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Hot Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)

QUESTION 1
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs on a host named Host1.
You configure VM1 to replicate to another host named Host2. Host2 is located in the same physical location as Host1.
You need to add an additional replica of VM1. The replica will be located in a different physical site.
What should you do?
A. From VM1 on Host2, click Extend Replication.
B. On Host1, configure the Hyper-V settings.
C. From VM1 on Host1, click Extend Replication.
D. On Host2, configure the Hyper-V settings.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Extend Replication through UI:
Before you Extend Replication to third site, you need to establish the replication between a primary server and replica server.
Once that is done, go to replica site and from Hyper-V UI manager select the VM for which you want to extend the replication. Right click on VM and select “Replication->Extend Replication …”. This will open Extend Replication Wizard which is similar to Enable Replication Wizard.
NOTE: You configure a server to receive replication with Hyper-V Manager, in this situation the replica site is assumed to be the Replica Server. Therefore you extend replication from VM1 on Host2.
Note 2: With Hyper-V Extend Replication feature in Windows Server 2012 R2, customers can have multiple copies of data to protect them from different outage scenarios. For example, as a customer I might choose to keep my second DR site in the same campus or a few miles away while I want to keep my third copy of data across the continents to give added protection for my workloads. Hyper-V Replica Extend replication exactly addresses this problem by providing one more copy of workload at an extended site apart from replica site.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the domain that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm.
* You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations. Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way.

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter network. 70-412 dumps
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server On a DNS server for the corporate network, open the DNS snap-in.
1. In the console tree, right-click the applicable forward lookup zone, and then click New Host (A).
2. In Name, type only the computer name of the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, type fs for the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) fs.adatum.com).
3. In IP address, type the IP address for the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, 192.168.1.4).
4. Click Add Host.

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012.
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
C. To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration
Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm.
E. Enable seamless second factor authentication
Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added level of access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access them. When a personal device is
Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources.
To enable seamless second factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices.
In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Primary Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Users frequently access the website of an external partner company. The URL of the website is http://partners.adatum.com.
The partner company informs you that it will perform maintenance on its Web server and that the IP addresses of the Web server will change.
After the change is complete, the users on your internal network report that they fail to access the website. However, some users who work from home report that they can access the website.
You need to ensure that your DNS servers can resolve partners.adatum.com to the correct IP address immediately.
What should you do?
A. Run dnscmd and specify the CacheLockingPercent parameter.
B. Run Set-DnsServerGlobalQueryBlockList.
C. Run ipconfig and specify the Renew parameter.
D. Run Set-DnsServerCache.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The Set-DnsServerCache cmdlet modifies cache settings for a Domain Name System (DNS) server.
Run Set-DnsServerCache with the -LockingPercent switch.
/ -LockingPercent<UInt32>
Specifies a percentage of the original Time to Live (TTL) value that caching can consume. Cache locking is configured as a percent value. For example, if the cache locking value is set to 50, the DNS server does not overwrite a cached entry for half of the duration of the TTL. By default, the cache locking percent value is 100. This value means that the DNS server will not overwrite cached entries for the entire duration of the TTL.
Note. A better way would be clear the DNS cache on the DNS server with either Dnscmd /ClearCache (from command prompt), or Clear-DnsServerCache (from Windows PowerShell).
Incorrect:
Not A. You need to use the /config parameter as well:
You can change this value if you like by using the dnscmd command:
dnscmd /Config /CacheLockingPercent<percent>

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1. Server1 has the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature installed.
On Dc1, you configure Windows Firewall to allow all of the necessary inbound ports for IPAM.
On Server1, you open Server Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to ensure that you can use IPAM on Server1 to manage DNS on DC1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the outbound firewall rules on Server1.
B. Modify the inbound firewall rules on Server1.
C. Add Server1 to the Remote Management Users group.
D. Add Server1 to the Event Log Readers group.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
To access configuration data and server event logs, the IPAM server must be a member of the domain IPAM Users Group (IPAMUG). The IPAM server must also be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.
Note: The computer account of the IPAM server must be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.

QUESTION 8
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed.
Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-412 dumps
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You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.com zone only.
What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Secure dynamic updates are only supported or configurable for resource records in zones that are stored in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS).
Note: To modify security for a resource record
Open DNS Manager.
In the console tree, click the applicable zone.
In the details pane, click the record that you want to view.
On the Action menu, click Properties.
On the Security tab, modify the list of member users or groups that are allowed to securely update the applicable record and reset their permissions as needed.

QUESTION 10
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
D. Start-OBRegistration
Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (username and password) created during enrollment. E. The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that includes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect:
Not C. TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to include or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes.

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Useful Microsoft 70-494 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is a loan processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays all loans along with rate information. Lazy loading has been disabled.
The Loan class is shown below.
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You need to return the loans and rate information in a single round trip to the database.
Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that displays a report. The report includes large images that are stored in a database. Members of the EntityClient namespace are used to access the database through the ADO.NET Entity Framework data model.
You need to prevent memory exceptions while generating a report using the EntityDataRcader type.
Which CommandBehavior type should you use?
A. FastForwardReadOnly
B. SequentialAccess
C. SingleResult
D. SingleRow
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
SequentialAccess
Provides a way for the DataReader to handle rows that contain columns with large binary values. Rather than loading the entire row, SequentialAccess enables the DataReader to load data as a stream.

QUESTION 3
You are developing a Microsoft Azure web application. The application will be deployed to 10 web role instances. A minimum of 8 running instances is needed to meet scaling requirements.
You need to configure the application so that upgrades are performed as quickly as possible, but do not violate scaling requirements.
How many upgrade domains should you use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are developing a WCF service.
A new service instance must be created for each client request.
You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instancing mode should you use?
A. Single
B. PerRequest
C. PerCall
D. Multiple
E. PerSession
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are developing a WCF service that compares several data sources. The service takes a long time to complete.
The service must meet the following requirements:
The client must be able to continue processing while the service is running. The service must initiate communication with the client application when processing is complete.
You need to choose a message pattern to meet the requirements.
Which message pattern should you choose?
A. One Way
B. Streaming
C. Duplex
D. Request/Reply
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is an order processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays customers. 70-494 dumps
Customers are filtered on Country and, if provided, on CompanyName.
You have an Entity Framework context named db.
The Customer class is shown below.
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You need to execute a single deferred query to return the filtered list of customers.
Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
REPEATABLE READ
Specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not yet committed by other transactions and that no other transactions can modify data that has been read by the current transaction until the current transaction completes.

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to maintain data integrity in all situations that use transactions.
A. ReadUncommitted
B. Repeatable
C. Serializable
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
Applications can be deployed to remote servers only by administrators who have elevated privileges. The administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2012.
You need to select a deployment tool to deploy the application to remote servers for testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. Copy Web Site Tool
B. One-Click Publish
C. Publish Web Site Tool
D. Web Deployment Package
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production.
The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate.
You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are building an ADO.NET Entity Framework application. You need to validate the conceptual schema definition language (CSDL), store schema definition language (SSDL), and mapping specification language (MSL) files.
Which Entity Data Model tool can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. EDM Generator (EdmGen.exe)
B. ADO.NET Entity Data Model Designer
C. Entity Data Model Wizard
D. Update Model Wizard
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results.
The URI for the API call is in a variable named address.
You need to make the API call without blocking.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Example:
// Create an HttpClient instance
11: HttpClient client = new HttpClient();
12:
13: // Send a request asynchronously continue when complete
14: client.GetAsync(_address).ContinueWith(
15: (requestTask) =>
16: {
17: // Get HTTP response from completed task.
18: HttpResponseMessage response = requestTask.Result;
19:
20: // Check that response was successful or throw exception
21: response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode();
22:
23: // Read response asynchronously as JsonValue and write out top facts for each country
24: response.Content.ReadAsAsync<JsonArray>().ContinueWith(
25: (readTask) =>

QUESTION 13
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to remove a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use? 70-494 dumps
A. PUT
B. DELETE
C. POST
D. GET
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company.
The libraries must be shared across the company.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.
What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

Explanation:

QUESTION 15
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

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2018 New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given cisco switch? (choose two)
A. show interfaces interface
B. show interfaces trunk
C. show interfaces switch port
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interfaces vlan
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201
B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
C. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default
D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)
A. 802.2 Protocol
B. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10BaseT half duplex
D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interface
C. Enable no auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. Err disabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)
A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 8
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? 200-125 dumps (Choose Three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?
A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?
A. Routing
B. Hair pinning
C. Encapsulation
D. Switching
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What does split horizon prevent?
A. routing loops, link state
B. routing loops, distance vector
C. switching loops, STP
D. switching loops, VTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?
A. interface
B. virtual IP address
C. priority
D. router ID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?
A. preempt
B. priority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What to do when the router password was forgotten?
A. use default password cisco to reset
B. access router physically
C. use ssl/vpn
D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?
A. telnet
B. ssh
C. vtp
D. vpn
E. dmvpn
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
How do you configure a hostname?
A. Router(config)#hostname R1
B. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
C. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
200-125 dumps Which technology you will choose to connect multiple sites with secure connections?
A. Point-to-point
B. DMVPN
C. vpn
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp interface
D. Show cdp traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?(choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization iscompued automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables,using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 28
Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse two)
A. 50
B. 1550
C. 150
D. 1250
E. 2050
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
What does split-horizon do?
A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol
B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which statement about vlan operation on cisco catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk,the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table.
B. unkown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
200-125 dumps
A. router# show protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show line
D. router#show interface gig0/1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial Interface?(choose two)
A. PEAP
B. CHAP
C. TACACS+
D. PAP
E. LEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 34
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses.
Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.9.0
B. 172.16.8.0
C. 172.16.31.0
D. 172.16.20.0
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 35
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? 200-125 dumps (Choose two)
A. uses process number
B. neighbor configured directly
C. configured driectly on interface
D. configured globally interface
E. have shutdown feature
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 39
interface fa0/0
ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXX
neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.
A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31
D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which two statements about LLDP are true?(choose two)
A. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices
B. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
C. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
D. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
E. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer
Correct Answer: AE

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Newest Citrix 1Y0-A19 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Free Update (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A customer needs to configure a XenDesktop environment so that an end user has the best experience when launching a virtual desktop. The environment needs to be configured with fault tolerance so that when a XenServer goes down for maintenance the target device can still be deployed by any XenServer with the least load.
Currently, the customer has a XenServer pool consisting of 16 XenServer hosts with 8 GB of memory and a 2 TB SATA hard disk A 2 TB Fibre Channel Storage Area Network is attached to the XenServer. The Provisioning services host is configured on a stand-alone server with 8 GB of memory and three 500 GB SCSI hard disks configured as a RAID 5 configuration. What is the best write caching method for deploying 800 target devices within a XenServer pool?
A. Cache on the target device and redirect to the RAM of the target device.
B. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on the local file system.
C. Cache on the target device and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
D. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In a Provisioning services environment, what is the default location of the write cache if no location is specified manually?
A. RAM of the target device
B. Local drive of the target device
C. A subdirectoryinthe vDisk location
D. A subdirectory in the default Provisioning services installation path
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning a XenDestop 5 Quick Deploy to demonstrate superior end user experience.
What would be considered when planning the Quick Deploy?
A. SQL Sewer 2008 R2 should first be instated and configured on the server that will run the Controller.
B. The SQL Server 2005 database for the XenDesktop site should be located on the same subnet as the Controller.
C. The hypervisor should on the same subnet as the SQL Server 2008 R2 database for the XenDesktop site.
D. SQL Express 2008 R2 should be installed as a prerequisite on the Controller running Microsoft Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company has two sites about 3000 miles apart, one in New York and the other in Los Angeles.
Each site has 1500 users. XenDesktop site access must be available for all the users at both locations.
High availability is required so no single port of failure is acceptable. A minimum of _______XenDesktop Controller(s) and _________Provisioning services host(s) are necessary to support all 3000 users given the requirements. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 1,1
B. 2,2
C. 3,3
D. 4,4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
According to Citrix best practices, which storage type should an administrator use to set up a XenDesktop environment using XenServer?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. NTFS
D. Clustered Shared Volume
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three storage types can XenServer use for the virtual machine disks if migrating virtual machines without downtime is required? (Choose three)
A. CSV
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. Local Disk
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to configure port exceptions to allow the collection of Windows metrics using the Windows Remote Management 2.0 service. 1Y0-A19 dumps Which port must the administrator allow for this environment?
A. 1494
B. 3389
C. 4752
D. 5985
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator configured a master virtual machine and created a pooled catalog with a desktop group. The administrator discovered that antivirus software was not installed on the master virtual machine.
How would the administrator update the image pool to include antivirus software for the pooled desktops with the least amount of administrative effort?
A. Recreate the master virtual machine and install the antivirus software.
B. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, then update the catalog
C. Convert the master virtual machine to a template and install antivirus software on the template.
D. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, take a snapshot of the virtual machine and assign the snapshot to the catalog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When installing XenDesktop5 using the Quick Deploy method, ___________ (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. all of the components must be installed on the same server
B. the master virtual machine must be running on XenServer 5.5 or higher
C. the master virtual machine must be a member of the same domain as the Controller
D. all of the components that need to be installed are the XenDesktop Controller, Desktop Studio and the license server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When too pieces of information must be supplied to install Proponing series and connect to a SQL Express database? (Choose two.)
A. File group
B. Host name
C. Port number
D. Instance name
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
An administrator using a third-party firewall needs to manually reconfigure the firewall to allow port 3389 in order to permit________ (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. HDX communication
B. database communication
C. shadowing through Desktop Director
D. remote assistance through Desktop Studio
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to create a Microsoft Windows 7 template for a XenDesktop environment and has already created a virtual machine with Microsoft Windows 7. Which step must the administrator take next before converting the virtual machine to a template?
A. Restart the virtual machine.
B. Restart the virtual hard disk.
C. Suspend the virtual hard disk.
D. Shut down the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a dedicated desktop to a new user?
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to log on to the appropriate Controller.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash content rendered on session hosts?
A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which user action is prevented by enabling the client clipboard redirection policy?
A. Uploading images from the Internet to a user session
B. Downloading images from the server to a user session
C. Copying and pasting between applications within user sessions
D. Copying and pasting between user sessions and the local machine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An administrator must configure the Web Interface in order to 3II0W users to access applications, virtual desktops and online content by clicking icons on their desktops or start menus. 1Y0-A19 dumps Which Web Interface site must the administrator configure to meet the requirements of this environment?
A. XenAppWeb
B. XenApp Services
C. XenDesktop Web
D. Desktop Appliance
E. XenDesktop Services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that end users can only access their client’s default printer during sessions. The administrator set the Auto-create client printers policy setting to ‘Auto-create the client’s default printer only’.
When additional policy setting must the administrator ensure is set to ‘Allowed’?
A. Default printer
B. Client printer redirection
C. Direct connections to print servers
D. Retained and restored client printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Scenario: An administrator created a catalog for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using Provisioning services. The catalog contains 500 desktop, and a desktop group contains 200 desktops from this catalog.
The Power Time Scheme for this desktop group is set to the default Fifty desk any desktops are in the use.
How many desktops are in the ‘off state?
A. 15
B. 75
C. 135
D. 150
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An administrator is configuring a master image and knows that the end users accessing it will need to useWinZip. Which delivery mechanism should the administrator use to deliver WinZip to the users?
A. Stream WinZip to a XenApp server.
B. Install WinZip on the XenClient image.
C. Host WnZip in a XenApp environment.
D. Install WinZip on the master image locally.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
An administrator needs to ensure that when user desktops are not in use at busy times of the day, they are added back into the idle pool. How should the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Set ‘When logged off’ to ten minutes/shutdown under ‘During peak hour’.
B. Set ‘When disconnected’ to five minutes/suspend under ‘During peak hours’.
C. Set ‘When logged off’ to twenty minutes/shutdown under ‘During off-peak hours’.
D. Set ‘When disconnected’ to fifteen minutes/suspend under ‘During off-peak hours’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which set of steps must be completed to configure a target device to start up from a vDisk?
A. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
B. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
C. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use private image access mode.
D. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use standard image access mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Scenario: All users in the Sales group must be able to save documents created on their virtual desktops to USB devices connected to their local desktops. Some users in the Sales group also belong to the Remote Users group; however, the Remote Users group must not be able to save documents to a local USB device. An administrator created the Sales USB policy, which allows Client USB device redirection for the Sales group, and the Remote Users USB policy, which prohibits Client USB device redirection for the Remote Users group.
Which additional step must the administrator take to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Set the Remote Users USB policy to ‘Disable’.
B. Edit the USB device list on the endpoint device.
C. Ensure that the Sales USB policy has highest priority.
D. Add Client USB device redirection rules to the Sales USB policy.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Scenario: The design for an environment requires that Web Interface is load balanced across multiple servers. An administrator has been asked to figure one master site and to distribute the configuration of that site throughout the Web Interface implementation. Which two steps must the administrator take in order to share the master site’s configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the boot strap configuration file of the other sites to point to the IP address of the master site.
B. Set up file sharing permission to allow access over the network to the configuration folder of the master site
C. Replace the configuration files of the other sites with the master site’s configuration file to ensure they point to the same configuration.
D. Change the setting of the configuration location parameter of the other sites to point to the absolute network path of the master site’s configuration.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Scenario: An administrator configured the Client fixed drives policy setting to allow all end users to access or save files to fixed drives on their devices. Users are still unable to map client fixed drives, and they cannot access the fixed drives manually.
Users are unable to map and access fixed drives on their user devices because _____ and _____. (Choose the two correct phases to complete the sentence.)
A. Asynchronous writes are NOT enabled
B. Client drive letters are NOT being preserved
C. The Client drive redirection policy setting is NOT enabled
D. The Auto connect client drives policy setting in NOT enabled
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 27
Which two terns are needed for an administrator to create a catalog for existing machines in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines available in the datacenter
B. Active Directory computer accounts for the machines
C. Device collections configured to load the vDisk over the network
D. A PrtMs.on.ng services deployment with a vDisk imaged from the master target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two components must an administrator install on a master image that will be used for streamed machines? 1Y0-A19 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Receiver
B. Online plug-in
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
An administrator made changes to a vDisk image and now needs the vDisk to use the original image instead of the updated image.
How could the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Unmount the vDisk, create a copy of the image, apply the rollback file to the copy, remount the vDisk and change the Class and Type of the vDisk
B. Copy the rollback file to the updates folder, use the ‘Schedule Automatic Disk Updates’ option and select ‘Check for incremental updates’ on the server
C. Apply the delta file to the updated image, use the ‘Enable Automatic Update for this vDisk1 option and select ‘Check for automatic updates’ on the save
D. Put the vDisk in Private image mode, change the version numbers back to the original vDisk image version numbers and put the vDisk back in standard image mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which two components does Citrix recommend an administrator install on a master image for optimal application access? (Choose two.)
A. Online plug-in
B. Offline plug-in
C. EdgeSight agent
D. provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: AB

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New Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (13-40)

QUESTION 13
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support only numeric values.
B. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns support only numeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translation patterns support only numeric values.
D. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which type of dial plan implements destinations by using a format that is similar to email addresses?
A. H.323.
B. E.164.
C. DNS.
D. URI.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of I080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?
A. 48
B. 180
C. 720
D. 800
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
The Cisco TelePresence Conductor will not handle conference requests if the administrator username/ password is configured as which of these options?
A. admin/TANDBERG
B. administrator/TANDBERG
C. tandberg/Cisco
D. admin/Cisco
E. cisco/Cisco
F. administrator/Cisco
G. cisco/TANDBERG
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.)
A. direct mode
B. H.225-routed mode
C. H.265-routed mode
D. H.245-routed mode
E. full proxy mode
F. partial proxy mode
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 18
When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default dial peer?
A. ID:3
B. PID:6
C. PID:0
D. PID:4
E. PID:5
F. PID:1
G. PID:2
H. PID:7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. 300-070 dumps Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-5551212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service.
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You are a Voice Engineer working at ABC Company. You are asked to configure Cisco Unified Border Element in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two configurations are required? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a SIP profile with Early Offer support for voice and video calls; insert MTP as needed.
B. Change the SIP trunk security profile to a nonsecure SIP trunk profile.
C. Under the SIP information configuration, set the destination port to 5061.
D. Bind the SIP signaling to the Cisco Unified Border Element interface.
E. Configure dial peers on Cisco Unified Border Element for inbound and outbound calls appropriately.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?
A. call classification
B. call location
C. device pool
D. signaling port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Where do you configure a SIP route pattern?
A. Call Routing andgt; Route/Hunt andgt; SIP Route Pattern
B. System andgt; SIP Route Pattern
C. Call Routing andgt; SIP Route Pattern
D. Advanced Features andgt; SIP Route Pattern
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Where is a Local Route Group configuration applied?
A. In each IP phone
B. In each device pool
C. In each location
D. In each region
E. In each route list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement about traffic policing and shaping is true?
A. Shaping limits traffic rates by dropping, re-marking, or transmitting traffic.
B. Policing involves regulating excessive traffic rates by delaying (that is, buffering) traffic.
C. Traffic policing and shaping help regulate bandwidth usage by limiting the amount of traffic.
D. Traffic policing is more suitable for lower-speed links such as Multilink PPP and Frame Relay, as it buffers excess traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which CUCM default global conference setting should be changed to ensure fraud prevention? 300-070 dumps
A. Advanced Ad Hoc Conference Enabled.
B. Block OffNet to OnNet Transfer.
C. MCU Conference Bridge Custom Layout Index.
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference.
E. Enable Click-to-Conference for Third-Party Applications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?
A. Ad Hoc Conferencing
B. Homogenous Conferencing
C. HeterogeneousConferencing
D. Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
E. Meet-Me Conferencing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. By adding a Cisco Unified CM server to the cluster.
B. By adding a software conference bridge using Conference Bridge Configuration.
C. By installing DSP to a Cisco Unified CM server.
D. By reassigning other media resources to conference resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are three features of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three).
A. Protocol Interworking.
B. Bandwidth Control.
C. Admission Request.
D. Automated Alternate Routing.
E. Address Hiding.
F. Security.
G. Video Integration.
Correct Answer: AFG

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which calling search space has the highest priority?
A. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
B. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
C. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
D. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which pattern does the route pattern \+61278[^-5]59 match?
A. \+61278359001
B. +61278459001
C. 278259001
D. +61278259001
E. +612783559001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3
B. DSCP AF21 value 46, Cos 5
C. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7
D. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which party has a SIP B2BUA role in the call?
A. 172.17.4.100
B. 10.100.4.65 and 172.17.4.100
C. 10.100.4.65
D. None of the parties has a B2BUA role in the call.
E. 10.100.4.68 and 10.100.4.65
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented? 300-070 dumps
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 39
Which groups will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers that are set to use the andlt;Noneandgt; partition?
A. Only users that have the andlt;Noneandgt; partition assigned in their calling search space will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
B. All users will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
C. The andlt;Noneandgt; partition will prevent all users from accessing the Meet-Me conference numbers.
D. Any IP phones with their lines configured in the andlt;Noneandgt; partition will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
Correct Answer: C

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Best IBM certifications I 000-744 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 3
Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 4
When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacityfrom use.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 6
When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 7
What best describes a drive in eplaced status? 000-744 dumps
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 8
When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 9
What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 10
In addition to the storage administrator’s e-mail address, what information do you need to set up e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender’s SMTP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
B. sender’s POP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
C. storage administrator’s POP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
D. storage administrator’s SMTP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 12
Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at different times.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 13
In the exhibit, which management method is being used?

A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 14
You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. 000-744 dumps The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control overdata going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 15
How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 16
To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 17
In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on logical drive” indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 18
When configuring a customer’s multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 19
A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 20
What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Correct Answers: B

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Best Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps exam (1-30) questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two elements that are associated with customer interaction is the Seven Elements Framework used to plan? (Choose two.)
A. general communications
B. high-impact negotiations
C. business concepts
D. prior solutions considered
E. seller\’s authority for pricing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are major tensions that business performance measurement could help balance? (Choose two.)
A. Responsive / non-responsive.
B. Different performance expectations.
C. Profit, growth and control.
D. Critical / non-critical.
E. Monitor and control.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 6
According to research, what is the leading reason that technology projects fail? 810-403 dumps
A. poor stakeholder identification and management
B. lack of budget
C. too many stakeholders
D. lack of a business model canvas
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which is the main outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Organizations want more from their IT solutions which respect to value, time-to-market, and measurable outcomes.
B. Organizations want to improve the chain of value based on the cost of IT solutions they provide.
C. Organizations want to develop marketing and communicational strategies in order to sell more efficiently.
D. Organizations want to offer a renewed portfolio in order to increase share value.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How does an open plan volume licensing model works?
A. It does not specify individual users, so any user can access the service.
B. It provides the organization with an agreed number of users.
C. The costs are directly related to usage, not quantity of users.
D. The enterprise pays as it acquires services.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 11
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 13
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. Advanced Routing
B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which option is most likely to improve interactions with customers?
A. Understand their communication style.
B. Understand the goals of their team.
C. Learn their personal interests.
D. Know the time available to present the solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Related to business outcomes, why are customers looking for Cisco and its Partners\’ solutions and services?
A. To explore how technology innovation yields new revenue, lower costs, or reduce risk in more detail
B. To help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while relying on a human interaction faster
C. To help them more quickly or effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies in which they make investments
D. To allow customers to complete a marketing research as part of their investment funds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When selling business outcomes, which two key factors must be considered in relation to the achievement of the outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. metrics and measurement
B. project management milestones
C. specific timeframe and milestones
D. communication procedures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which two options have a positive impact on costs from the direct benefits provided by?
A. Enabling rapid growth to new markets andamp; geographies
B. Managing technology obsolescence
C. Managing technology innovation
D. Saving OpEx shifting to predicable CapEx
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Which question provides the best information to define customer success factors? 810-403 dumps
A. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
B. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
C. What services do you need?
D. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 23
Which tool is recommended to help identify customer responsibilities in one of their business processes?
A. BMC chart
B. RACE report
C. Agile chart
D. RACI chart
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which option is a key concept of the unique Cisco sales approach?
A. Add as many new Cisco technologies to the solution that meet customer needs.
B. Start driving outcomes for customers, and go beyond selling and implementing technology solutions.
C. Put together the most logical set of services for the customer.
D. Engage in dialog about customer needs and new technologies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What are the phases of the Seven Elements framework?
A. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
B. Past, Present, Future.
C. Previous, Present, Posterior.
D. Before, In Between, After.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 29
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, 810-403 dumps to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are multicast addresses? 200-150 dumps (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
200-150 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
A company has a single subnet in a small office. The administrator wants to limit non-web related traffic to the corporate intranet server as well as prevent abnormal HTTP requests and HTTP protocol anomalies from causing problems with the web server. 200-150 dumps Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Application firewall and NIPS
B. Edge firewall and HIDS
C. ACLs and anti-virus
D. Host firewall and WAF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

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1Y0-351 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site.
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site. 1Y0-351 dumps
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address. 1Y0-351 dumps
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for secured web traffic that does NOT terminate at the NetScaler device.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Source IP
B. Cookie Insert
C. URL Passive
D. SRCIPDESTIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has two sites that host six cache web servers that are used to promote sales information.
Which feature on the NetScaler should an engineer enable to provide faster application performance and also provide additional capacity if the demand increases for one site?
A. Load balancing
B. Integrated Cache
C. Responder Policy
D. Content switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. 1Y0-351 dumps Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B

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1Y0-A20 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to install a XenApp 6.5 server to act as an additional dedicated data collector.
After installing XenApp on the new server, the next step is to configure it by enabling the __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Session-host mode only
B. Controller and Session-host modes
C. data collector and XML Broker host mode
D. data collector and XTE Service host mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp 6.5 farm with one zone. All servers in the zone have identical hardware and software. The zone is configured with a primary data collector with a preference of Most Preferred and a backup data collector with a preference of Preferred. All other XenApp servers in the zone have a preference of Not Preferred.
If both the primary and backup zone data collectors are turned off, the XenApp server in the zone that will be elected the new primary zone data collector is the one __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. with the lowest Host ID number
B. with the highest Host ID number
C. that responds last to the election request
D. that responds first to the election request
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for the new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have more than 100 XenApp servers and 500 published resources, support more than 5,000 concurrent users and have two zones separated by a WAN connection.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 9.7
B. Oracle Enterprise 11.1
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for a new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have multiple zones over WAN connections with low bandwidth and high latency.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express R2
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Scenario: The administrator of a XenApp Enterprise Edition server farm is configuring Single Sign-on for the users of the farm. 1Y0-A20 dumps The Citrix license server was installed with the default vendor daemon and console Web port numbers, but NOT the default license server port number.
Of the port numbers that are in use in the XenApp server farm, which one should the administrator specify for the license server during Single Sign-on configuration?
A. 443
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27009
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: The administrator of a small XenApp server farm has configured end-to-end data encryption between the XenApp servers and user devices by setting up Access Gateway VPX. Session Reliability is enabled in the farm with default settings.
Over which port will published applications be delivered?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Citrix service should an administrator monitor when troubleshooting issues with Session Reliability?
A. IMA
B. XML
C. XTE
D. MFCom
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. Because of the existing network security practices, the administrator has to separate the Citrix license server from the XenApp server farm with a firewall.
Which two ports should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the XenApp servers to contact the Citrix license server? (Choose two.)
A. 2512
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. The administrator needs to manage the Citrix license server, which is located behind a firewall.
Which port should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the administrator to manage the license server?
A. 135
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator recently configured Session Reliability on a XenApp server which delivers one published application to 20 users on the local network.
After configuring Session Reliability, the administrator ran Microsoft TCPView to monitor a service that Session Reliability uses. The administrator notices that users are connecting to the published application on port 443 but NOT on the default Session Reliability port. The administrator verified that Session Reliability is configured and working.
Which two reasons explain why the users are connecting to the published application on port 443? (Choose two.)
A. SSL/TLS is enabled in the published application’s properties.
B. Data encryption has been enabled using the SSL Relay Configuration tool.
C. A policy is enabled to encrypt the session data between the server and user devices.
D. The published application is configured to allow connections made through Access Gateway Advanced Edition.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to ensure that new XenApp servers are automatically added to worker groups. 1Y0-A20 dumps
When creating a worker group, which two options could the administrator select to meet the requirements of the scenario?(Choose two.)
A. Application Folder
B. Local Security Group
C. XenApp Farm Server Group
D. Active Directory Server Group
E. Active Directory Organizational Unit
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp farm that uses Citrix Provisioning Services to automate the addition of XenApp servers to the farm. The administrator must implement a solution to automate the addition of new servers to the published resources, load evaluators, Citrix policies and load balancing policies.
Which two should the administrator configure to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Zones
B. Policies
C. Worker groups
D. Load evaluators
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator is setting up a XenApp farm. There are 15 to 25 users in the farm. To ensure high availability, two servers will be installed. The administrator is deciding on the best placement for the Web Interface server. Remote access is NOT going to be considered at this time.
The administrator should install the Web Interface __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. on both servers
B. on one of the two servers
C. and XenApp on both servers
D. and XenApp on one of the servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In building out a new XenApp environment, an administrator places the Secure Gateway and Web Interface in the DMZ.
What must the administrator do to secure the traffic to the XML Broker?
A. Change the XML traffic port to a non-standard assignment.
B. Use the SSL Relay tool to encrypt traffic to the XML Broker in the farm.
C. Place the XML Broker in the DMZ and encrypt the traffic between them.
D. Use encrypted ICA to communicate between the XML Broker and the Web Interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An administrator is unable to start the IMA Service on a single XenApp server. The administrator suspects another administrator may have changed the contents of the file that holds the connectivity information for the server to the data store server.
Which file should the administrator check to verify the service connectivity information?
A. :\Program Files\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.dsn
B. :\Program Files\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.mdb
C. :\Program Files (x86)\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.dsn
D. :\Program Files (x86)\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.mdb
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Scenario: An administrator is notified that a single XenApp server has an issue with starting the IMA Service. A quick check of all dependent services shows there are NO issues. When the administrator checks the MF20.dsn file using Notepad, the file is unreadable and contains miscellaneous characters. 1Y0-A20 dumps
In order to quickly resolve this issue, the administrator should copy the __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. contents only of a working server’s IMA folder
B. folder and contents from a working server’s IMA folder
C. MF20.dsn file from another server and reinstall XenApp 6.5
D. MF20.dsn file from another server, renaming the hostname of the XenApp Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: Users are receiving the error shown in the attached exhibit when connecting to Notepad on XenApp.
The administrator runs the QUERY FARM command on the server and receives results in the second attached exhibit.
1Y0-A20 dumps
Which configuration component is causing the high application load?
A. An Active Directory group policy
B. A load balancing preference policy
C. A load evaluator applied to the server
D. A load evaluator applied to the application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Users are receiving the error shown in the attached exhibit when connecting to Notepad on XenApp.
1Y0-A20 dumps
The administrator runs the QUERY FARM command on the server and receives the results shown in the second attached exhibit.
Which three events could the server load value of 10,000 indicate? (Choose three.)
A. The server is offline.
B. The server CANNOT contact the Citrix license server.
C. The server has reached its limit of 10,000 running processes.
D. A server load evaluator applied by policy indicates the server is at full load.
E. The particular server has a problem reading performance counter information.
F. The administrator has assigned an invalid load evaluator to the server using a policy.
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 19
Scenario: Users complain that first thing in the morning they receive errors when trying to launch their application and have to re-try many times. At other times of the day, there are NO issues.
What could be causing the morning issue?
A. A load throttling load evaluator is limiting the number of concurrent logons.
B. A scheduling load evaluator is restricting the maximum server load at this time.
C. A server load load evaluator is limiting the number of concurrent users in the farm.
D. An application user load load evaluator is limiting the maximum number of users allowed to run the application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A company recently upgraded all their Citrix licenses from XenApp Enterprise to XenApp Platinum. The Citrix License Server has been correctly updated and configured with the correct Citrix license files. Now users are NOT able to connect.
Which step should the administrator take to allow users to connect again?
A. Restart the server hosting the Citrix data store.
B. Upgrade the Delivery Services Console to the AppCenter.
C. Update the XenApp product edition in the Computer policy.
D. Restart all Citrix servers reporting 20,000 as their current load.
Correct Answer: C

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