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810-403 dumps

Best Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps exam (1-30) questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two elements that are associated with customer interaction is the Seven Elements Framework used to plan? (Choose two.)
A. general communications
B. high-impact negotiations
C. business concepts
D. prior solutions considered
E. seller\’s authority for pricing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are major tensions that business performance measurement could help balance? (Choose two.)
A. Responsive / non-responsive.
B. Different performance expectations.
C. Profit, growth and control.
D. Critical / non-critical.
E. Monitor and control.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 6
According to research, what is the leading reason that technology projects fail? 810-403 dumps
A. poor stakeholder identification and management
B. lack of budget
C. too many stakeholders
D. lack of a business model canvas
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which is the main outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Organizations want more from their IT solutions which respect to value, time-to-market, and measurable outcomes.
B. Organizations want to improve the chain of value based on the cost of IT solutions they provide.
C. Organizations want to develop marketing and communicational strategies in order to sell more efficiently.
D. Organizations want to offer a renewed portfolio in order to increase share value.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How does an open plan volume licensing model works?
A. It does not specify individual users, so any user can access the service.
B. It provides the organization with an agreed number of users.
C. The costs are directly related to usage, not quantity of users.
D. The enterprise pays as it acquires services.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 11
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 13
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. Advanced Routing
B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which option is most likely to improve interactions with customers?
A. Understand their communication style.
B. Understand the goals of their team.
C. Learn their personal interests.
D. Know the time available to present the solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Related to business outcomes, why are customers looking for Cisco and its Partners\’ solutions and services?
A. To explore how technology innovation yields new revenue, lower costs, or reduce risk in more detail
B. To help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while relying on a human interaction faster
C. To help them more quickly or effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies in which they make investments
D. To allow customers to complete a marketing research as part of their investment funds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When selling business outcomes, which two key factors must be considered in relation to the achievement of the outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. metrics and measurement
B. project management milestones
C. specific timeframe and milestones
D. communication procedures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which two options have a positive impact on costs from the direct benefits provided by?
A. Enabling rapid growth to new markets andamp; geographies
B. Managing technology obsolescence
C. Managing technology innovation
D. Saving OpEx shifting to predicable CapEx
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Which question provides the best information to define customer success factors? 810-403 dumps
A. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
B. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
C. What services do you need?
D. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 23
Which tool is recommended to help identify customer responsibilities in one of their business processes?
A. BMC chart
B. RACE report
C. Agile chart
D. RACI chart
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which option is a key concept of the unique Cisco sales approach?
A. Add as many new Cisco technologies to the solution that meet customer needs.
B. Start driving outcomes for customers, and go beyond selling and implementing technology solutions.
C. Put together the most logical set of services for the customer.
D. Engage in dialog about customer needs and new technologies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What are the phases of the Seven Elements framework?
A. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
B. Past, Present, Future.
C. Previous, Present, Posterior.
D. Before, In Between, After.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 29
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, 810-403 dumps to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

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200-150 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are multicast addresses? 200-150 dumps (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
200-150 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
A company has a single subnet in a small office. The administrator wants to limit non-web related traffic to the corporate intranet server as well as prevent abnormal HTTP requests and HTTP protocol anomalies from causing problems with the web server. 200-150 dumps Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Application firewall and NIPS
B. Edge firewall and HIDS
C. ACLs and anti-virus
D. Host firewall and WAF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site.
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site. 1Y0-351 dumps
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address. 1Y0-351 dumps
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for secured web traffic that does NOT terminate at the NetScaler device.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Source IP
B. Cookie Insert
C. URL Passive
D. SRCIPDESTIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has two sites that host six cache web servers that are used to promote sales information.
Which feature on the NetScaler should an engineer enable to provide faster application performance and also provide additional capacity if the demand increases for one site?
A. Load balancing
B. Integrated Cache
C. Responder Policy
D. Content switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. 1Y0-351 dumps Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B

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1Y0-A20 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to install a XenApp 6.5 server to act as an additional dedicated data collector.
After installing XenApp on the new server, the next step is to configure it by enabling the __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Session-host mode only
B. Controller and Session-host modes
C. data collector and XML Broker host mode
D. data collector and XTE Service host mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp 6.5 farm with one zone. All servers in the zone have identical hardware and software. The zone is configured with a primary data collector with a preference of Most Preferred and a backup data collector with a preference of Preferred. All other XenApp servers in the zone have a preference of Not Preferred.
If both the primary and backup zone data collectors are turned off, the XenApp server in the zone that will be elected the new primary zone data collector is the one __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. with the lowest Host ID number
B. with the highest Host ID number
C. that responds last to the election request
D. that responds first to the election request
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for the new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have more than 100 XenApp servers and 500 published resources, support more than 5,000 concurrent users and have two zones separated by a WAN connection.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 9.7
B. Oracle Enterprise 11.1
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for a new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have multiple zones over WAN connections with low bandwidth and high latency.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express R2
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Scenario: The administrator of a XenApp Enterprise Edition server farm is configuring Single Sign-on for the users of the farm. 1Y0-A20 dumps The Citrix license server was installed with the default vendor daemon and console Web port numbers, but NOT the default license server port number.
Of the port numbers that are in use in the XenApp server farm, which one should the administrator specify for the license server during Single Sign-on configuration?
A. 443
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27009
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: The administrator of a small XenApp server farm has configured end-to-end data encryption between the XenApp servers and user devices by setting up Access Gateway VPX. Session Reliability is enabled in the farm with default settings.
Over which port will published applications be delivered?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Citrix service should an administrator monitor when troubleshooting issues with Session Reliability?
A. IMA
B. XML
C. XTE
D. MFCom
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. Because of the existing network security practices, the administrator has to separate the Citrix license server from the XenApp server farm with a firewall.
Which two ports should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the XenApp servers to contact the Citrix license server? (Choose two.)
A. 2512
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. The administrator needs to manage the Citrix license server, which is located behind a firewall.
Which port should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the administrator to manage the license server?
A. 135
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator recently configured Session Reliability on a XenApp server which delivers one published application to 20 users on the local network.
After configuring Session Reliability, the administrator ran Microsoft TCPView to monitor a service that Session Reliability uses. The administrator notices that users are connecting to the published application on port 443 but NOT on the default Session Reliability port. The administrator verified that Session Reliability is configured and working.
Which two reasons explain why the users are connecting to the published application on port 443? (Choose two.)
A. SSL/TLS is enabled in the published application’s properties.
B. Data encryption has been enabled using the SSL Relay Configuration tool.
C. A policy is enabled to encrypt the session data between the server and user devices.
D. The published application is configured to allow connections made through Access Gateway Advanced Edition.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to ensure that new XenApp servers are automatically added to worker groups. 1Y0-A20 dumps
When creating a worker group, which two options could the administrator select to meet the requirements of the scenario?(Choose two.)
A. Application Folder
B. Local Security Group
C. XenApp Farm Server Group
D. Active Directory Server Group
E. Active Directory Organizational Unit
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp farm that uses Citrix Provisioning Services to automate the addition of XenApp servers to the farm. The administrator must implement a solution to automate the addition of new servers to the published resources, load evaluators, Citrix policies and load balancing policies.
Which two should the administrator configure to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Zones
B. Policies
C. Worker groups
D. Load evaluators
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator is setting up a XenApp farm. There are 15 to 25 users in the farm. To ensure high availability, two servers will be installed. The administrator is deciding on the best placement for the Web Interface server. Remote access is NOT going to be considered at this time.
The administrator should install the Web Interface __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. on both servers
B. on one of the two servers
C. and XenApp on both servers
D. and XenApp on one of the servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In building out a new XenApp environment, an administrator places the Secure Gateway and Web Interface in the DMZ.
What must the administrator do to secure the traffic to the XML Broker?
A. Change the XML traffic port to a non-standard assignment.
B. Use the SSL Relay tool to encrypt traffic to the XML Broker in the farm.
C. Place the XML Broker in the DMZ and encrypt the traffic between them.
D. Use encrypted ICA to communicate between the XML Broker and the Web Interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An administrator is unable to start the IMA Service on a single XenApp server. The administrator suspects another administrator may have changed the contents of the file that holds the connectivity information for the server to the data store server.
Which file should the administrator check to verify the service connectivity information?
A. :\Program Files\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.dsn
B. :\Program Files\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.mdb
C. :\Program Files (x86)\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.dsn
D. :\Program Files (x86)\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.mdb
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Scenario: An administrator is notified that a single XenApp server has an issue with starting the IMA Service. A quick check of all dependent services shows there are NO issues. When the administrator checks the MF20.dsn file using Notepad, the file is unreadable and contains miscellaneous characters. 1Y0-A20 dumps
In order to quickly resolve this issue, the administrator should copy the __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. contents only of a working server’s IMA folder
B. folder and contents from a working server’s IMA folder
C. MF20.dsn file from another server and reinstall XenApp 6.5
D. MF20.dsn file from another server, renaming the hostname of the XenApp Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: Users are receiving the error shown in the attached exhibit when connecting to Notepad on XenApp.
The administrator runs the QUERY FARM command on the server and receives results in the second attached exhibit.
1Y0-A20 dumps
Which configuration component is causing the high application load?
A. An Active Directory group policy
B. A load balancing preference policy
C. A load evaluator applied to the server
D. A load evaluator applied to the application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Users are receiving the error shown in the attached exhibit when connecting to Notepad on XenApp.
1Y0-A20 dumps
The administrator runs the QUERY FARM command on the server and receives the results shown in the second attached exhibit.
Which three events could the server load value of 10,000 indicate? (Choose three.)
A. The server is offline.
B. The server CANNOT contact the Citrix license server.
C. The server has reached its limit of 10,000 running processes.
D. A server load evaluator applied by policy indicates the server is at full load.
E. The particular server has a problem reading performance counter information.
F. The administrator has assigned an invalid load evaluator to the server using a policy.
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 19
Scenario: Users complain that first thing in the morning they receive errors when trying to launch their application and have to re-try many times. At other times of the day, there are NO issues.
What could be causing the morning issue?
A. A load throttling load evaluator is limiting the number of concurrent logons.
B. A scheduling load evaluator is restricting the maximum server load at this time.
C. A server load load evaluator is limiting the number of concurrent users in the farm.
D. An application user load load evaluator is limiting the maximum number of users allowed to run the application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A company recently upgraded all their Citrix licenses from XenApp Enterprise to XenApp Platinum. The Citrix License Server has been correctly updated and configured with the correct Citrix license files. Now users are NOT able to connect.
Which step should the administrator take to allow users to connect again?
A. Restart the server hosting the Citrix data store.
B. Upgrade the Delivery Services Console to the AppCenter.
C. Update the XenApp product edition in the Computer policy.
D. Restart all Citrix servers reporting 20,000 as their current load.
Correct Answer: C

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[100% New Questions] Microsoft MCSA 70-410 Dumps Real Exam Answers And Youtube Free Shared

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70-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs on Server1 by using a web browser.
What should you do?
A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers in the L2P.com domain have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed, while domain controllers have Windows Server 2008 R2 installed.
You are then tasked with deploying a new Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller. You are preparing to install the DNS Server role, and enable the global catalog server option.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of Server Manager.
B. You should consider making use of the Active Directory Installation Wizard.
C. You should consider making use of the DHCP Installation Wizard
D. You should consider making use of TS Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain namedL2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing Storage Spaces.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Storage Spaces?
A. Mirroring and parity are optional resilient storage modes of Storage Spaces.
B. Failover clustering is not supported by Storage Spaces.
C. Storage spaces are virtual disks with associated attributes such as a preferred level of resiliency, and thin or fixed provisioning.
D. Storage spaces are a collection of physical disks with associated attributes such as a preferred level of resiliency, and thin or fixed provisioning.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. 70-410 dumps All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing connection security rules.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connection security rules? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Connection security rules allows for traffic to be secured via IPsec.
B. Connection security rules do not allow the traffic through the firewall.
C. Connection security rules are applied to programs or services.
D. Connection security rules are applied between two computers.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing Group Policy preference.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Group Policy preference?
A. It supports applications and operating system features that are not compatible with Group Policy
B. It does not support item-level targeting.
C. It is the same as Group Policy filtering.
D. It does not cause the application or operating system feature to disable the user interface for the settings they configure.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to ensure that when users are connected to the network, they always use local offline files that are cached from Server1.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure?
A. Configure Slow link speed.
B. Turn on economical application of administratively assigned Offline Files.
C. Configure slow-link mode.
D. Enable file synchronization on costed networks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 and has the File Server server role installed.
On Server1, you create a share named Documents. The Share permission for the Documents share is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
The NTFS permission for the Documents share is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
You need to configure the Share and NTFS permissions for the Documents share. The permissions must meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that the members of a group named Group1 can read files and run programs in – Documents. Ensure that the members of Group1 can modify the permissions on their own files in Documents.
– Ensure that the members of Group1 can create folders and files in Documents.
– Minimize the number of permissions assigned to users and groups.
How should you configure the permissions?
To answer, drag the appropriate permission to the correct location. Each permission may be used once, more than once, or not at all. 70-410 dumps You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-410 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 and Server2 run a Server with a GUI installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You remove the Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure feature on Server2. You need to restart Server2. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct statements.
Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-410 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. 70-410 dumps The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
The DHCP clients in Subnet_Tor can connect to the client computers in Subnet_Mtl by using an IP address or a FQDN. You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet_Mtl can connect to client computers in Subnet_Tor by using an IP address only.
You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Mtl
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Tor
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Mtl
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Tor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All of the AppLocker policy settings for the member servers are configured in a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
A member server named Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On Server1, you test a new set of AppLocker policy settings by using a local computer policy. You need to merge the local AppLocker policy settings from Server1 into the AppLocker policy settings of GPO1.
What should you do?
A. From Local Group Policy Editor on Server1, export an .inf file. Import the .inf file by using Group Policy Management Editor.
B. From Server1, run the Set-ApplockerPolicycmdlet.
C. From Local Group Policy Editor on Server1, export an .xml file. Import the .xml file by using Group Policy Management Editor.
D. From Server1, run the New-ApplockerPolicycmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a production Active Directory forest named contoso.com and a test Active Directory forest named contoso.test. A trust relationship does not exist between the forests.
In the contoso.test domain, you create a backup of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
You transfer the backup of GPO1 to a domain controller in the contoso.com domain.
You need to create a GPO in contoso.com based on the settings of GPO1.You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get- GPO cmdlet and the Copy- GPO cmdlet.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the New- GPO cmdlet and the Import- GPO cmdlet.
C. From Group Policy Management, create a new starter GPO.Right-click the new starter GPO, and then click Restore from Backup.
D. From Group Policy Management, right-click the Croup Policy Objects container, and then click Manage Backups.
Correct Answer: B

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[100% New Questions] Microsoft MCSE 70-411 Dumps Exam Training Materials And Study Guides

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70-411 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1.
You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. Security Filtering.
B. WMI Filtering.
C. Block Inheritance.
D. Item-level targeting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
You plan to test Windows Server 2012 R2 by using native-boot virtual hard disks (VHDs).
You have a Windows image file named file1.wim.
You need to add an image of a volume to file1.wim.
What should you do?
A. Run imagex.exe and specify the /append parameter.
B. Run imagex.exe and specify the /export parameter.
C. Run dism.exe and specify the /image parameter.
D. Run dism.exe and specify the /append-image parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have a DNS server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server hosts the zone for contoso.com and is accessible from the Internet. 70-411 dumps
You need to create a DNS record for the Sender Policy Framework (SPF) to list the hosts that are authorized to send email for contoso.com.
Which type of record should you create?
A. mail exchanger (MX)
B. resource record signature (RRSIG)
C. text (TXT)
D. name server (NS)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Director domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have two user accounts named User1 and User2. User1 and User2 are the members of a group named Group1. User1 has the Department value set to Accounting, user2 has the Department value set to Marketing. Both users have the Employee Type value set to Contract Employee.
You create the auditing entry as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-411 dumps
To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibit.
Each correct selection is worth one point.
70-411 dumps
Hot Area:
70-411 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-411 dumps
QUESTION 5
Your network contains four Network Policy Server (NPS) servers named Server1, Server2, Servers, and Server4.
Server1 is configured as a RADIUS proxy that forwards connection requests to a remote RADIUS server group named Group1.
You need to ensure that Server2 and Server3 receive connection requests. Server4 must only receive connection requests if both Server2 and Server3 are unavailable.
How should you configure Group1?
A. Change the Weight of Server4 to 10.
B. Change the Weight of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
C. Change the Priority of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
D. Change the Priority of Server4 to 10.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy Server server role installed.
The domain contains a server named Server2 that is configured for RADIUS accounting.
Server1 is configured as a VPN server and is configured to forward authentication requests to Server2. 70-411 dumps
You need to ensure that only Server2 contains event information about authentication requests from connections to Server1.
Which two nodes should you configure from the Network Policy Server console?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-411 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-411 dumps
QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed.
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?
A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-411 dumps
Server1 has the following role services installed:
– DirectAccess and VPN (RRAS)
– Network Policy Server
Remote users have client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
You need to ensure that only the client computers that run Windows 7 or Windows 8 can establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. A condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
B. A constraint of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
C. a condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
D. A vendor-specific RADIUS attribute of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC1.
You create a global group named RODC_Admins.
You need to provide the members of RODC_Admins with the ability to manage the hardware and the software on R0DC1. The solution must not provide RODC_Admins with the ability to manage Active Directory objects.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Site and Services, configure the Security settings of the RODC1 server object.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADAccountControlcmdlet.
C. From a command prompt, run the dsmgmt local roles command.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the Member Of settings of the RODC1 account.
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco Systems Inc. (GOOG) Management Cisco Cloudy Strategy Conference (Transcript)

Cisco continues to dominate the global exchange and router markets, with the technology giant taking a 51% share of the market as end-user investments rebound.

According to Synergy Research Group’s Q3 data, Cisco currently holds a share of enterprise routers in individual segments, ranging from 63% of enterprise routers to 38% of service provider routers, representing a supply from the first quarter of 2016 The best share of business performance.

The Cisco Spark service offers a wide range of collaboration capabilities including team messaging, voice and video calling, online conferencing, whiteboarding, and a set of application programming interfaces (APIs) for workflow optimization across multiple enterprise applications.
Cisco
Cisco Spark by Orange is being used by global enterprises that want a mobile workspace that can scale from a single seat to a collaborative environment. Michael Burrell, global business director for unified communications at Orange Business Services, told FierceTelecom that more corporate customers are using the service.

Some of the customers already taking advantage of the service include a global mining company that is using Cisco Spark with WebEx and Spark Boards to enable collaboration.

With 24×7 support and seamless integration with existing service management, Cisco Spark enables organizations to reduce costs globally and at the same time increase end-user productivity with free phone numbers and competitive rates at call-back.

As a large supplier, Orange Business Services will provide the customer’s corporate network with the necessary Cisco Spark platform management and integration. Like other providers, Orange Business Services is keen on taking advantage of the growing hybrid cloud trend.
Cisco
The service provider can integrate various functions, including Cisco’s UC solution, integrate video conferencing or cloud connected audio.

Spark supports a wide range of endpoints and integrates with the phone or video as well as the Spark Board (a 55-70 inch screen that can be used as a whiteboard, video or audio conferencing unit).

This network of labs provides a global mix of physical and virtual resources, which is designed to provide a dedicated space for innovation and development. To enable customers to try on the service, Orange has opened 11 Cisco Spark by Orange Open Labs. Initially, the lab will include eight major locations in Europe and Singapore, as well as two locations in the United States.

Customer usage labs integrate collaboration, connectivity, robotics development, and application integration with the Cisco Spark API catalog. The lab provides a real-time software and API development environment between Cisco Spark and third-party applications.
Cisco
Enterprises will be able to develop specific apps leveraging Cisco Spark by Orange APIs and integrate them smoothly into their business processes, maximizing efficiency and resources.

For example, a bank customer can create a robot to extract personal financial documents in secure Spark space. Customers can also create a Spark space for specific customers, with different teams, from sales to marketing and customer service, to documents, chat or video conferencing through an expert.

The lab is the realization of something that’s been promised for a long time in the unified communications and collaboration space, which is communications-enabled business processes, Rather than the process being separate from the collaboration tools and applications, it becomes meshed in the process to improve the output of it.

Reference: https://www.fiercetelecom.com/telecom/orange-business-services-cisco-spark-based-platform-reaches-200k-user-subscriptions

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Business Intelligence
Exam Name: Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-461
Total Questions: 164 Q&As
70-461 dumps
QUESTION 1
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a table named OrderDetail. You discover that the NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID non-clustered index is fragmented. You need to reduce fragmentation.
You need to achieve this goal without taking the index offline. Which Transact-SQL batch should you use?
A. CREATE INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID WITH DROP EXISTING
B. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REORGANIZE
C. ALTER INDEX ALL ON OrderDetail REBUILD
D. ALTER INDEX NCI_OrderDetail_CustomerID ON OrderDetail.CustomerID REBUILD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are a database developer at an independent software vendor. You create stored procedures that contain proprietary code.
You need to protect the code from being viewed by your customers.
Which stored procedure option should you use?
A. ENCRYPTBYKEY
B. ENCRYPTION
C. ENCRYPTBYPASSPHRASE
D. ENCRYPTBYCERT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database is used by two web applications that access a table named Products.
You want to create an object that will prevent the applications from accessing the table directly while still providing access to the required data.
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
• Future modifications to the table definition will not affect the applications’ ability to access data.
• The new object can accommodate data retrieval and data modification.
You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of changes to the existing applications.
What should you create for each application?
A. views
B. table partitions
C. table-valued functions
D. stored procedures
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. 70-461 dumps You create a view from the Orders and OrderDetails tables by using the following definition.
70-461 dumps
You need to improve the performance of the view by persisting data to disk. What should you do?
A. Create an INSTEAD OF trigger on the view.
B. Create an AFTER trigger on the view.
C. Modify the view to use the WITH VIEW_METADATA clause.
D. Create a clustered index on the view.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You develop a stored procedure for a Wholesale glass manufacturing company. The Stored procedure is based combination of the following tables:
70-461 dumps
You observe that the stored procedure returns results very slowly.
You need to improve the execution speed of the stored procedure.
Which cursor type should you use?
A. GLOBAL STATIC
B. LOCAL STATIC READ_ONLY FORWARD_ONLY
C. GLOBAL FORWARD_ONLY
D. LOCAL FAST_FORWARD
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that contains a heap named OrdersHistoncal.
You write the following Transact-SQL query:
INSERT INTO OrdersHistorical
SELECT * FROM CompletedOrders
You need to optimize transaction logging and locking for the statement. Which table hint should you use?
A. HOLDLOCK
B. ROWLOCK
C. XLOCK
D. UPDLOCK
E. TABLOCK
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database that supports a shopping application.
You need to retrieve a list of customers who live in territories that do not have a sales person. 70-461 dumps
Which Transact- SQL query or queries should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> SOME(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
B. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ALL(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
C. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID <> ANY(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
D. SELECT CustomerID FROM Customer
WHERE TerritoryID NOT IN(SELECT TerritoryID FROM Salesperson)
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server database named Sales. The database is 3 terabytes in size. The Sales database is configured as shown in the following table.
70-461 dumps
You discover that Sales_2.ndf is corrupt. You need to recover the corrupted data in the minimum amount of time. What should you do?
A. Perform a file restore.
B. Perform a transaction log restore.
C. Perform a restore from a full backup.
D. Perform a filegroup restore.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database.
You need to create a batch process that meets the following requirements:
• Returns a result set based on supplied parameters.
• Enables the returned result set to perform a join with a table.
Which object should you use?
A. Inline user-defined function
B. Stored procedure
C. Table-valued user-defined function
D. Scalar user-defined function
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You develop a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 server database that supports an application. The application contains a table that has the following definition:
CREATE TABLE Inventory
(ItemID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
ItemsInStore int NOT NULL,
ItemsInWarehouse int NOT NULL)
You need to create a computed column that returns the sum total of the ItemsInStore and ItemsInWarehouse values for each row.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
B. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD ItemsInStore – ItemsInWarehouse = TotalItemss
C. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems = ItemsInStore + ItemsInWarehouse
D. ALTER TABLE Inventory
ADD TotalItems AS SUM(ItemsInStore, ItemslnWarehouse);
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are developing a database that will contain price information. You need to store the prices that include a fixed precision and a scale of six digits. 70-461 dumps Which data type should you use?
A. Float
B. Money
C. Smallmoney
D. Numeric
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database to develop a shopping cart application.
You need to rotate the unique values of the ProductName field of a table-valued expression into multiple columns in the output.
Which Transact-SQL operator should you use?
A. CROSS JOIN
B. CROSS APPLY
C. PIVOT
D. UNPIVOT
Correct Answer: C

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[100% New Questions] Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 Dumps Best Real Exam Answers And Youtube Demo Free Shared

Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps best real exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. New Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the name of Cisco CCNA Security https://www.lead4pass.com/210-260.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Latest Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps pdf training materials and study guides, pass Cisco 210-260 exam test easily at first try.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS? 210-260 dumps
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 6
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9
When a company puts a security policy in place, 210-260 dumps what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

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[100% New Questions] Latest Cisco 300-070 Dumps PDF Practice Questions And Answers Update Youtube Shared

Latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 dumps pdf practice questions and answers update free shared from lead4pass. Get the best useful Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 dumps exam materials and vce youtube demo. “Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNP Collaboration https://www.lead4pass.com/300-070.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Prepare for Cisco 300-070 exam with high quality Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 dumps exam training resources, pass Cisco 300-070 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Exam Code: 300-070
Total Questions: 189 Q&As
300-070 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two types of encoding are available to configure a T1 controller for CAS? (Choose two.)
A. B8SF
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. SF
E. AME
F. ESF
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
What function does the device pool perform?
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which mechanism is often configured on the edges of a network to control the maximum rate of traffic that is sent or received on an interface and to classify the traffic into priority levels or class of service?
A. routing
B. shaping
C. policing
D. access control
E. traffic regulation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold.
B. Media Resource Manager.
C. Media Resource Group.
D. Route list.
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 5
Which three items have a calling search space? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. transcoder
B. gateways
C. phone lines
D. phones
E. partitions
F. AAR groups
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two codecs are required for Cisco WebEx Enabled TelePresence? (Choose two.)
A. G.711 codec for audio
B. H.264 codec for video
C. G.729 codec for audio
D. G.711 or G.729 codec for audio
E. H.263 codec for video
F. H.264 or H.263 codec for video
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed.
Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An organization with a centralized dial plan has user extensions as the last four digits of the external DID number. 300-070 dumps Some users at the head office have overlapping extensions with the users at the branch offices.
Which action fixes this issue without changing user extensions and allowing users to call each other across sites?
A. Use site codes.
B. Use different CSSs for both sites.
C. Place both extensions in different partitions.
D. Change the number of digits in the internal extensions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

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