage Accounts window that appears.
Step 2: Locate the rg1lod7523691n1 storage account.
Step 3: On the storage account page, in the Services section, select Files.

lead4pass az-103 exam question q9-1

Step 4: On the menu at the top of the File service page, click + File share. The New file share page drops down. Step 5:
In Name type myshare. Click OK to create the Azure file share.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-portal

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1
contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources
were
created in RG1. Solution: From the Subscriptions blade, you select the subscription, and then click Resource providers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
You need to create a web app named corp7509086n2 that can be scaled horizontally. The solution must use the lowest
possible pricing tier for the App Service plan.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See explanation below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1:
In the Azure Portal, click Create a resource > Web + Mobile > Web App.
Step 2:
Use the Webb app settings as listed below.
Web App name: corp7509086n2
Hosting plan: Azure App Service plan
Pricing tier of the Pricing Tier: Standard
Change your hosting plan to Standard, you can\\’t setup auto-scaling below standard tier.
Step 3:
Select Create to provision and deploy the Web app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-web-how-to-create-a-web-app-in-an-ase https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/plans/

 

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Tenant1 and an Azure subscription named You enable
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
You need to secure the members of the Lab Creator role. The solution must ensure that the lab creators request access
when they create labs.
What should you do first?
A. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, edit the role settings for Lab Creator.
B. From Subscription1 edit the members of the Lab Creator role.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, creates a user risk policy.
D. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, discover the Azure resources of Conscription.
Correct Answer: A
As a Privileged Role Administrator you can: Enable approval for specific roles Specify approver users and/or groups to
approve requests View request and approval history for all privileged roles
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

 

QUESTION 13
You have a public load balancer that balancer ports 80 and 443 across three virtual machines.
You need to direct all the Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) to VM3 only.
What should you configure?
A. an inbound NAT rule
B. a load public balancing rule
C. a new public load balancer for VM3
D. a new IP configuration
Correct Answer: A
To port forward traffic to a specific port on specific VMs use an inbound network address translation (NAT) rule.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Load-balancing rule to distribute traffic that arrives at frontend to backend pool instances.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/load-balancer/load-balancer-overview

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Citrix 1Y0-203 exam exercise questions, 1Y0-203 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Now available! New Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Administration exam” Exam 1Y0-203.

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1Y0-203 exam

  • Initial Requirements
  • Installing and Configuring a XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • Provisioning and Delivering App and Desktop Resources
  • Providing Access with StoreFront and Receiver
  • Understanding and Configuring Citrix Policies
  • Application Presentation and Management
  • Printing with XenApp and XenDesktop
  • Citrix Profile Management
  • Managing the XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • XenApp and XenDesktop Site Redundancy Considerations
  • XenApp and XenDesktop Basic Security Considerations
  • Monitoring the XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • Supporting and Troubleshooting XenApp and XenDesktop

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Free Citrix 1Y0-203 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy a new version of Receiver to 10 users who are onsite as visitors and
use personal BYOD laptops that run an older version of Receiver. The users only require a base installation of Receiver
with NO customizations; however, they will need to have the ability to print and save files locally from within their
sessions.
The users will access XenDesktop resources through StoreFront.
Which two deployment options can the administrator choose for these users? (Choose two.)
A. Have users run HTML5 Receiver through web browser.
B. Use an Enterprise software deployment of Receiver.
C. Deploy Receiver through StoreFront browser.
D. Have users perform a manual installation of Native Receiver.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Administrator wants to use NetScaler Gateway to allow external users to access internal resources securely.
Which three functionalities will the NetScaler Gateway provide to allow access to internal resources on behalf of
external users? (Choose three.)
A. Allow secured external connections to StoreFront (reverse Web Proxy)
B. Authenticate Users
C. Enumerate resources
D. Allow secured access to internal hosted applications (HDX Proxy)
E. Aggregate resources
Correct Answer: BCE

 

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Administrator needs to add a VMware ESXi host as a hosting unit in the XenDesktop.
Which three permissions are required by User account to add the VMware ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. System.Read
B. DataStore.AllocateSpace
C. DataStore.FileManagement
D. System.View
E. System.Anonymousx
F. DataStore.Browse
Correct Answer: ADE

 

QUESTION 4
Which account is used by FlexCast Management Architecture (FMA) services to access the Citrix XenApp and
XenDesktop SQL databases?
A. Network Service Account
B. Local System Account
C. Local User Account
D. Controller\\’s Machine Account
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is planning to update a Machine Catalog for the first time. The Machine Catalog was
created with Machine Creation Services (MCS). What happens to the identity disk after the update?
A. It is deleted and recreated
B. It stays the same size
C. It doubles in size
D. It is formatted and re-initialized
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Which two FlexCast models allow for high scalability and user density? (Choose two.)
A. Remote PC access
B. Hosted VDI
C. Published applications
D. Hosted shared desktops
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 7
Which two cloud providers are supported with XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Web Services
B. Google Cloud Services
C. Microsoft Azure
D. IBM Cloud
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator works at a hospital where doctors frequently move between patient rooms.
Each patient room has a different workstation. Several doctors have complained that when they switch patient rooms,
they have to relaunch their Citrix-delivered applications.
Which feature can the administrator configure to address this issue?
A. Session Pre-launch
B. ICA Keep-Alive
C. Session Reliability
D. Workspace Control
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy 2000 virtual desktops. The hardware in the environment has a very fast
SSD local storage, and the SAN is running almost at capacity. There is NO need for user-installed applications or
persistency in the environment.
Which provisioning method would allow the administrator to save SAN storage?
A. Provisioning Services
B. Manual Provisioning
C. Existing machines
D. Machine Creation Services
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator needs to get a list of all published applications being used along with associated user names in a
XenApp environment. Which cmdlet can the administrator execute to accomplish this task?
A. Get-BrokerApplicationInstance
B. Get-BrokerApplication
C. Get-BrokerSessionLinger
D. Get-BrokerSession
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator needs to review the Delivery Group\\’s historical data from the last 200 days. Which tool allows the
administrator to view this data?
A. Citrix Studio – Delivery Groups
B. Citrix Director – Dashboard
C. Citrix Studio – Applications
D. Citrix Director – Trends
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which two steps can a Citrix Administrator perform to use Citrix PowerShell cmdlets in a XenDesktop environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Get-executionPolicy
B. Set-ExecutionPolicy unrestricted
C. Get-Command-Module Citrix*
D. Add-Pssnapin citrix*
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has configured two sites: Site A and Site B. Each site uses the same license server
named LicenseServer1. The administrator has the following additional information:
Site A is configured to check out Enterprise licenses.
Site B is configured to check out Platinum licenses.
LicenseServer1 contains both Enterprise and Platinum licenses.
The Enterprise licenses have become exhausted, and the next user from Site A attempts to launch a published desktop.
What will be the outcome of this action?
A. The application will launch successfully with Platinum licenses checked out.
B. The application will launch successfully, and Site A will enter the Supplement Grace Period.
C. The user will be unable to launch the application, and the error message “No resources available” will appear.
D. The application will launch successfully, and Site B will enter the Supplement Grace Period.
Correct Answer: B

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API API-571 exam exercise questions, API-571 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

API 571 – Corrosion and Materials – API” Exam API-571.

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API-571 exam

1.Studying For The Exam

Exam questions for the API 571 Corrosion and Materials certification are derived from API RP 571 Damage Mechanisms Affecting Fixed Equipment in the Refining Industry.
The Body of Knowledge for the API 571 exam consists of the entire API RP 571, 2nd edition (2011), with the exception of the following sections: 1.1, 3.1, 4.1 and 5.2.

2.Exam Structure

The API 571 exam is 3.25 hours long.
There are 80 questions, of which only 70 are scored. The remaining 10 are pretest, which are not scored.
All questions are multiple-choice and closed-book. Paper and reference materials are not allowed into exams.

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Free API API-571 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A 5Cr-1Mo piping system in the hydrogen unit shows significant internal wall loss after 2 years in service due to
CO?corrosion. Which material would be best suited to use to install a new pipe system?
A. Titanium
B. 9Cr-1Mo
C. A-106 Gr B
D. 316 SS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Hydrogen stress cracking is the same mechanism that is responsible for sulfide stress corrosion cracking in wet H²S
environments except that HF acid is generating the __________.
A. Sulfide
B. Caustic
C. Hydrogen
D. Water
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 3
Carbonate stress corrosion cracking is the term applied to surface breaking or cracks that occur adjacent to carbon steel
welds under the combined action of ____________ and ___________ in carbonate containing systems.
A. Temperature, stress
B. Tensile stress, corrosion
C. Corrosion, velocity
D. Tensile stress, velocity
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Sulfuric acid promotes general and localized corrosion of carbon steel. Carbon steel heat affected zones may
experience severe corrosion. Acid concentration, temperature, alloy content and ____________ are critical factors
affecting sulfuric acid corrosion.
A. Pressure
B. Stress
C. Velocity
D. Ductility
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
For furnaces, to prevent PASCC, keep the firebox heated above the dewpoint to keep ________ from forming.
A. Water
B. Acids
C. Moisture
D. Corrosion
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
In susceptible materials, the primary factor that affects sigma phase formation is the ________ at elevated
temperatures.
A. Time of exposure
B. Pressure
C. Stress
D. Velocity
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Welds joining dissimilar materials (ferritic and austenetic) may suffer __________ related damage at high temperatures
due to differential thermal expansion stresses.
A. Stress
B. Creep
C. Fatigue
D. Thermal stress
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Carburization can be confirmed by a substantial increase in hardness and a _______ in ductility.
A. Loss
B. Gain
C. Change
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Cl SCC usually occurs at metal temperatures above ________.
A. 125º F
B. 175º F
C. 140º F
D. 200º F
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
With Cl SCC, ________ levels of chloride ________ the likelihood of cracking.
A. Decreasing, Increases
B. Increasing, Decreases
C. Increasing, Increases
D. Increasing, Eliminates
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
_________ is accelerated high temperature wastage of materials that occurs when contaminants in the fuel form
deposits and melt on the metal surfaces.
A. Spheroidization
B. Dealloying
C. Fuel ash corrosion
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Susceptibility to temper embrittlement is largely determined by the presence of the alloying elements manganese and
_______.
A. Chromium
B. Moly
C. Silicon
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
A brittle fracture:
A. Is caused by stress cycles.
B. Is always the result of thermal stresses.
C. Grow very rapidly with minimum deformation prior to failure.
D. Grows slowly and is dependent on time and stress.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary
protocols?
A. network
B. ICMP
C. protocol
D. TCP-UDP
E. service
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
Which technology can drop packets with a spoofed source address Instead of forwarding them?
A. ICUP redirects
B. SNMPv3
C. ICMP unreachable messages
D. uRPF
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Control plane thresholding limit for which protocols
A. ICMP
B. BGP
C. ARP
Correct Answer: B
The queue-thresholding feature policy supports the following TCP/UDP-based protocols:
Bgp,dns,ftp,http,igmp,snmp,ssh,syslog,telnet,Tftp,host-protocols

 

QUESTION 4
An engineer is hardening the management plane for an ASA. Which protocol is affected by this hardening?
A. BGP
B. IKE
C. ICMP
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode and has two user-defined contexts– Context_A and Context_B.
From which context are device logging messages sent?
A. Admin
B. Context_A
C. Context_B
D. System
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A network engineer wants to add new view to an IOS device configured with RBAC. Which privilege is required for that
task?
A. Level 16
B. Level 15
C. root view
D. admin view
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which setting is optional when configuring two Cisco ASA firewalls for failover?
A. identical RAM installed
B. same context mode
C. same AnyConnect images
D. identical licenses
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which VTP mode supports private VLANs on a switch?
A. transparent
B. server
C. client
D. off
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about Cisco IDS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is preferred for detection-only deployment.
B. It is used for installations that require strong network-based protection and that include sensor tuning.
C. It is used to boost sensor sensitivity at the expense of false positives.
D. It is used to monitor critical systems and to avoid false positives that block traffic.
E. It is used primarily to inspect egress traffic, to filter outgoing threats.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-206 exam question q10

An SNMP host is an IP address to which SNMP notifications and traps are sent. To configure SNMFV3 hosts, which
option must you configure in addition to the target IP address?
A. the Cisco ASA as a DHCP server, so the SNMFV3 host can obtain an IP address
B. a username, because traps are only sent to a configured user
C. SSH, so the user can connect to the Cisco ASA
D. the Cisco ASA with a dedicated interface only for SNMP, to process the SNMP host traffic.
Correct Answer: B
The username can be seen here on the ASDM simulator screen shot:

lead4pass 300-206 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/firewall-best-practices.html


QUESTION 12
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
Correct Answer: BDE

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Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Install and configure (20–25%)
  • Maintain instances and databases (15–20%)
  • Optimize and troubleshoot (15–20%)
  • Manage data (20–25%)
  • Implement security (15–20%)
  • Implement high availability (5–10%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for database professionals who perform installation, maintenance, and configuration tasks. Other responsibilities include setting up database systems, making sure those systems operate efficiently, and regularly storing, backing up, and securing data from unauthorized access.

Test your Microsoft Business Intelligence 70-462 exam level

QUESTION 1
You want to simulate read, write, checkpoint, backup, sort, and read-ahead activities for your organization\\’s SQL
Server 2012 deployment. Which of the following tools would you use to accomplish this goal?
A. SQLIO
B. SQLIOSim
C. SQLIOStress
D. chkdsk
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 to develop a database application. You need to create an object that meets the
following requirements: Takes an input variable Returns a table of values Cannot be referenced within a view
Which object should you use?
A. Scalar-valued function
B. Inline function
C. User-defined data type
D. Stored procedure
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
You administer a SQL Server 2012 server that contains a database named SalesDb.
SalesDb contains a schema named Customers that has a table named Regions.
A user named UserA is a member of a role named Sales.
UserA is granted the Select permission on the Regions table and the Sales role is granted the Select permission on the
Customers schema.
You need to ensure that the Sales role, including UserA, is disallowed to select from the Regions table.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. REVOKE SELECT OK Schema::Customers FROM UserA
B. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA
C. EXEC sp_addrolemember \\’Sales\\’, \\’UserA\\’
D. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales
E. EXEC sp_droprolemember \\’Sales\\’, \\’UserA\\’
F. REVOKE SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM Sales
G. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM UserA
H. REVOKE SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales
I. DENY SELECT ON Schema::Customers FROM UserA
J. DENY SELECT ON Object::Regions FROM Sales
Correct Answer: J
References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188369.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187750.aspx http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff848791.asp

 

 

QUESTION 4
You have configured Resource Governor with three resource pools.
You have assigned the first resource pool a minimum CPU and memory value of 20%.
You have assigned the second resource pool a minimum CPU and memory value of 30%.
You want to assign maximum CPU and memory values to the third resource pool.
What is the maximum CPU and memory value you can assign to this resource pool?
A. 30%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: B
The maximum resource value assigned to the third pool is 65%; the sum of the minimum resource values assigned to
the other pools is 50%.
Note: MIN_CPU_PERCENT and MAX_CPU_PERCENT
These settings are the minimum and maximum guaranteed average CPU bandwidth for all requests in the resource pool
when there is CPU contention. You can use these settings to establish predictable CPU resource usage for multiple
workloads that is based on the needs of each workload. For example, assume the Sales and Marketing departments in
a company share the same database. The Sales department has a CPU-intensive workload with high-priority queries.
The Marketing department also has a CPU-intensive workload, but has lower-priority queries. By creating a separate
resource pool for each department, you can assign a minimum CPU percentage of 70 for the Sales resource pool and a
maximum CPU percentage of 30 for the Marketing resource pool. This ensures that the Sales workload receives the
CPU resources it requires and the Marketing workload is isolated from the CPU demands of the Sales workload. Note
that the maximum CPU percentage is an opportunistic maximum. If there is available CPU capacity, the workload uses
it up to 100 percent. The maximum value only applies when there is contention for CPU resources. In this example, if
the Sales workload is switched off, the Marketing workload can use 100 percent of the CPU if needed.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/resource-governor/resource-governor-resource-pool

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You are a database administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 environment. The environment contains two servers
named SQLServer01 and SQLServer02. The database Contoso exists on SQLServer01.
You plan to mirror the Contoso database between SQLServer01 and SQLServer02 by using database mirroring.
You need to prepare the Contoso database for database mirroring.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server. One of the databases on the server supports a highly active
OLTP application.
Users report abnormally long wait times when they submit data into the application.
You need to identify which queries are taking longer than 1 second to run over an extended period of time.
What should you do?
A. use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of
more than 1,000.
B. Use sp_configure to set a value for blocked process threshold. Create an extended event session.
C. Use the Job Activity monitor to review all processes that are actively running. Review the Job History to find out the
duration of each step.
D. Run the sp_who command from a query window.
E. Run the DBCC TRACEON 1222 command from a query window and review the SQL Server event log.
Correct Answer: A
Use SQL Profiler to trace all queries that are processing on the server. Filter queries that have a Duration value of more
than 1,000.
Incorrect:
Not B: The SQL Server lock monitor is responsible for implementing the logic to detect a blocking scenario if the
`blocked process threshold\\’ value is greater than 0. However, the lock monitor only wakes up every 5 seconds to
detect this
condition (it is also looking for other conditions such as deadlocks). Therefore, if you set a `blocked process threshold\\’
value to 1, it will not detect a process that has been blocking for 1 second. The minimum time it can detect a blocked
process is 5 seconds.
Not E: The Traceflag 1222 Shows Deadlocks, not the Duration of an query.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/tools/sql-server-profiler/sql-server-profiler

 

QUESTION 7
You install a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance.
The instance will store data extracted from two databases running on Windows Azure SQL Database.
You hire a data steward to perform interactive data cleansing and ad hoc querying and updating of the database.
You need to ensure that the data steward is given the correct client tools to perform these tasks.
Which set of tools should you install?
A. SQL Server Management Studio and Distributed Replay Client
B. Master Data Services and Data Quality Client
C. Data Quality Client and Distributed Replay Client
D. Data Quality Client and SQL Server Management Studio
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertutorial/3802/sql-server-master-data-services-architecture/

 

QUESTION 8
You have three tables that contain data for vendors, customers, and agents. You create a view that is used to look up
telephone numbers for these companies.
The view has the following definition: You need to ensure that users can update only the phone numbers by using this
view. What should you do?

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q8

A. Alter the view. Use the EXPAND VIEWS query hint along with each SELECT statement.
B. Drop the view. Re-create the view by using the SCHEMABINDING clause, and then create an index on the view.
C. Create an AFTER UPDATE trigger on the view.
D. Create an INSTEAD OF UPDATE trigger on the view.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
You administer two instances of Microsoft SQL Server. You deploy an application that uses a database on the named
instance.
The application is unable to connect to the database on the named instance.
You need to ensure that the application can connect to the named instance.
What should you do?
A. Start the SQL Server Browser Service.
B. Configure the application as data-tiered.
C. Open port 1433 on the Windows firewall on the server.
D. Configure the named SQL Server instance to use an account that is a member of the Domain Admins group.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 instance that contains a database of confidential data.
You need to encrypt the database files at the page level. You also need to encrypt the transaction log files.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You have a consolidated SQL Server instance that contains databases for several applications.
You need to limit the maximum degree of parallelism for an application named App1.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q11-1

Step 1: Enable Resource Governor
The Resource Governor is turned off by default. You can enable the Resource Governor by using either SQL Server
Management Studio or Transact-SQL.
Step 2: Create a resource pool.
In the SQL Server Resource Governor, a resource pool represents a subset of the physical resources of an instance of
the Database Engine.
Step 3: Create a workload group
In the SQL Server Resource Governor, a workload group serves as a container for session requests that have similar
classification criteria. A workload allows for aggregate monitoring of the sessions, and defines policies for the sessions.
Each workload group is in a resource pool, which represents a subset of the physical resources of an instance of
the Database Engine. When a session is started, the Resource Governor classifier assigns the session to a specific
workload group, and the session must run using the policies assigned to the workload group and the resources defined
for the resource pool.
Step 4: Write a classifier function.
The SQL Server resource governor classification process assigns incoming sessions to a workload group based on the
characteristics of the session. You can tailor the classification logic by writing a user-defined function, called a classifier
function.
Incorrect Answers:
Not: Restart SQL Server
The setting takes effect immediately without restarting the server.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/resource-governor/resource-governor

 

QUESTION 12
This question is part of a series of questions that use the same set of answers choices. An answer choice may be
correct for more than one question in the series.
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database server that hosts a transactional database and a reporting database.
The transactional database is updated through a web application and is operational throughout the day. The reporting
database is only updated from the transactional database.
The recovery model and backup schedule are configured as shown in the following table:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q12

One of the hard disk drives that stores the transactional database fails at 23:32 hours. Attempts to create a tail log
backup are unsuccessful.
You need to ensure that the transactional database is restored. You also need to ensure that data loss is minimal.
What should you do?
A. Perform a page restore.
B. Perform a partial restore.
C. Perform a point-in-time restore.
D. Restore the latest full backup.
E. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore the latest differential backup.
F. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore the latest log backup.
G. Restore the latest full backup, and restore the latest differential backup. Then, restore each log backup taken before
the time of failure from the most recent differential backup.
H. Restore the latest full backup. Then, restore each differential backup taken before the time of failure from the most
recent full backup.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/backup-restore/restore-a-sql-server-database-to-a-point-in-time-full-recovery-model?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
You administer two Microsoft SQL Server database servers named ProdSrv1 and ProdSrv2. Each server has a
database named Orders.
You need to configure transactional replication from the OrderSummary table in the Orders database on ProdSrv1 to the
OrderSummary table in the Orders database on ProdSrv2.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-462 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-462 exam question q13-1

Step 1: Configure ProdSrv1 as a Distributor.
Step 2: Configure ProdSrv1 as a Publisher.
Step 3: Configure a publication of the Order-Summary table on ProdSrv1.
Step 4: Create a subscription of the publication in the Orders database on ProdSrv1.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/replication/configure-publishing-and-distribution

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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
An engineer must generate a report of Cisco Unified Communications Manager usage for capacity planning.
Where can this information be obtained within System Reports?
A. precedence call
B. voice usage
C. user usage
D. traffic
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which transport layer protocol is used when a Cisco Unified Presence client is searching for a contact in the directory?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IMAP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer must perform a manual backup of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. Where can
this backup be done?
A. Administration Resources
B. Serviceability
C. OS Administration
D. Disaster Recovery System
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
CUC 10.X supports LDAP integration with several widely used LDAP directories systems, including the following:
A. Microsoft Active Directory 2000, 2003 and 2008 (support for AD 2012 only in CUCM 10.x and later
B. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode 2003
C. Microsoft Lightweight Directory Services 2008
D. iPlanet Directory Server 5.1
E. Sun ONE Directory Server (5.2, 6.x)
F. Open LDAP (2.3.39, 2.4)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which three rules are valid transfer rules in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Standard
B. Alternate
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Nonstandard
Correct Answer: ABC
Standard Transfer Rule This transfer rule applies during the work hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for
your organization, or in other situations when no other transfer rule is enabled. By design, the standard transfer rule
cannot be disabled. Alternate Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule to apply during a specific time period when you
want to override the other transfer rules. For example, you may want to route all your calls directly to voice mail while
you are out of the office or you may want to transfer your calls to a different extension if you are temporarily working
from another location. As long as it is enabled, the alternate transfer rule overrides all other transfer rules. Closed
Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule if you want Cisco Unity to perform different transfer actions during the nonwork
hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for your organization. (For example, you may want to route all your
calls directly to voice mail during nonwork hours.) As long as it is enabled, the closed transfer rule overrides the
standard transfer rule during nonbusiness hours.

 

QUESTION 6
Which protocol is used between two Cisco IP phones once Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express connects a
call?
A. H.323
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. SIP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
What is the act of combing two active conferences via the MCU?
A. cascading
B. neighboring
C. multisite
D. clustering
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with Cisco Jabber clients who are outside the corporate
network?
A. Cisco Extension Mobility
B. Cisco TMS
C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination
D. Cisco Unified RTMT
E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
When creating a hunt group/ring group, where can you change the DN for all the devices at once?
A. Hunt pilot
B. Route pilot
C. Group file
D. Hunt list
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for
this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

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Free test Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two statement about stateless firewalls is true? (Choose two)
A. the Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
B. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packets against configurable rules.
C. They cannot track connections..
D. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS..
E. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is Stateful by nature
Correct Answer: BC
5-tuple is: source/destination IP, ports, and protocols. Stateless firewalls cannot track connections.

 

QUESTION 2
What feature defines a campus area network?
A. It has a single geographic location.
B. It has limited or restricted Internet access.
C. It has a limited number of segments.
D. it lacks external connectivity.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which two characteristics of symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses digital certificates.
B. It uses a public key and a private key to encrypt and decrypt traffic.
C. it requires more resources than asymmetric encryption
D. it is faster than asymmetric encryption
E. It uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the traffic.
Correct Answer: DE
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/secret-key-algorithm

 

QUESTION 4
When is “Deny all” policy an exception in Zone Based Firewall
A. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in same zone
B. traffic sources from router via self zone
C. traffic terminates on router via self zone
D. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in different zones
E. traffic terminates on router via self zone
Correct Answer: A
+
There is a default zone, called the self zone, which is a logical zone. For any packets directed to the router directly (the
destination IP represents the packet is for the router), the router automatically considers that traffic to be entering the
self zone. In addition, any traffic initiated by the router is considered as leaving the self zone.
By default, any traffic to or from the self zone is allowed, but you can change this policy.
+
For the rest of the administrator-created zones, no traffic is allowed between interfaces in different zones.
+
For interfaces that are members of the same zone, all traffic is permitted by default.

 

QUESTION 5
What are two well-known security terms? (Choose Two)
A. Phishing.
B. BPDU guard
C. LACP
D. ransomeware
E. hair-pinning
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which SOURCEFIRE logging action should you choose to record the most detail about a connection.
A. Enable logging at the beginning of the session
B. Enable logging at the end of the session
C. Enable alerts via SNMP to log events off-box
D. Enable eStreamer to log events off-box
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisco ASA is in transparent mode?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Overload
D. Dynamic PAT
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?lead4pass 210-260 exam question q8

A. The two routers receive normal updates from one another
B. It enables authentication
C. It prevents keycham authentication
D. The two devices are able to pass the message digest to one another.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the most common implementation of PAT in a standard networked environment?
A. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network using the outside interface IP address
B. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network by using the inside interface IP address
C. configuring multiple external hosts to join the self-zone and to communicate with one another
D. configuring an any any rule to enable external hosts to communicate inside the network
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which feature filters CoPP packets?
A. Policy maps
B. route maps
C. access control lists
D. class maps
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDos attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which privileged level is … by default? for user exec mode
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
E. 15
Correct Answer: B
User EXEC mode commands are privilege level 1 Privileged EXEC mode and configuration mode commands are
privilege level 15. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/command/reference/fsecur_r/srfpass.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE
“In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains,
which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is
referred to
as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.”
“A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs.”
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_LAN

 

QUESTION 2
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. high-speed packet switching
B. access control
C. firewalling and intrusion prevention
D. QoS marking
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q3

Cisco USC Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?
A. Adjust the Chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting.
B. Verify that air flow through the Chassis correctly.
C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS.
D. Remove the equipment that generates excessive hat near the top of the rack
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)
A. memory extension node
B. hard drive
C. fabric interconnect
D. power supply
E. compute node
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which communication type uses a one-to-many model to replicate packets that are delivered to many interested
recipients?
A. unknown unicast
B. broadcast
C. unicast
D. multicast
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D. NL port
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the feature on the left to the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
What is a function of a conferencing solution?
A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial
number?
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number
B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS- A# show host-id
D. MDS- A# show license host-id
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Which room system can also function as a white board?
A. Spark Board
B. Mx800
C. SX20
D. SX10
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
What is known as the User Policy?
A. Call Policy
B. Authentication
C. Me
D. Admin Policy
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?
A. Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Meeting Server
C. Spark
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: B

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