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QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft Power BI report. The size of PBIX file is 550 MB. The report is accessed by using an App
workspace in shared capacity of powerbi.com.
The report uses an imported dataset that contains one fact table. The fact table contains 12
million rows. The dataset is scheduled to refresh twice a day at 08:00 and 17:00.
The report is a single page that contains 15 AppSource visuals and 10 default visuals.
Users say that the report is slow to load the visuals when they access and interact with the report.
You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of the report.
What should you recommend?
A. Change any DAX measures to use iterator functions.
B. Replace the default visuals with AppSource visuals.
C. Change the imported dataset to DirectQuery.
D. Remove unused columns from tables in the data model.
Correct Answer: C
DirectQuery: No data is imported or copied into Power BI Desktop. Import: The selected tables and columns are
imported into Power BI Desktop. As you create or interact with a visualization, Power BI Desktop uses the imported
data.
Benefits of using DirectQuery
There are a few benefits to using DirectQuery:
DirectQuery lets you build visualizations over very large datasets, where it would otherwise be unfeasible to first import
all the data with pre-aggregation. Underlying data changes can require a refresh of data. For some reports, the need to
display current data can require large data transfers, making reimporting data unfeasible. By contrast, DirectQuery
reports always use current data. The 1-GB dataset limitation doesn\\’t apply to DirectQuery.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/desktop-use-directquery

QUESTION 2
You publish a Microsoft Power BI dataset to powerbi.com. The dataset appends data from an on-premises Oracle
database and an Azure SQL database by using one query.
You have admin access to the workspace and permission to use an existing On-premises data gateway for which the
Oracle data source is already configured.
You need to ensure that the data is updated every morning. The solution must minimize configuration effort.
Which two actions should you perform when you configure scheduled refresh? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Configure the dataset to use the existing On-premises data gateway.
B. Deploy an On-premises data gateway in personal mode.
C. Set the refresh frequency to Daily.
D. Configure the dataset to use the personal gateway.
Correct Answer: BC
B: The on-premises data gateway acts as a bridge to provide quick and secure data transfer between on-premises data
(data that isn\\’t in the cloud) and several Microsoft cloud services. These cloud services include Power BI.
On-premises data gateway (personal mode) allows one user to connect to sources, and can\\’t be shared with others.
An on-premises data gateway (personal mode) can be used only with Power BI. This gateway is well-suited to scenarios
where you\\’re the only person who creates reports, and you don\\’t need to share any data sources with others.
C: For Power BI users, refreshing data typically means importing data from the original data sources into a dataset,
either based on a refresh schedule or on-demand. You can perform multiple dataset refreshes daily, which might be
necessary if the underlying source data changes frequently.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/refresh-data

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have a table that contains the following three columns:
1.
City
2.
Total Sales
3.
Occupation
You need to create a key influencers visualization as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)microsoft da-100 certification exam q3

How should you configure the visualization? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q3-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q3-2

Box 1: Total Sales Box 2: Occupation Box 3: City You can use Expand By to add fields you want to use for setting the
level of the analysis without looking for new influencers. Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-influencers

QUESTION 4
You have the visual shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)microsoft da-100 certification exam q4

You need to show the relationship between Total Cost and Total Sales over time. What should you do?
A. Add a play axis.
B. Add a slicer for the year.
C. From the Analytics pane, add an Average line.
D. Create a DAX measure that calculates year-over-year growth.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have a Power BI report.
You need to create a calculated table to return the 100 highest-spending customers.
How should you complete the DAX expression? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q5

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q5-1

Box 1: TOPN
TOPN returns the top N rows of the specified table.
Box 2: SUMMARIZE
SUMMARIZE returns a summary table for the requested totals over a set of groups.
Box 3: DESC
Sort in descending order.
It is last in the TOPN command.
TOPN syntax:
TOPN(, , , [[, , []]…])

QUESTION 6
You have multiple dashboards.
You need to ensure that when users browse the available dashboards from powerbi.com, they can see which
dashboards contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII). The solution must minimize configuration effort and impact
on the
dashboard design.
What should you use?
A. comments
B. tiles
C. Microsoft Information Protection sensitivity labels
D. Active Directory groups
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Microsoft Information Protection sensitivity labels provide a simple way for your users to classify critical
content in Power BI without compromising productivity or the ability to collaborate. Sensitivity labels can be applied to
datasets, reports, dashboards, and dataflows.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-security-sensitivity-label-overview

QUESTION 7
Your company has employees in 10 states.
The company recently decided to associate each state to one of the following three regions: East, West, and North.
You have a data model that contains employee information by state. The model does NOT include region information.
You have a report that shows the employees by state.
You need to view the employees by region as quickly as possible.
What should you do?
A. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by the employee.
B. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to List.
C. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to Bin.
D. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by state.
Correct Answer: C
With grouping, you are normally working with dimensional attributes. Here we add three new groups (East, West, and
North) and add each state to the appropriate group.
Reference: https://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/4720/binning-and-grouping-data-with-power-bi/

QUESTION 8
Which two types of visualizations can be used in the balance sheet reports to meet the reporting goals? Each correct
answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a line chart that shows balances by quarter filtered to account categories that are long-term liabilities.
B. a clustered column chart that shows balances by date (x-axis) and account category (legend) without filters.
C. a clustered column chart that shows balances by quarter filtered to account categories that are long-term liabilities.
D. a pie chart that shows balances by account category without filters.
E. a ribbon chart that shows balances by quarter and accounts in the legend.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You publish a report to a workspace named Customer Services. The report identifies customers that have potential data
quality issues that must be investigated by the customer services department of your company.
You need to ensure that customer service managers can create task lists in Microsoft Excel based on the data.
Which report setting should you configure?
A. Don\\’t allow end-user to save filters on this report.
B. Change default visual interaction from cross highlighting to cross-filtering.
C. Enable the updated filter pane and show filters in the visual header for this report.
D. Allow users to add comments to this report.
E. Choose the type of data you allow your end-users to export.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/announcing-persistent-filters-in-the-service/

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard.
You need to ensure that consumers of the dashboard can give you feedback that will be visible to the other consumers
of the dashboard.
What should you use?
A. Feedback
B. Subscribe
C. Comments
D. Mark as favorite
Correct Answer: C
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/consumer/end-user-comment

QUESTION 11
DRAG-DROP
You are using existing reports to build a dashboard that will be viewed frequently in portrait mode on mobile phones.
You need to build the dashboard.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q11

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q11-1

When you view dashboards in portrait mode on a phone, you notice the dashboard tiles are laid out one after another,
all the same size. In the Power BI service, you can create a customized view of a dashboard, specifically for portrait
mode
on phones.
Step 1: Open the Dashboard.
Step 2: Change the dashboard view to Phone view
Step 3: Pin items from the reports to the dashboard.
Step 4: Rearrange, resize, or remove items from the Phone view.
Create a phone view of a dashboard
1.
In the Power BI service, open a dashboard (Step 1)
2.
Select the arrow next to Web view in the upper-right corner > select Phone view. (Step2)
The phone dashboard edit view opens. Here you can unpin, resize, and rearrange tiles to fit the phone view. The web
version of the dashboard doesn\\’t change.
3.
Select a tile to drag, resize, or unpin it. You notice the other tiles move out of the way as you drag a tile. The unpinned
tiles go in the Unpinned tiles pane, where they stay unless you add them back.
4.
If you change your mind, select Reset tiles to put them back in the size and order they were before.
5.
When you\\’re satisfied with the phone dashboard layout, select the arrow next to Phone view in the upper-right corner
> select Web view.

microsoft da-100 certification exam q11-2

Power BI saves the phone layout automatically.

QUESTION 12
DRAG-DROP
You have a query named Customer that imports CSV files from a data lake. The query contains 500 rows as shown in
the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)microsoft da-100 certification exam q12

Each file contains deltas of any new or modified rows from each load to the data lake.
Multiple files can have the same customer ID.
You need to keep only the last modified row for each customer ID.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q12-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft da-100 certification exam q12-2

QUESTION 13
You need to create a visualization that compares revenue and cost over time. Which type of visualization should you
use?
A. stacked area chart
B. donut chart
C. line chart
D. waterfall chart
Correct Answer: C
A line chart or line graph displays the evolution of one or several numeric variables. Data points are connected by
straight line segments. A line chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time? a time series? thus
the line is often drawn chronologically.microsoft da-100 certification exam q13

Reference: https://www.data-to-viz.com/graph/line.html

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QUESTION 1
You provision Azure Sentinel for a new Azure subscription.
You are configuring the Security Events connector.
While creating a new rule from a template in the connector, you decide to generate a new alert for every event.
You create the following rule query. microsoft sc-200 certification exam q1

By which two components can you group alerts into incidents? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. user
B. resource group
C. IP address
D. computer
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You need to create the test rule to meet the Azure Sentinel requirements. What should you do when you create the
rule?
A. From Set rule logic, turn off suppression.
B. From Analytics rule details, configure the tactics.
C. From Set rule logic, map the entities.
D. From Analytics rule details, configure the severity.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/tutorial-detect-threats-custom

QUESTION 3
You plan to create a custom Azure Sentinel query that will provide a visual representation of the security alerts
generated by Azure Security Center.
You need to create a query that will be used to display a bar graph.
What should you include in the query?
A. extend
B. bin
C. count
D. workspace
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/visualize/workbooks-chart-visualizations

QUESTION 4
You plan to create a custom Azure Sentinel query that will track anomalous Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) sign-in
activity and present the activity as a time chart aggregated by day.
You need to create a query that will be used to display the time chart.
What should you include in the query?
A. extend
B. bin
C. makeset
D. workspace
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/logs/get-started-queries

QUESTION 5
The issue for which team can be resolved by using Microsoft Defender for Endpoint?
A. executive
B. sales
C. marketing
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/microsoft-defender-atp/microsoftdefender-atp-ios

QUESTION 6
DRAG-DROP
You have resources in Azure and Google cloud.
You need to ingest Google Cloud Platform (GCP) data into Azure Defender.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft sc-200 certification exam q6

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certification exam q6-1

QUESTION 7
DRAG-DROP
You create a new Azure subscription and start collecting logs for Azure Monitor.
You need to configure Azure Security Center to detect possible threats related to sign-ins from suspicious IP addresses
to Azure virtual machines. The solution must validate the configuration.
Which three actions should you perform in a sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of action
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft sc-200 certification exam q7

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certification exam q7-1

QUESTION 8
You need to visualize Azure Sentinel data and enrich the data by using third-party data sources to identify indicators of
compromise (IoC). What should you use?
A. notebooks in Azure Sentinel
B. Microsoft Cloud App Security
C. Azure Monitor
D. hunting queries in Azure Sentinel
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/notebooks

QUESTION 9
DRAG-DROP
You open the Cloud App Security portal as shown in the following exhibit.microsoft sc-200 certification exam q9

You need to remediate the risk for the Launchpad app.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

microsoft sc-200 certification exam q9-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certification exam q9-2

QUESTION 10
DRAG-DROP
You plan to connect an external solution that will send Common Event Format (CEF) messages to Azure Sentinel.
You need to deploy the log forwarder.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft sc-200 certification exam q10

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certification exam q10-1

QUESTION 11
You have an existing Azure logic app that is used to block Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users. The logic app is
triggered manually.
You deploy Azure Sentinel.
You need to use the existing logic app as a playbook in Azure Sentinel.
What should you do first?
A. And a new scheduled query rule.
B. Add a data connector to Azure Sentinel.
C. Configure a custom Threat Intelligence connector in Azure Sentinel.
D. Modify the trigger in the logic app.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription that has Azure Defender enabled for all supported resource types.
You create an Azure logic app named LA1.
You plan to use LA1 to automatically remediate security risks detected in Azure Security Center.
You need to test LA1 in Security Center.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:microsoft sc-200 certification exam q12

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-200 certification exam q12-1

QUESTION 13
You have the following advanced hunting query in Microsoft 365 Defender.microsoft sc-200 certification exam q13

You need to receive an alert when any process disables System Restore on a device managed by Microsoft Defender
during the last 24 hours.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a detection rule.
B. Create a suppression rule.
C. Add | order by Timestamp to the query.
D. Replace DeviceProcessEvents with DeviceNetworkEvents.
E. Add DeviceId and ReportId to the output of the query.
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/threat-protection/microsoft-defender-atp/customdetection-rules

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Microsoft MB-300 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Microsoft MB-300 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
A company uses Dynamics 365 Finance.
You review business processes and their associated requirements. These work items include bugs, tasks backlog
items, tests, and documents
You need to perform the following tasks:
1.
Track the progress of your implementation project and associate various work items with requirements and business
processes
2.
Identify and publish bug fixes within your normal delivery schedule.
Which tools should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
A company plans to create a global address book and additional address books for each line of business. You need to
help add parties to the address books. What party types can you use for both the global address book and the additional
address books? NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Customer
B. Vendor
C. Person
D. Competitor
E. Organization
Correct Answer: ABD
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-sg/dynamics365/unified-operations/fin-and-ops/organization-administration/overviewglobal-address-book?toc=%2Fdynamics365%2Funified-operations%2Ftalent%2Ftoc.json

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator.
Account managers need to use workspaces to monitor key pieces of data for customers and to navigate to forms for
further actions.
You need to include workspace elements to achieve these needs.
Which design element should you use? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator.
The expense department relies heavily on properly operating workflows. If there is a failure in the workflow, the issue
needs to get resolved quickly.
You need to make sure that the system actively tracks the status, so the support team can monitor and take actions
against any failures.
What should you do? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Set the monitoring category of the Workflow message processing batch job to Workflow.
B. Set the critical job flag of the Workflow message processing batch job to True.
C. Set the Ignore task failure flag of the Workflow message processing batch job to False.
D. Set the batch job named Workflow message processing to send an email when the status of the batch job to
Workflow.
E. Set the priority field of the Workflow message processing batch job to 1.
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
You need to configure the import methods for the sales representatives. What should you do?
A. Create a Microsoft SharePoint list as a data template for use in a Power App for bulk import.
B. Create an Excel template as the data template for use in the Data Management framework.
C. Create a CSV data template for use in the Data Management framework
D. Create an Excel template as the data template for use with the Excel Add-in.
E. Create a pipe-delimited data template for use in the Data Management framework.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
You sign in to Lifecycle Services (LCS).
You need to restart the Internet Information Service (IIS) service in a nonproduction Tier 2 environment.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q6-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/restartenvironmentservices


QUESTION 7
SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF). You need to create a new calendar
named Work Week that will be defined as follows:
1.
Open from Monday to Friday from 09:00 to 17:00
2.
Closed all day Saturday and Sunday
To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal.
Correct Answer: Solution
Solution
You need to create a working time template and a working time calendar. Create the template:
1.
Click Organization administration>; Common>; Calendars>; Working time templates. Click New to create a new line.
2.
On the Overview tab, in the Working time template field, enter an alphanumeric identifier of up to 10 characters.
3.
In the Name field, enter a descriptive name for the template.
4.
Select the tab that corresponds to the day of the week that you want to define working hours for, and click Add to create
a new line.
5.
In the From field, enter the starting time for the day or the period (09:00).
6.
In the To field, enter the ending time for the day or the period (17:00)
7.
Repeat steps 4 through 6 for each day of the week ensuring that Saturday and Sunday are marked as closed then save
the template.
8.
Create the calendar:
9.
Click Organization administration>; Common>; Calendars>; Calendars.
10.On the toolbar, click New to create a new line.
11.In the Calendar field, enter a unique identifier of up to ten characters.
12.In the Name field, enter Work Week.
13.Click Working times, and then click Compose working times to create or update working times for the calendar.
14.In the Calendar field, select the name of the calendar (Work Week) to compose working times for.
15.In the From date field, enter the first date to compose working times for. By default, the field contains the current
date.
16.In the To date field, enter the last date to compose working times for. By default, the field contains a date that is one
year from the current date.
17.In the Working time template field, select the template you created.
18.Click OK.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/create-working-time-templates

 

QUESTION 8
You ate a system administrator using Dynamics 365 Finance You are responsible for reviewing security roles You need
to determine whether rates have been assigned property Which reports should you use? To answer, select the
appropriate report in the answer area NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass mb-300 exam question q8-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/sysadmin/securityreports#security-roleaccess

 

QUESTION 9
SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF). A user named Inga is configured to
approve purchase orders (POs) by using a workflow.
You need to ensure that a user named Alicia can also approve POs by using a workflow. To complete this task, sign in
to the Dynamics 365 portal.
Correct Answer: Solution
Solution
1.
Navigate to the purchase order workflow.
2.
Edit the workflow.
3.
In the Workflow Editor, right-click on the Approval step and select Properties.
4.
Click on Assignment.
5.
Select User then select Alicia from the list of users.
6.
Save and activate the workflow.

 

QUESTION 10
You set up security roles for the users in a company.
You must use standard security roles when possible.
You need to identify the standard security roles.
Which of the following can you assign to a user as a standard security role?
A. Water spider
B. System engineer
C. Developer
D. Business development manager
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A company implements Dynamics 365 for Finance.
They need additional information and want a subledger to record information for additional reporting rather than
customizing all reports.
You need to set up the posting to accommodate the need for a subledger.
Which three actions should you take? Each answer presents part of the solution.
A. Update existing reports to prevent data in the identified area from reporting
B. Create posting profiles to post to the identified area as needed for the request
C. Create posting definitions to post to the identified area as needed for the request
D. Update existing reports to add data in the identified area for reporting
E. Identify an area of the chart of accounts to record as the subledger
Correct Answer: BDE

 

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You are a business process analyst using Dynamics 365 Finance.
You develop business processes for your organization.
You need to review standard business processes from similar industries and make modifications for your organization.
Which business process libraries in Lifecycle Services should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 13
A user with minimal privileges forgets to enter customer payments for the previous 15 days. The user needs to enter all
the payments using a previous date instead of the current date. What should the user do?
A. Change the date of the user session in the session date form.
B. Change the system date on the user\\’s operating system and restart the browser.
C. Change the date of the customer payment journal header.
D. Change the system date of the Application Object Server (AOS) in system administration.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/organizationadministration/tasks/change-date-session

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QUESTION 1
The sales team plans to create printed materials to be handed out each month during on-site visits with clients.
The materials must include client-specific information and statistics from Dynamics 365.
You need to ensure that sales team members can create the materials.
Which technology should you implement?
A. Word template
B. marketing list
C. sales literature
D. Excel template
Correct Answer: B
References: https://crmbook.powerobjects.com/basics/marketing/marketing-lists/

 

QUESTION 2
You are a Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement administrator.
A compliance audit identifies two fields in violation of the corporate information security policy.
You need to control access to high business impact fields to meet information security policies.
What should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate security methods to the correct teams. Each security method
maybe used once, more than once.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/security-concepts

 

QUESTION 3
You create and share a Microsoft Flow button for the Account entity. The button sends a Microsoft Teams meeting
invitation from Dynamics. Which users can view the flow button run history?
A. Each user can only view their run history.
B. System administrators may only view the run history.
C. Only the user who creates the button can view the run history for all users.
D. Every user can view all run history.
E. People with the appropriate role can see all run history.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/flow/share-buttons

 

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator. You install the Gamification solution for Dynamics 365.
Users must be granted the minimum privileges required to perform tasks.
You need to assign minimal security roles to users.
Which security roles should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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You are a Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement system administrator. You have the following security design for a
Parent Business Unit:

 

QUESTION 5
You are the system administrator for Dynamics 365. You add a custom URL field for the Account entity.
You need to make changes to a custom field.
Which four fields can you change after the initial change? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
On a Contact record, a user creates a Note record that contains the word running.
One week later, the user reports that they cannot find the Contact record associated with the Note record.
You need to find the Note record.
Solution: Use Categorized Search to search for the word run.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Only a relevant search can search the text in notes.

 

QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator. An Excel template with a pivot table is created for opportunities by a manager.
When a salesperson opens the Excel template in the My Opportunities view, they observe the following issues:
The salesperson can view information for all salespeople.
The salesperson does not see their current data.
You need to ensure the salesperson can only see their information.
Which Excel PivotTable attributes should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate attributes to the correct settings.
Each attribute may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
A user creates a duplicate account record with an updated email address.
You need to remove the duplicate record and update the primary record with the new email address.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
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References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/basics/merge-duplicate-recordsaccounts-contacts-leads
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QUESTION 9
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You integrate Microsoft OneDrive for Business
with Dynamics 365.
Some users report that they cannot access OneDrive for Business from within Dynamics 365.
You need to troubleshoot the access issue.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Review Microsoft Office 365 Groups configuration.
B. Instruct users to confirm that they can access OneDrive for Business by using a web browser.
C. Review Microsoft account access configuration.
D. Confirm OneDrive for Business privilege settings.
Correct Answer: BC
Make sure their Microsoft accounts are licensed and enabled for OneDrive for Business. Confirm they can access
OneDrive for Business by using a web browser.

 

QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator.
When a customer case is assigned to a new representative, the system must send an email to the customer to alert
them about the change.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 11
You manage a Dynamics 365 environment for a company.
You must prevent users from launching and using Microsoft Flow.
You need to hide the Flows button on the user interface.
Which configuration setting should you change?
A. the Customizations section of System Settings
B. the SiteMap
C. the Buttons tab of Flow
D. the Entity component of the default solution
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.inogic.com/blog/2018/10/show-or-hide-microsoft-flow-button-in-dynamics-365/

 

QUESTION 12
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator. Sales team members record leads in a Microsoft Excel
workbook after conferences. The system must prevent the addition of duplicate leads from the workbooks.
Sales team members must be able to manually create a duplicate lead record.
You need to configure duplicate detection settings.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a duplicate detection job for all active accounts.
B. Set the value of When a record is created or updated to on.
C. Set the value of When a record is created or updated to off.
D. Set the value of Enable duplicate detection to off.
E. Set the value of During import to on.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator for Contoso, Ltd. A user named Elizabeth Rice signs in to
Dynamics 365 by using the following sign in the name: [email protected]
After marriage, Elisabeth changes her legal name to Elisabeth Mueller.
You need to update the sign-in name for the user without losing any application history.
Solution: Ask the Microsoft 365 administrator to sign in to the admin portal and change the user name.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is conducting a server-driven PST migration. The administrator chooses to delete the PST files as part
of the post migration process and runs the PST migration for several pilot users. When starting Outlook, the pilot users
get the warning PST file is missing.
Which setting will prevent the warning?
A. create a Policy Manager initialization file with “DeletePST=True”
B. configure Remove PST entries within the Desktop policy > Advanced tab
C. log in remotely and restart the Outlook client
D. use a group policy to automatically remove the migrated PST files
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
An administrator has edited the ApproachingArchiveQuotaLimit.msg and the ArchiveQuotaLimitReached.msg files in the
C:\Program Files (x86)\Enterprise Vault\Languages\Mailbox Messages\en folder.
Which task should the administrator perform next to ensure users are alerted when their archives are approaching or
have exceeded their quota?
A. copy the edited ApproachingArchiveQuotaLimit.msg and the ArchiveQuotaLimitReached.msg files to the C:\Program
Files (x86)\Enterprise Vault\Languages\Mailbox Messages
B. configure the SMTP endpoint and run the provisioning task
C. copy the edited ApproachingArchiveQuotaLimit.msg and the ArchiveQuotaLimitReached.msg files to the C:\Program
Files (x86)\Enterprise Vault
D. configure Send As permissions on the Exchange server
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
A customer requires different retention categories for items in users\\’ mailbox folders. Which two options could an
administrator use to assign different retention categories to items in the specified folders? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault Archive settings
B. Exchange Mailbox policy
C. Exchange Managed folders
D. Enterprise Vault Policy Manager
E. Enterprise Vault Desktop policy
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 4
Which two Exchange server roles require installation of Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.3 for Exchange extensions to
provide users access to their archived content via Outlook Web Access (OWA) in a mixed Microsoft Exchange 2003 and
2007 environment? (Select two.)
A. Hub Transport Server
B. Front-end Server
C. Back-end Server
D. Mailbox Server
E. Client Access Server
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 5
A single user reports that while working offline his Virtual Vault only shows old items. An investigation reveals that Vault
Cache synchronization is failing. All other Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.3 operations are working normally in the client.
Which troubleshooting option can an administrator use to resolve the issue?
A. perform a manual Synchronization of the mailbox from the Administration console and restart Outlook
B. click the Partial Reset option in Enterprise Vault Diagnostics and restart Outlook
C. deselect the Enterprise Vault Add-in from File > Options > Add-Ins > Manage COM Add- Ins and restart Outlook
D. ZAP the mailbox using an EVPM script and restart Outlook
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
An Enterprise Vault installation fails when it tries to register files. Which action should be taken to solve the problem?
A. Reapply default permissions to the NTFS volume
B. Restart the system and run the installation again
C. Reset the vault service account password
D. Re-run the Deployment Scanner
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which two options can an administrator use to assign retention? (Select two.)
A. Desktop Policies
B. Archive Properties
C. Classification
D. Provisioning Groups
E. Mailbox Policies
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 8
Enterprise Vault servers EVSERVER1 and EVSERVER2 need to be installed as primary and failover node in a cluster
configuration.
Where must the Veritas Enterprise Vault 12.3 application binaries be installed?
A. the installation path must be the same for either node
B. the installation path must be different for either node
C. the installation path must be on the cluster quorum
D. the installation path must be on the system drive
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
What is the main benefit of the Indexing exclusions feature?
A. it allows the administrator to exclude specific email domain items from being indexed
B. it allows the administrator to remove excluded content from previously archived items
C. it reduces the number of false positives in eDiscovery searches by excluding email footers
D. it reduces the number of false positives in eDiscovery searches by excluding listed archives
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
An administrator notices that nothing is being archived during scheduled archiving. However, users are able to archive
manually from Outlook.
What should the administrator check first to ensure items are archived during scheduled archiving?
A. verify the Provisioning task is running
B. verify the Mailbox Archiving task is running
C. verify the Mailbox Archiving task has Report mode unchecked
D. verify “Initially Suspend Archiving” is unchecked in the provisioning group
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Users performing an EVSearch are unable to find items recently moved to their Virtual Vault.
Which Enterprise Vault Policy will speed up the indexing of the items moved to the users Virtual Vault?
A. Exchange Virtual Vault setting > Threshold number of items to trigger synchronization (Exchange Virtual Vault
setting)
B. Exchange Virtual Vault setting > Max total size of items to archive (Exchange Virtual Vault setting)
C. Exchange Virtual Vault setting > Users can archive items
D. Exchange Vault Cache setting > Max Item updates per synchronization
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
The Enterprise Vault server is running out of disk space in a particular index location and the administrator wants to
move some indexes to a new location.
How should the administrator move the indexes?
A. manually move the Index files to the new location > run the “Synchronize” task
B. use the “Index Volumes Browser” and choose the index volume > click the “Move” button
C. run the “Change Location” task > manually copy the Index files to the new location
D. manually move the Index files to the new location > change the path in the IndexServiceEntry table in the EV
directory database
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which two components must be accessible to the target node to perform failover in a Building Block configuration?
(Select two.)
A. Enterprise Vault SQL Databases
B. Enterprise Vault installation directory
C. System State
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Active Directory Database
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
An organization identified a threat in their environment and needs to limit the spread of the threat. How should the SEP
Administrator block the threat using Application and Device Control?
A. Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on specific
arguments
B. Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the file
fingerprint
C. Gather the MD5 hash of the file and create an Application Content Rule that uses regular expression matching
D. Gather the process name of the file and create an Application Content Rule that blocks the file based on the device id
type
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.tech123745.html

 

QUESTION 2
A company receives a high number of reports from users that files being downloaded from internal web servers are
blocked. The Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator verifies that the Automatically trust any file downloaded from
an intranet website option is enabled.
Which configuration can cause Insight to block the files being downloaded from the internal web servers?
A. Intrusion Prevention is disabled.
B. Local intranet zone is configured incorrectly on the Windows client’s browser settings.
C. Local intranet zone is configured incorrectly on the Mac client’s browser settings.
D. Virus and Spyware Definitions are out of date.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

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In the use case displayed in the exhibit.
Why is Notepad unable to save the changes to the file in the image below?
A. Tamper Protection is preventing Notepad from modifying the host file.
B. SONAR is set to block host file modifications.
C. System Lockdown is enabled.
D. SONAR High-Risk detection is set to Block.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Solusell recently deployed SEP 14 in their environment and created the following groups for their computers: Desktops
Laptops Servers
What type of group structure does Solusell use?
A. Role
B. Combination
C. Folder
D. Geography
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.tech134409.html

 

QUESTION 5
A company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) to 50 virtual machines running on a single ESXi host.
Which configuration change can the administrator make to minimize sudden IOPS impact on the ESXi server while each SEP endpoint communicates with the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. increase Download Insight sensitivity level
B. reduce the heartbeat interval
C. increase download randomization window
D. reduce the number of content revisions to keep
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
An organization has a group of 500 SEP for Windows Clients running 12.1 RU5. The organization wants to migrate the
clients to 14 RU1 but must minimize WAN bandwidth usage. What installation method should the organization use?
A. Push Deployment Wizard
B. Clients Install-Package hosted on a local HTTP Server
C. Client Deployment Wizard
D. Auto Upgrade
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
An administrator is recovering from a Symantec Endpoint Manager (SEPM) site failure.
Which file should the administrator use during an install of SEPM to recover the lost environment according to Symantec
Disaster Recovery Best Practice documentation?
A. original installation log
B. recovery_timestamp file
C. settings. properties file
D. Sylink.xml file from the SEPM
Correct Answer: B
References: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.TECH160736.html

 

QUESTION 8
A threat was detected by Auto-Protect on a client system.
Which command can an administrator run to determine whether additional threats exist?
A. Restart Client Computer
B. Update Content and Scan
C. Enable Network Threat Protection
D. Enable Download Insight
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
An administrator is unknowingly trying to connect to a malicious website and download a known threat within a .rar file.
All Symantec Endpoint Protection technologies are installed on the client\\’s system. Drag and drop the technologies to
the right side of the screen in the sequence necessary to block or detect the malicious file.
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QUESTION 10
What steps should an administrator take to utilize Symantec Endpoint Protection in a non-persistent virtual desktop
infrastructure?
A. Setup the base image and configure client logs in the SEPM console
B. Setup the base image and configure a separate purge interval for offline non-persistent VDI clients in the SEPM
console
C. Setup the base image and delete offline clients in the SEPM console
D. Setup the base image and configure the “Delete clients that have not connected for a specified time” setting from the default of 30 to 1 in the SEPM console
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.HOWTO81120.html#v74771361

 

QUESTION 11
Which policy should an administrator modify to enable Virtual Image Exception (VIE) functionality?
A. Host Integrity Policy
B. Virus and Spyware Protection Policy
C. Exceptions Policy
D. Application and Device Control Policy
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.symantec.com/connect/articles/sep-121-virtualization

 

QUESTION 12
An organization created a rule in the Application and Device Control policy to block peer-to-peer applications. What two
other protection technologies can block and log such unauthorized applications? (Choose two.)
A. Memory Exploit Mitigation
B. Virus and Spyware Protection
C. Custom IPS Signatures
D. Host Integrity
E. Firewall
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://support.symantec.com/us/en/article.tech122597.html

QUESTION 13
Which object in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describes the most granular level to which a policy
can be assigned?
A. Group
B. Computer
C. User
D. Client
Correct Answer: A

 

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QUESTION 1
Which are the two characteristics of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.)
A. Improve Application Performance
B. Delivered from the cloud
C. Subscription-based model
D. Provides protection when on the VPN
E. Simple manual installation of hardware
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
What is the interface used to access the Cisco Meraki Dashboard?
A. Cisco IOS command-line interface (CLI)
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. Web browser
D. Terminal (mac) or Command Prompt (Windows)
Correct Answer: C

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What are the two main reasons for deploying small-medium Wi-Fi solutions? (Choose two.)
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B. Simplify deployment for organizations with limited IT staff
C. Need to identify potentially malicious rogue devices or users
D. Provide single pane of glass for routing and switching
E. Separate guest traffic from production traffic at reasonable OpEx.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of
potential threats
B. Limit secure access to a growing set of Cloud applications
C. Cisco delivers a common platform across the network, infrastructure, appliances, and the cloud
D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly
detection and network telemetry
E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate
deployment and unify management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express?
A. mDNS Gateway
B. Guest WLAN enhancements
C. Expert View in the WebUI
D. Schedule WLAN
E. CMX Cloud support
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which device belongs to Business Class Cisco On-Premise Switching Solutions?
A. Cisco Meraki MS 225
B. Cisco Meraki MS 250/350
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960-L
D. Cisco 350X/550X
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which are two major security challenges that occur due to the proliferation of users and applications at the branch?
(Choose two.)
A. Increased threat surface area
B. Increased complexity for mitigation
C. Increased complexity for mobility
D. Increased complexity in Omni-channel experience
E. Increase in threat naivety
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)?
A. 100-120
B. 10-120
C. 1000-1200
D. 10-200
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statement represents increasing sophistication in the security threat landscape?
A. 25% of users spent their work time off the network
B. 85% of intrusions are not discovered for weeks
C. 28% of top security constrains is product compatibility
D. 50B devices connected by 2020 (66% mobile)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is the right approach to achieve secure infrastructure against attack requirements of WAN connectivity?
A. Monitoring application performance
B. Operational simplicity for server infrastructure
C. Simple and agile service deployment model
D. Introduce Advanced Threat Defense solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What are Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Comprehensive
B. Advanced security
C. Enterprise
D. Essential
E. Defended
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
How do Cisco Business-Class SMB switches provide two simplified managements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure Support
B. Limited scalability and hardware choices
C. Uncompromised security enabled by TrustSec and Identify Services Engine (ISE)
D. Standalone Configuration with Web GUI
E. Integrated live tools for fast troubleshooting
Correct Answer: AD

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Latest updates Cisco 700-680 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two features are available in the Cisco Webex Web App? (Choose two.)
A. Webex App only works on desktop devices
B. Has to be re-downloaded every time you attend a meeting
C. Available to Chrome Browsers Only
D. Ability to share screens or specific applications
E. Centralized meeting controls like chat and QandA
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 2
Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid?
A. CCW order
B. Customer Smart Account
C. Product Access Key (PAK)
D. Holding Account
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What are the two management views for Control Hub?
A. Customer and Partner views
B. The customer has two management views
C. Cisco and Salesforce
D. Partner has two management views
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which key benefit of the Webex Teams collaboration is valid?
A. Only the moderator of space is able to use important meeting features
B. Replaces the need for a firewall appliance
C. Webex Teams does not support API\\’s or SDK\\’s
D. Integrates persistent context chats, file sharing, and whiteboarding
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about Cisco Webex Meetings are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Webex limits meetings to 50 people.
B. Webex Meetings and Webex Teams use different cloud engines.
C. Webex Meetings provides only audio.
D. Host and attendees can see up to 25 participants in one full-screen mode.
E. End users have the same experience regardless of which device they choose.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Webex Teams message encryption is valid?
A. Messages are encrypted using the AES-512-GCM cipher
B. Messages are encrypted using the AES-256-GCM cipher
C. Messages are encrypted using the AES-128-GCM cipher D. Messages are encrypted ONLY if they include data
classified as “confidential”
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which description for the Webex Calling app is valid?
A. application for use only in Contact Centers
B. an application for desktop video conferencing only
C. a soft client for calling from a desktop and mobile devices
D. an application for mobile device conferencing only
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which Webex Try and Buy Program benefit is included in the purchase?
A. one (1) year of Webex conferencing at no cost
B. Webex conferencing only
C. Webex conferencing, Webex Teams and Devices
D. Unlimited Webex licenses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter?
A. Webex Edge Connect
B. An Apple iPad
C. Room Kit Plus Connector
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners?
A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders
B. quote and order resale product only
C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers
D. ordering tool for Distributors only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the Collaboration Flex Plan Value Transfer program is valid?
A. is only available for IP Phones
B. provides deeper discounts for Flex Plan deals
C. allows trade-in of eligible perpetual licenses and active Cisco Software Support (SWSS) contracts in exchange for a
purchase credit on Flex Plan
D. provides training credits to the partner when they sell a Flex Plan
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan?
A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams
B. Meetings with Teams
C. Video conferencing only
D. Calling with Teams
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which buying model for Meetings in the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan is valid?
A. Meetings are not available on the Collaboration Flex Plan
B. Named User only
C. Enterprise Agreement only
D. Enterprise Agreement, Active User and Named User
Correct Answer: D

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Selling HPE Hybrid Cloud Solutions | Certification and Learning: https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/datacard/Exam/HPE2-E72

This exam tests your ability to identify potential HPE customers and validate and qualify opportunities by engaging customers
in strategic IT conversations. It tests your ability to uncover business needs and qualify customers for HPE hybrid cloud solutions.

HP HPE2-E72 exam Objectives:

12%– Digital Transformation and Trends

  • Explain the challenges customers face in completing their digital transformation
  • Describe the technologies companies are using to complete their digital transformation
  • Explain how customers are changing the way they pay for IT and consume services to achieve their desired business outcomes

13%– Consultative selling

  • Engage your customers with a value-oriented approach and the business value framework (BVF)
  • Explain why your customers should trust HPE with providing hybrid cloud solutions

25%– Delivering Everything as a Service

  • Use appropriate discovery questions to uncover customer’s needs for HPE GreenLake
  • Identify customer characteristics that indicate an opportunity for HPE GreenLake
  • Describe the value of HPE GreenLake
  • Qualify customers for HPE GreenLake based on their business drivers
  • Identify and overcome barriers and objections by recognizing key differentiators with HPE GreenLake

25%– Delivering a Cloudlike Experience

  • Use appropriate discovery questions to uncover customers’ needs for solutions that deliver a cloudlike experience on-premises
  • Identify customer characteristics that indicate opportunities to sell HPE hybrid cloud solutions
  • Describe the business value of HPE hybrid cloud solutions
  • Qualify customers for HPE software-defined solutions based on their business drivers
  • Identify and overcome barriers and objections by recognizing HPE’s key differentiators in software-defined solutions for Hybrid IT

25%– Delivering an Intelligent Data Platform

  • Use appropriate discovery questions to uncover customers’ needs for intelligent storage
  • Identify customer characteristics that indicate an HPE Intelligent Data Platform opportunity
  • Describe the business value of HPE Intelligent Data Platform
  • Qualify customers for HPE Intelligent Data Platform based on their business drivers
  • Overcome objections by recognizing HPE’s key differentiators for intelligent storage

Latest Updates HP HPE2-E72 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

What is one challenge of implementing machine learning?
A. Biased or inaccurate data can teach the algorithm to behave in undesirable ways.
B. Developers struggle to make decision-makers see the value of machine learning.
C. Few models for artificial intelligence and machine learning exist yet.
D. Companies do not have enough data to implement machine learning.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/newsroom/press-release/2019/09/hpe-accelerates-artificial-intelligenceinnovation-with-enterprise-grade-solution-for-managing-entire-machine-learning-lifecycle.html

QUESTION 2

What issue with public cloud leads some companies to move workloads back on-premises?
A. Limited scalability
B. Time-consuming manual configuration
C. Underutilized resources
D. Lack of control

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/insights/articles/decision-guide-public-cloud-versus-on-prem-storage-1701.html

QUESTION 3

What is one way HPE differentiates itself as a provider of hybrid cloud solutions?
A. HPE enables companies to customize their solutions with a Unified API
B. HPE provides hybrid cloud solutions that integrate with the top two public cloud providers
C. HPE provides development tools for public and private clouds
D. HPE provides a superior public cloud experience and seamless integration with private clouds

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/greenlake.html

QUESTION 4

Which issue is one of the business drivers for HPE GreenLake?
A. Flat growth
B. Increased price competition
C. Inefficient workflows for a line of business
D. Long procurement cycles

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

What is an appropriate discovery question for uncovering a customer\’s need for an HPE composable infrastructure
solution?
A. How much insight do you have into your public cloud spending?
B. What do you understand about APIs and how they work?
C. What are your plans for implementing storage class memory (SCM) now and in the future?
D. What are your plans for automating operations and simplifying management?

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

A customer tells you that their costs for public cloud services fluctuate more than they would like from month to month.
What can you tell the customer about HPE GreenLake?
A. With HPE GreenLake, the costs will be the same every month, so customers can better plan their OpEx spending.
B. HPE GreenLake provides sophisticated metering, which gives customers complete transparency into costs.
C. HPE GreenLake provides significant cost savings over public cloud services so even if the cost fluctuates, it is
lower than what the customer is paying now.

D. With HPE GreenLake, customers are notified if their costs increase more than 5% month over month.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

A customer has a hybrid environment with services deployed on-prem, in Amazon Web Services (AWS), and Microsoft
Azure. The customer needs a storage solution. What is one benefit of HPE that you should explain?
A. HPE SimpliVity gives customers a hook into the cloud with stretched clusters that have a mix of on-prem and cloud nodes.
B. HPE Nimble and Cloud Volumes will let the customers move their data freely around the hybrid environment.
C. HPE Primera includes an embedded cloud catalog that will help customers deploy services and data in their hybrid
environment.

D. HPE 3PAR will help the customer move the data on-prem and eliminate the need for cloud services.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

What is an accurate trend in how companies procure infrastructure?
A. More companies are looking for a pay-as-you-go model, event for on-prem infrastructure.
B. After experimenting with pay-as-you-go in the cloud, more and more customers want to return to a traditional CAPEX
model.
C. Most customers do not have a preference for CAPEX or OPEX as long as they like the solution.
D. Companies are trying to pay for their infrastructure upfront to avoid interest costs.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

You are trying to uncover an opportunity to sell HPE GreenLake to a customer. Which challenges should you discuss as
part of the conversation?
A. Challenges in helping the company manage a lower than the expected growth rate of 2%.
B. Challenges in maintaining security with an IoT network with printers, thermostats, and other devices.
C. Challenges in finding time for IT staff to innovate instead of just handling day-to-day tasks.
D. Challenges in the cultural changes required to embrace the optimization offered by AI.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

You are proposing an HPE Intelligent Data Platform solution to a customer. The customer says: “I\’m actually strongly
considering cloud storage instead. On-prem storage solutions are too slow to deploy and too expensive to scale.” What
is one way that can you overcome this objection?
A. “Sure, your public cloud solution is convenient. But what about orchestrating your infrastructure? In the cloud, it\’s all
siloed.”
B. “Public cloud providers are offering outdated tools to develop apps. Only private cloud environments allow you to
containerize your apps.”
C. “HPE GreenLake offers the same scalability and pay-as-you-go economics of the public cloud but in the safety of an
on-prem environment.”

D. “Public cloud is the right choice, but with HPE\’s public cloud, you\’ll have greater performance and reliability.
There\’s no oversubscription and no downtime.”

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Your mid-sized customer wants to implement an HPE hybrid cloud solution but is worried about the cost. What should
Do you talk about overcoming this objection?
A. The HPE Business Scholarships program offers smaller businesses a chance to earn extra capital and complete
with bigger enterprises.
B. HPE data analytics determine on a daily basis whether the customer is actually financially at-risk or not.
C. On a price-per-unit basis, HPE is the most affordable option in the market.
D. HPE Financial Services helps customers find a way to implement a new solution that is within their budget.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/emea_europe/en/services/financial-services.html

QUESTION 12

Which statement accurately describes HPE Synergy?
A. HPE Synergy provides a single infrastructure that adapts to meet the requirements for any workload.
B. HPE Synergy supports the predictive analytics of HPE InfoSight, enabling IT to determine which compute module to
use for each workload.
C. HPE Synergy supports high-performance computing (HPC) for mission-critical workloads in enterprise environments.
D. HPE Synergy is designed to provide density-optimized storage and compute for the customer\’s most demanding
workloads
.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.hpe.com/us/en/servers/density-optimized.html

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This ATP certification validates a successful candidate has foundational knowledge and skills of the HPE infrastructure strategy,
encompassing SMB server, storage, networking, and management tools and their underlying architecture technologies. Given a set of customer requirements and a solution design, implement the solution.

HP HPE0-V14 exam Objectives:

20% Describe, differentiate, and apply industry-standard, foundational SMB architectures and technologies Identify and explain industry-standard IT technologies used in small and medium-sized solutions and their use cases

20% Recommend and position HPE products, solutions, and appropriate services for use cases Given a use case, recommend the appropriate HPE products, solutions, and services to meet the business requirement

20% Evaluate customer environment, and plan and design solutions using the HPE portfolio to meet customer requirements

  • identify and describe planning, design, and sizing tools and when to use them.
  • Given customer requirements, design an HPE server solution to meet those requirements
  • Given customer requirements, design an HPE storage solution to meet those requirements
  • Given customer requirements, design an HPE network solution to meet those requirements.
  • Given customer requirements, design an end-to-end, small to medium-sized HPE solution to meet those requirements

20% Install, configure, and upgrade HPE solutions and their components and validate the implementation

  • Install physical solution systems including racking, power, and cabling connections
  • Given a solution, configure and validate the server, storage, and/or networking components including integrating subsystems. 

10% – Troubleshoot and remediate HPE solution components

  • Identify the tools and methods to troubleshoot and remediate an HPE solution and when to use each tool and method 
  • Analyze, troubleshoot, and remediate HPE solutions including component integrations (server, storage, and networking)

10% – Manage, monitor, administer, and operate HPE solutions and their components Manage HPE solutions and subsystems to ensure the solution continues to meet customer requirements

Latest Updates HP HPE0-V14 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

A customer is planning to deploy a new Top of Rack solution. They plan to use a stacking technology that meets the
following requirements:
1.
Support for Multi-Chassis Link Aggregation in an active-active mode.
2.
The control plane must not be a single point of failure.
3.
Rapid Fail-over.
4.
Unified Management.
5.
They require a maximum of two switches per stack. Which stacking technology meets the customer\’s requirements?
A. HPE Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)
B. HPE Distributed Trunking
C. Aruba Virtual Switching Extension (VSX)
D. Aruba Virtual Switching Framework (VSF)

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/tg/AVD_Midsize-Campus-Design-Deploy.pdf

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT
A solution integrator is installing new equipment to the rack.
Click the recommended location for HPE R/T3000 Extended Runtime Module.
Hot Area:

newxpass hpe0-v14 q2

Correct Answer:

newxpass hpe0-v14 q2-1

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

newxpass hpe0-v14 q3

A customer needs a server with four 10Gb network adapters. They need it to be configured for the best possible
network throughput. Given the BOM in the exhibit, what do you need to add to this server to meet the customer
requirement?
A. Workload Accelerator
B. SSD Drives
C. Smart Storage Hybrid Capacitor
D. Secondary Riser Kit

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

A customer needs NFS access on a fiber channel array.
What must be included in the solution to meet this requirement?
A. StoreEver
B. Storage File Controller
C. Smart Array Controller
D. StoreOnce RMC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/gethtml.aspx?docname=a00047729enw

QUESTION 5

A customer is planning to deploy a branch office server rack. The environment will have the following requirements:
1.
Single rack with 20 HPE ProLiant DL360 Gen10 Servers.
2.
Each Server will have 6 x 10G SFP+ Ports.
3.
Each Server will have a dedicated iLO port.
4.
The customer requires that only two switches be used.
5.
The customer requires separate control planes. Which switch configuration can meet these requirements?
A. 2 x HPE 5945 Series switch with IRF
B. 2 x Aruba 8325 Series switches with VSX
C. 2 x HPE 5945 Series switches standalone
D. 2 x Aruba 8325 Series switches with backplane stacking.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

newxpass hpe0-v14 q6

A customer has two HPE ProLiant DL380 Gen10 servers running as an Oracle cluster. They are trying to reduce
licensing costs and want to move to the best processor available from the list to minimize licensing costs while still
providing a high level of performance for the Oracle database.
Which DL380 Gen10 processor would you recommend?
A. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8280M
B. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8280
C. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8256
D. Intel Xeon-Platinum 8253

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit.

newxpass hpe0-v14 q7

An administrator connected a hypervisor to interface Ten-GigabitEthernet1/0/1 in a switch. The administrator created
virtual machines in VLAN 10 and 20 on the hypervisor. VLAN 10 is configured to be tagged, and VLAN 20 is configured
to
be untagged on the hypervisor.
The administrator found that all the virtual machines in VLAN 20 can communicate with each other, but not with any
virtual machines on VLAN 20 external to the hypervisor.
Given the output in the exhibit, what should you do to resolve the issue?
A. Permit VLAN 1 on the interface.
B. Configure the PVID of the interface to be VLAN 20.
C. Configure the interface as an access port.
D. Configure the interface as an IRF port.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8

What is the correct cable type to use when connecting a pair of switches using Long Range (LR) Transceivers?
A. Direct Attach Cable (DAC)
B. Twin-Ax
C. Single Mode Fiber
D. Multi-mode Fiber

Correct Answer: C

Single-mode uses a single relatively straight beam of light, transmitted directly through a core of glass (or occasionally
plastic) that\’s usually 50 microns across. Single-mode accommodates large power levels, and is almost exclusively
used for Long Range (LR) applications.
Reference: https://info.hummingbirdnetworks.com/blog/answering-your-frequently-asked-questions-about-different-typesof-10-gigabit-cisco-sfp-units

QUESTION 9

You have configured a port on an HPE FlexFabric 5900 series switch that is connected to a VMware ESXi server to
support multiple VLANs.

newxpass hpe0-v14 q9

Given the configuration above, what should happen to any of the untagged traffic coming from the VMware ESXi host?
A. The untagged traffic with being dropped.
B. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in VLAN 2.
C. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in VLAN 50.
D. The untagged traffic will be transmitted in VLAN 1.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

DRAG DROP
Match each adapter to its characteristic.
Select and Place:

newxpass hpe0-v14 q10

Correct Answer:

newxpass hpe0-v14 q10-1

QUESTION 11

Which backup targets are available from an HPE StoreOnce backup system? (Choose two.)
A. VTL
B. Catalyst
C. NVMe
D. S3
E. iSCSI

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=emr_na-c03824941

QUESTION 12

A customer has a VMware environment with HPE ProLiant servers and Nimble storage. They have been using a
Windows VM to provide file services for their employees.
The customer is experiencing performance issues with the solution due to memory constraints on the virtual
environment.
What could be added to the existing environment that will provide dedicated file services with better performance that
would still utilize the existing storage and backup solutions?
A. HPE StoreEver 30750
B. HPE Storage Performance File Controller
C. HPE StoreEasy 1460 Storage
D. HPE StoreEasy 1650 Expanded Storage

Correct Answer: C

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