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Real and effective RedHat EX200 exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Configure a default software repository for your system. One YUM has already provided to configure your system on http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server, and can be used normally. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. Yum-config-manager –add-repo=http://content.example.com/rhel7.0/x86-64/dvd” is to generate a file vim content.example.com_rhel7.0_x86_64_dvd.repo, Add a line gpgcheck=0 Yumcleanall Yumrepolist Almost 4305 packages are right, Wrong Yum Configuration will lead to some following questions cannot be worked out.
QUESTION 2 Configure autofs. Configure the autofs automatically mount to the home directory of LDAP, as required: server.domain11.example.com use NFS to share the home to your system. This file system contains a pre configured home directory of user ldapuserX. Home directory of ldapuserX is: server.domain11.example.com /home/guests/ldapuser Home directory of ldapuserX should automatically mount to the ldapuserX of the local /home/guests Home directory’s write permissions must be available for users ldapuser1’s password is password Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. yum install -y autofs mkdir /home/rehome /etc/auto.master /home/rehome/etc/auto.ldap Keep then exit cp /etc/auto.misc /etc/auto.ldap /etc/auto.ldap ldapuserX -fstype=nfs,rw server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ Keep then exit systemctl start autofs systemctl enable autofs su – ldapuserX// test If the above solutions cannot create files or the command prompt is -bash-4.2$, it maybe exist multi-level directory, this needs to change the server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ to server.domain11.example.com:/home/guests/ ldapuserX. What is multi-level directory? It means there is a directory of ldapuserX under the /home/guests/ldapuserX in the questions. This directory is the real directory.
QUESTION 3 Add admin group and set gid=600 Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. EX200 VCE Dumps | EX200 Practice Test | EX200 Braindumps 2 / 7 https://www.lead4pass.com/EX200.html 2020 Latest lead4pass EX200 PDF and VCE dumps Download # groupadd -g 600 admin
QUESTION 4 Add user: user1, set uid=601 Password: redhat The user\\’s login shell should be non-interactive. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. # useradd -u 601 -s /sbin/nologin user1 # passwd user1 redhat
QUESTION 5 Configure the permissions of /var/tmp/fstab Copy the file /etc/fstab to /var/tmp/fstab. Configure the permissions of /var/tmp/fstab so that: the file /var/tmp/fstab is owned by the root user. the file /var/tmp/fstab belongs to the group root. the file /var/tmp/fstab should not be executable by anyone. the user natasha is able to read and write /var/tmp/fstab. the user harry can neither write nor read /var/tmp/fstab. all other users (current or future) have the ability to read /var/tmp/fstab. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. cp -a /etc/fstab /var/tmp cd /var/tmp ls -l getfacl /var/tmp/fstab chmod ugo-x /var/tmp/fstab [ No need to do this, there won\\’t be execute permission for the file by default] # setfacl -m u:natasha:rw /var/tmp/fstab # setfacl -m u:harry:0 /var/tmp/fstab(zero) [Read permission will be there for all the users, by default. Check it using ls -l /var/tmp/fstab] Verify by [ ls -la /var/tmp/fstab]
QUESTION 6 Who ever creates the files/directories on a data group owner should automatically be in the same group owner as data. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. 1. chmod g+s /data 2. Verify using: ls -ld /data Permission should be like this: drwxrws— 2 root sysadmin 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /data If SGID bit is set on directory then who every users creates the files on directory group owner automatically the owner of parent directory. To set the SGID bit: chmod g+s directory To Remove the SGID bit: chmod g-s directory
QUESTION 7 Configure NTP. Configure NTP service, Synchronize the server time, NTP server: classroom.example.com Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. Configure the client: Yum -y install chrony Vim /etc/chrony.conf Add: server classroom.example.com iburst Start: systemctl enable chronyd systemctl restart chronyd Validate: timedatectl status
QUESTION 8 One Logical Volume named /dev/test0/testvolume1 is created. The initial Size of that disk is 100MB now you required more 200MB. Increase the size of Logical Volume, size should be increase on online. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. lvextend -L+200M /dev/test0/testvolume1 Use lvdisplay /dev/test0/testvolume1) ext2online -d /dev/test0/testvolume1 lvextend command is used the increase the size of Logical Volume. Other command lvresize command also here to resize. And to bring increased size on online we use the ext2online command.
QUESTION 9 One Logical Volume is created named as myvol under vo volume group and is mounted. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 400MB. Make successfully that the size of Logical Volume 200MB without losing any data. The size of logical volume 200MB to 210MB will be acceptable. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. First check the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol Make sure that the filesystem is in a consistent state before reducing: # fsck -f /dev/vo/myvol Now reduce the filesystem by 200MB. # resize2fs /dev/vo/myvol 200M It is now possible to reduce the logical volume. #lvreduce /dev/vo/myvol -L 200M Verify the Size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vo/myvol Verify that the size comes in online or not: df -h
QUESTION 10 Install the appropriate kernel update from http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/updates. The following criteria must also be met: The updated kernel is the default kernel when the system is rebooted The original kernel remains available and bootable on the system Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. ftp server.domain11.example.com Anonymous login ftp> cd /pub/updates ftp> ls ftp> mget kernel* ftp> bye rpm -ivh kernel* vim /etc/grub.conf Check the updatted kernel is the first kernel and the orginal kernel remains available. set default=0 wq!
QUESTION 11 Create a volume group, and set the size is 500M, the size of single PE is 16M. Create logical volume named lv0 in this volume group, set size is 20 PE, make it as ext3 file system, and mounted automatically under data. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. fdisk /dev/vda pvcreate /dev/vda3 vgcreate –s 16M vg0 /dev/vda3 lvcreate –n lv0 –l 20 vg0 mkfs.ext3 /dev/mapper/vg0-lv0 mkdir /data /etc/fstab: /dev/mapper/vg0-lv0 /data ext3 defaults 0 0 mount –a mount | grep data
QUESTION 12 YUM repository has been provided at http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server. Configure your system to use this location as a default repository. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. vim/etc/yum.repos/base.repo [base] name=base baseurl= http://server.domain11.example.com/pub/x86_64/Server gpgcheck=0 enable=1 Save and Exit Use yum list for validation, the configuration is correct if list the package information. If the Yum configuration is not correct then maybe cannot answer the following questions.
QUESTION 13 Make on /archive directory that only the user owner and group owner member can fully access. Correct Answer: Check the anser in explanation. EX200 VCE Dumps | EX200 Practice Test | EX200 Braindumps 5 / 7 https://www.lead4pass.com/EX200.html 2020 Latest lead4pass EX200 PDF and VCE dumps Download chmod 770 /archive Verify using : ls -ld /archive Preview should be like: drwxrwx— 2 root sysuser 4096 Mar 16 18:08 /archive To change the permission on directory we use the chmod command. According to the question that only the owner user (root) and group member (sysuser) can fully access the directory so: chmod 770 /archive
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Real and effective Polycom 1K0-001 exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Does IEEE oversee which of the following? A. ANSI standards B. ISO standards C. 802 LAN groups D. OSI Model E. Bell Standards F. All of the above Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 How is the noise measured? A. Volume B. Distance C. Amplitude D. Impedance Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3 Which of the following audio coding provides a frequency response bandwidth range of 50- 7000Hertz? A. G.711 and G.721 B. G.723.1 and G.729 C. G.721 and G.725 D. G.726 and G.729 E. G.722 and G.722.1 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 What is the audio data rate in bits per second that a G.723.1 and G.729 audio algorithms that use over a network connection? A. greater than 64,000 B. greater than 16,000 C. less than 5,000 D. less than 10,000 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 The scope of the H.225 Standard describes: A. video and audio coders for H.323. B. channel bandwidth sub-division. C. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded and packetized for transport between H.323 equipment on a packet-based network. D. the means by which audio, video, data, and control are associated, coded and channelized for transport between H.320 equipment on a channel network. E. the Coding Operation details for video and audio. F. A and C Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 Which of the following correctly describe training as it applies to Acoustic Echo Cancellers (AEC)? A. Training is a process by which AEC adapts to the room acoustics B. Training is dependent on room AEC related audio components and gain settings. C. Training occurs regardless of the events occurring in a given room and AEC functions will only work if the mute the button is pressed. D. Training requires no input from any microphone signals in a videoconferencing room. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Video Conferencing Terminals that are designed to tolerate Network delay, packets lost, packets out of sequence, and jitter are called________. A. H.321 Terminals B. H.320 Terminals C. H.323 Terminals D. F.150 Terminals E. T.120 Data Transfer ANSI Terminals. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Videoconferencing over IP End Point Systems must use signaling to establish a media channel conference Call Setup. Call Operations are part of what Standard? A. LAP / B B. LAP / D C. H.225/Q.921 D. H.225/H.261 E. H.225/Q.931 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9 Which of the following most accurately defines white balance? A. The number of white pixels that appear in a video frame B. A feature that eliminates noises distributed uniformly over the frequency spectrum C. A feature that splits the signal between the red, green, and blue components to make white D. A feature that adjusts the signal between the red, green, and blue components that yield white video signals. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Muting audio during a connected videoconference is typically performed when you: A. need to move the microphone. B. do not want to hear the other parties. C. needs to move the conference table. D. are listening and your room is very noisy. E. needs to hang up the video call. Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 11 Real-Time Transport Protocol and Real-Time Transport Control Protocol are used to provide: A. Lower Layer Transport of Data Collaboration. B. Lower Layer Transport of Audio and Video. C. Upper Layer Data Packet Sequencing, Timing, and Synchronization for Audio and Video. D. Upper-Layer Packet Loss and Packet Errors Statistics and Corrective Action. E. A and B. F. C and D. G. all of the above. Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 12 Which Network Services speeds are governed by cable length and cable wire gauge? A. Packet Switching B. Integrated Services Digital Network Primary Rate C. D-Channels D. B-channels E. Digital Subscriber Line Services Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13 H.323 Media Gateways require H.323 Terminals, which wish to make calls through the Gateway to ISDN sites, too: A. perform a test with the other H.323 Terminals first B. be registered with the MCU first C. be registered with the Gatekeeper first D. call the Network administrator first E. be using a Gateway Prefix registered on an Active Gatekeeper F. be using a Gatekeeper Prefix defined on the End Point Correct Answer: E
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Latest updates NetApp NS0-159 exam practice questions(1-5)
QUESTION 1 On an All Flash FAS, where is the root parity information located on a node using Advanced Disk Partitioning? A. on a single SSD drive, regardless of RAID type B. on a single SSD partition C. distributed among SSD partitions D. on two SSD drives, regardless of RAID type Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Click the Exhibit button.
You use the commands shown in the exhibit to provision a FlexVol volume and LUN on an AFF A300. The volume shows 40% storage efficiency savings. In which container is the free space returned? A. tree B. aggregate C. RAID group D. LUN Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A storage administrator moves a LUN from one volume to another. In this scenario, what is left behind in the volume? A. clones of the LUN B. LUN geometry settings C. all of the deduplicated blocks from the base LUN D. Snapshot copies of the volume Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 An administrator encountered a ransomware attack that affected the active file system data. They have been creating Snapshot copies on an hourly schedule. They determine that the entire volume needs to be recovered. In this scenario, which command would you use? A. volume snapshot restore B. volume snapshot modify C. volume snapshot create D. volume snapshot delete Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which NetApp tool indicates whether you have applied data protection policies to all volumes? A. OnCommand Unified Manager B. Config Advisor C. Virtual Storage Console D. OnCommand Service Level Manager Correct Answer: A
Latest updates NetApp NS0-182 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 A customer wants you to add a new AFF A700 HA pair to an existing 4-node AFF8080 EX cluster. The existing cluster uses NetApp CN1610 switches for the cluster connection and is using the recommended port count. Which statement is true in this scenario? A. You cannot have more than four nodes with AFF. B. There are not enough ports available on the cluster switch. C. The AFF A700 is not supported with NetApp CN1610 switches/ D. You cannot mix different AFF models in the same cluster. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which tool allows you to create a new FlexGroup volume? A. Cluster Config Builder B. NetAppDocs C. OnCommand System Manager D. OnCommand Unified Manager Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 You are installing a pair of Cisco Nexus 3132Q-V cluster switches and receive several syntax errors when the reference configuration file (RCF) is applied. In this scenario, what are two reasons for these errors? (Choose two.) A. An RCF file for a different version has been loaded. B. The switch was not in maintenance mode. C. The RCF was already applied. D. Cables were not removed before applying the RCF. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 You are configuring a new system with ONTAP 9.5. You created interface groups, VLANs, and a broadcast domain for the new ports on all the nodes of your cluster. During the configuration, you used an MTU value of 1500 for the broadcast domain and 9000 for the physical ports. The customer asks you to enable jumbo frames. What should you do in this scenario? A. Set the MTU option to jumbo frames on the broadcast domain. B. Change the MTU value to 9000 on the ifgroup. C. Set the MTU option to jumbo frames on the ifgroup. D. Change the MTU value to 9000 on the broadcast domain. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 You are performing an automated upgrade of a 2-node cluster. Node-01 upgrades successfully. But during the node-02 upgrade, there is a power outage at the site. When power is restored and the nodes are booted, you receive this message: Warning: The Cluster is in a mixed version state. Update all of the nodes to the same version as soon as possible. In this scenario, which command provides information that will help you understand the problem? A. system node upgrade show-task-status B. system node image package show C. system node upgrade-revert show D. system node image show Correct Answer: B
Response times for NFS clients have increased recently. There have been no changes to the data network. Referring to the exhibit, what would cause the increased response times? A. Inter-Switch Link (ISL) failure B. CPU spike C. disk latency D. QoS policy limit Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 When troubleshooting an I/O module (IOM), which action should you perform before replacing it? A. Swap IOM-A with IOM-B on the shelf. B. Reseat the IOM. C. Reboot the node. D. Power cycle the shelf. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Users are complaining about slow file access. You suspect that the ONTAP cluster is causing the problem. In this scenario, which ONTAP command would help you troubleshoot this problem? A. application show-statistics B. QoS statistics volume latency show C. cluster log-forwarding show D. storage aggregate verify Correct Answer: D
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Latest Update F5 Certification 101 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Which of the following does NOT describe network performance management? A. Updating software on various devices B. Seeing graphs in near real-time C. Visibility into multiple network devices D. Being alerted to an issue as it happens E. Viewing virtual server statistics Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Without creating a user defined region, what is the most specific group a topology record can identify? A. city B. country C. continent D. state/province E. region of country Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which level of parameter assumes the highest precedence in BIG-IP ASM System processing logic? A. Flow B. Object C. Global D. URL Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A top-level DNS zone uses a CNAME record to point to a sub-zone. Which of the following is an example of a subzone? A. www.F5.com/sub B. www.F5.com C. www.gslb.F5.com D. .com E. f5.com Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A web client accesses a web application using what protocol? A. TCP B. XML C. HTML D. HTTP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Why is BIG-IP ASM ideally suited to protect against layer 7 attacks, including HTTP and HTTPS/SSL traffic, when compared to an intrusion prevention system (IPS)? A. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is based on Packet Filtering. B. An IPS doesn\\’t have the visibility into HTTPS traffic. it doesn\\’t understand what applications are in the network. C. An IPS only focus on operating system attacks; it doesn\\’t understand what application are in the network. D. An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn\\’t understand what applications are in the network. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 GTM can load balance to LTM in addition to non-BIG-IP hosts. A. True B. False Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 After editing and saving changes to the configuration file containing virtual servers, what is the immediate result? A. The new configuration is verified and loaded. B. The new configuration is verified not loaded. C. The new configuration is verified. D. The new configuration is loaded but not verified. E. The new configuration is neither verified not loaded. F. The new configuration is verified and loaded if is it syntactically correct. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 9 CORRECT TEXT LTM runs on________F5\\’s proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer) Correct Answer: TMOS
QUESTION 10 What is the main business driver for bringing Enterprise Manager into the network infrastructure? A. Consolidate management of administrator and user accounts B. Consolidate management of licenses C. Consolidate management of SSL certificates D. Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices E. Consolidate management of access policies Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which two can be a part of a pool\\’s definition? (Choose two.) A. rule(s) B. profile(s) C. monitor(s) D. persistence type E. load balancing mode Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 12 What does the BIG-IP_add script do? A. add BIG-IP servers to the wideip.conf file B. add an existing GTM System to a sync group C. synchronize configuration files between BIG-IP Systems D. exchange web certificates and keys between BIG-IP Systems Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which of the following are four of the security benefits of TMOS? (Choose four.) A. It verifies traffic based on antivirus signatures. B. It provides protection against DDoS. C. It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers. D. It supplies guidance for poorly developed applications. E. It denies all traffic that hasn\\’t been defined. F. It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic. Correct Answer: BCEF
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Latest updates HP HP2-H88 exam practice questions(1-5)
QUESTION 1 How does HP meet the “everything as a service” demand of rapid urbanization? A. with HP STS (Smart Technologies Service) B. with HP CSaaS (Cloud Solutions as a Service) C. with HP CPaaS (Computing Power as a Service) D. with HP DaaS (Device as a Service) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 How can you help your worldwide corporate and enterprise customers with stable, consistent images and managed lifecycle transitions? A. Offer a product with global series support. B. Offer a contract for after care. C. Offer a product with a Care Pack. D. Offer installation and recycle services. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA7-5400EEAP.pdf
QUESTION 5 What is true about HP Sure Click? A. It isolates web content in a virtual machine, where malware cannot affect other tabs, applications, or the operating system. B. It helps IT departments develop and maintain policies for supported web browsers. C. It helps IT administrators deploy and maintain security settings across a fleet of PCs. D. It monitors keyboard clicks and adjusts the feel of the keys so that the user has a nice experience using the keyboard on an HP EliteBook. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/getpdf.aspx/4AA7-2638ENW.pdf
Latest updates HP HPE0-S57 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should you recommend? A. Edgeline B. ProLiant DL C. Superdome Flex D. SimpliVity Correct Answer: D Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf
QUESTION 2 A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing environment contains: 1. one Synergy 12000 frame 2. two Composers 3. eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA 4. one D3940 Storage Module The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array. Which components should you include? (Choose two.) A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter B. two QSFP+ AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering C. a second CPU per Compute Module D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8 Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206
QUESTION 3 A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer? A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants. B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing. C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants. D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf
QUESTION 4 A customer needs to manage the power of their Apollo servers. The server racks provide only basic PDU capability. Which Management tool will meet the customer\\’s need? A. HPE Apollo Platform Manager B. HPE Insight Cluster Management Utility C. HPE Power Advisor D. HPE OneView Correct Answer: B Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=a00074645en_us
QUESTION 5 A customer has the following design requirements: 1. Support for 16Gb Fibre Channel 2. All SAN elements must be managed by the SAN team 3. All SAN elements need to be managed by the existing tools Which component must be included in the design to meet the customer\\’s requirements? A. HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy B. HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy C. HPE Synergy 8Gb FC License Upgrade D. Brocade 16Gb Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy Correct Answer: D Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04790440.pdf
Latest updates HP HPE2-W02 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 Your customer uses Aruba Central and ClearPass in their Aruba-powered campus network. The company is rapidly deploying branches and the CIO wants to ensure enterprise scalability for these networks without having to spend extra money on management. Which aspect of the Aruba Branch Gateway should you emphasize for this customer? A. smart rate ports for future-proofing B. routing through the data center for better security C. machine learning and AI-powered security assurance D. single policy enforcement point at branches Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What correctly describes the addressable market for SD-WAN and the opportunity that it presents? A. While the SD-WAN market experienced rapid growth over the past 5 years, the market is now slowing down and experiencing a small reduction in growth. B. While the SD-WAN market is much smaller than the campus switching and WLAN market in absolute value, the SDWAN market is growing more rapidly. C. The SD-WAN market is experiencing slow growth at rates comparable to the campus and switching market as a whole, and it should peak in the next 5 years. D. The SD-WAN market is experiencing very rapid growth and will overtake the campus switching and WLAN markets in absolute value within the next 2 years. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which customer is a good target for an Aruba SD-Branch solution? A. an enterprise that needs to add one large branch over MPLS B. a retailer that needs to support a large number of small branch sites C. a university that needs to provide VPN access for faculty at home D. a small to medium business (SMB) that needs a simple solution to add a branch. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/wp/WP_SDBranchOverview.pdf
QUESTION 4 Which customer statement indicates that you have an ideal opportunity for selling an Aruba mobile engagement solution? A. “Airports are known for being a hassle, but we want to change this. We would like to give travelers a way to find parking, navigate to their gate on a map, and find deals.” B. “We want to use technology to accelerate student learning, but to achieve this we need a network that gives priority handling to collaboration and multi-media apps.” C. “We are a fast paced game design company, but developers have been complaining about unresponsive applications, and we think that a slow network is to blame.” D. “Our business is ever-expanding and we have added so many new mobile devices and so much wireless equipment that our admins cannot keep track of them. We need a way to simplify management.” Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What is one key way that Aruba IntroSpect enhances security for a customer network? A. It enforces role-based policies to ensure the right users connect to the right resources. B. It provides an enhanced guest portal with user identification and tracking features. C. It inspects all traffic and ensures that sensitive data is securely encrypted. D. It ties security alerts to the user or device identify associated with the alert. Correct Answer: C
Latest HP Aruba Certified Mobility Associate (ACMA) V8 HPE6-A42 exam List
Latest updates HP HPE6-A42 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 An Aruba solution has a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security. How are encryption keys dynamically managed for the wireless users? A. The MM generates and distributes keys to clients and access points (APs). B. Administrators configure identical key strings on the Mobility Controllers (MCs) and wireless client 802.1X settings. C. Keys are generated and distributed securely during each wireless user authentication process. D. Keys are derived from the preshared key configured on the WLAN and on each wireless client. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A WLAN in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution enforces Enterprise-WPA2 security and uses the tunnel forwarding mode. The company has an external RADIUS server. Which device exchanges RADIUS packets with the RADIUS server? A. Mobility Controller (MC) B. wireless client C. access point (AP) D. Mobility Master (MM) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A company has an Aruba solution. The company wants to support a guest WLAN with the internal captive portal, but the company also wants to develop their own custom portal pages. What correctly describes the level of customization that the internal captive portal supports? A. The internal captive portal must use the default pages without modification, but administrators can upload pages developed externally. B. Administrators can modify the default internal captive portal pages, but cannot upload pages developped externally. C. Administrators can modify the default internal captive portal pages or upload pages developped externally. D. The internal captive portal must use the default pages without modification, and administrators cannot upload pages developped externally. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Network administrators use the wizard to create a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security to a RADIUS server at 10.21.98.55. They do not manually change any settings. Which device determines the EAP type that the wireless clients must support? A. Mobility Master (MM) B. Mobility Controller (MC) C. RADIUS server D. AP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 What are two criteria that distinguish different Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) models from each other? A. firewall speed and ability to act as a standalone controller or not B. number of supported users and firewall throughput C. number of supported APs and ability to support 802.11ac APs or not D. number of supported users and ability to support 802.11ac APs or not Correct Answer: B
Latest updates HP HPE6-A47 exam practice questions (1-5)
QUESTION 1 A customer needs a solution to terminate VPN tunnels for Aruba RAPs. The customer has a single site and a single public IP address for this purpose. Network address translation (NAT) will forward the IPsec traffic to the correct device to terminate the VPN tunnel. The customer also requires N+1 redundancy for the solution. Which solution meets the customer requirements? A. two Aruba MCs on the same subnet that use VRRP without clustering B. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 3 cluster C. two Aruba MCs on different subnets that use VRRP without clustering D. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 2 cluster Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 A customer needs a networking solution that supports their Microsoft Skype for Business Unified Communications (UC) solution. The architect plans to use multiple Aruba APs, switches, and controllers. The customer wants real time statistics and assessment of call quality. Which component should the architect include to provide these services? A. Aruba AirWare B. Aruba Central C. Aruba Mobility Master (MM) D. Aruba ClearPass Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An architect proposes an Aruba solution with a hardware Mobility Master (MM) to a customer. The customer has a disaster recovery site which is connected to the main site at Layer 3. The customer requires the MM to remain available in case of a total site failure. Which plan meets the customer requirements? A. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set up VRRP between them. B. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set its IP address as the standby master for MCs. C. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and set the VMM IP address to the same address as the hardware MM. D. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and configure clustering on the hardware and software appliances. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 An architect needs to plan a wireless deployment. The architect conducts a physical walkthrough, but still needs more information. Which significant RF obstacle can be difficult to see visually and might require access to blueprints? A. fiberglass B. metal firewall C. ceiling tiles D. drywall Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.
An architect needs to plan a network solution for a new office building with four floors. Each floor has two wiring closets with the equipment shown in the exhibit. The switches will connect to employee desktops, a few campus APs controlled by MCs, and printers. The switches do not implement tunneled node. What is a best practice design for the VLANs and subnets for the wired devices? A. one VLAN per closet and a /24 subnet for each VLAN B. one VLAN per closet and a /25 subnet for each VLAN C. one VLAN for the entire building and a /23 subnet D. one VLAN per floor and a /24 subnet for each VLAN Correct Answer: B
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Tips and practical test questions and answers for getting EMC exam certification (E20-065 exam, E20-393 exam, E20-555 exam)(First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass EMC expert.) You can get free EMC exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/emc.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!
Latest updates EMC E20-065 exam practice questions(1-10)
QUESTION 1 What are the major components of the YARN architecture? A. ResourceManager and NodeManager B. Task Tracker and NameNode C. HDFS, Tez, and Spark D. Avro, ZooKeeper, and HDFS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What best describes tokenization? A. Adding lexical relations to the raw text B. Converting text into the list of terms C. Converting text into a list of unique terms D. Reducing variant forms of tokens to their base forms Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 In which step in the visualization lifecycle would you determine how the raw data is stored? A. Visualization Planning B. Data Preparation C. Visualization Building D. Discovery Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is NOT a category of a NoSQL data store? A. Columnar B. Document C. Key/Value D. Flat File Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What is a property of a good color model for ordinal data? A. Uses a rainbow-like color map for distinction of categories B. Uses a rainbow-like color map for ease of display and printing C. Uses perceptually ordinal colors with just-noticeable increments D. Uses perceptually ordinal colors with linear, perceptual increments Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 What is a characteristic of lemmatization? A. Can be performed by calling the synset () function on a lemma in LNTK B. Can be performed by calling the lemma() function on a synset in LNTK C. Reduces words of variant forms to their base forms based on a set of heuristics D. Reduces words of variant forms to their base forms based on a dictionary Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A data engineer is asked to process several large datasets using MapReduce. Upon initial inspection the engineer realizes that there are complex interdependencies between the datasets. Why is this a problem? A. MapReduce works best on unstructured data B. There is no problem; MapReduce accommodates all the data C. MapReduce can only parse one file at a time. D. MapReduce is not ideal when the processing of one dataset depends on another. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 What are two visualization tools used for trivariate data? A. Scatter plot matrix B. Hexbin plot and heatmap C. Scatter plot matrix and density plot D. Scatter plot matrix and heatmap Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 A marketing team creates a graph using a square for each data point, where the length of each side is set to the data value. The data values are 10 and 20. What is the lie factor of the graph? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which Hadoop Files System shell command copies data from a local file system into HDFS? A. rm B. cp C. put D. get Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which Unity service task is used to reinstall the root operating system while leaving the user\\’s data intact? A. Restore the Management server B. Reimage the Storage Processor C. Restore the Management software D. Reinitialize the storage system Correct Answer: B Re-image a storage processor (SP) to safely fix problems with the system software that could not be resolved by rebooting the SP. Re-imaging analyzes the system software for errors and attempts to correct them instantly. Re-image an SP from the Service System page. Your configuration settings and stored files will not be changed. References: https://community.emc.com/docs/DOC-40315
QUESTION 8 Which Unity feature supports provisioning within vCenter, provides full visibility to physical storage, and increases management efficiency? A. VSI B. ODX C. ESI D. VAAI Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 When creating a new LUN on a Dell EMC Unity array using Unisphere, what is the default setting of the Data Reduction feature? A. OFF for thick LUNs and ON for thin LUNs B. ON for thick LUNs and OFF for thin LUNs C. ON for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool D. OFF for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A storage administrator configured a Hybrid Dell EMC Unity XT storage system using one default port containing three disk types. They need additional Flash capacity. What is the correct way to expand the pool? A. Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash 4 drives to the pool B. Add 2 SAS Flash drives to the FAST Cache C. Add 1 SAS Flash drive to the pool D. Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash drives to the pool Correct Answer: A
Latest updates EMC E20-555 exam practice questions (1-10)
QUESTION 1 An Isilon has two ports configured per node. Each port is on a different VLAN. Although incoming traffic is evenly distributed, transmitted data from the Isilon uses one port more than the other port. What could be the cause of this imbalance? A. Static routes are configured on the less-used port B. A default gateway was not configured on both ports C. Source Based Routing is not enabled on the cluster D. Priority of the gateway in the less-used port set too low Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What is the sector size of an Isilon 8 TB drive? A. 512 bytes B. 1024 bytes C. 2048 bytes D. 4096 bytes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor\\’s offering. They currently have 100TB of usable capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years, which will require them to lease additional space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI and TCO to be important decision criteria. Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer? A. Isilon\\’s OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID based NAS solutions. B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other competitors. C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance may degrade. D. Isilon\\’s OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than competitive offerings. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source broadcast media files for playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed that there are no network or playback system issues. Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues? A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced D. Enable Level 2 Caching Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Your customer\\’s site uses an old X-Series cluster, and they are interested in consolidating their two primary workflows. iostat shows that one of the applications is sensitive to latency, while isi statistics indicates sensitivity to disk response times. There are approximately 1000 users accessing 70 TB of file data. Which node type would you recommend? A. S200 B. X400 C. X200 D. NL400 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 How many file systems are present in a 20-node Isilon X200 cluster? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 If business objectives such as value and SLAs are considered, which Isilon license feature provides the ability to manage performance and the cost of data in a cluster? A. SmartPools B. SmartConnect C. SyncIQ D. SmartQuota Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which license is a prerequisite for enabling CloudPools? A. SmartPools B. FilePools C. DiskPools D. NodePools Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A customer wants to use their large Gen 6 Isilon cluster for ILM. All of their data is written to and read from a single file pool. They need to use multiple file pools, so slightly used data is stored on less expensive, large disks. Heavily used data is stored on a faster tier. What would satisfy the customer\\’s needs? A. Configure SmartPools Advanced B. Add an A-series node with SmartPools license C. Enable FAST VP license on each node pair D. Install SmartPools license on the cluster Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Your customer manages a print media environment, consisting of three Isilon clusters, which are out of support. The customer would like to have access to new software releases and feature sets. You have been asked to perform a full discovery of the customer\\’s environment. The customer\\’s current Isilon clusters are as follows: “Cust” (12 x 12000X) serves as upload media storage for different tenants. “Working” (8 x 12000X + 6 x X200) serves as a working zone for extraction to RAW and printing media from it. “Archive” (16 x 72NL + Accelerator nodes) is used to store printed content for six months. The customer operates in a Windows environment using SMB 2.0, two DNS servers per AD forest, three forest domains which are servicing three different environments. All servers are operating on a 1Gb network, three VLANs segregating the DEV/QA/PROD environments. Currently, there is no monitoring in place for performance measurement or optimization. The requirements for this solution include: Better ROI and TCO Maintain same performance with possible improvements Renew HW/SW and get inclusive support Limit migrations Reduce space, power, cooling consumption Get new feature sets If migration required, use Parallel copy (multiple nodes, multiple threads, multiple connections) Segregate tenant shares from other tenants Expand up to 1PB of total storage What would you recommend be done to consolidate the three clusters into one? A. • Expand the largest and most I/O intensive cluster using SmartFail • Consolidate the remaining two clusters using Multithreaded version of RoboCopy • Modify A-Record and propagate to all DNS servers to point to the new cluster B. • Leave the clusters as is • Upgrade drive sizes to meet the customer requirements C. • Expand the largest and most I/O intensive cluster using SmartFail • Consolidate the remaining two clusters using SyncIQ D. • Build a new cluster for consolidation • Use SnapshotIQ to migrate the existing data onto the new consolidated cluster • Spoof DNS to point to the new cluster Correct Answer: C
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Which website has the newest dumps for the CCNA R&S (200-125) Cisco exam? Newxpass shares the latest and effective Cisco 200-125 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 200-125 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 200-125 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html (1316 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!
QUESTION 2 RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.
After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem? A. incorrect bandwidth configuration B. incorrect LMI configuration C. incorrect map statement D. incorrect IP address Correct Answer: C First we have to say this is an unclear question and it is wrong. The “frame-relay map ip” statement is correct thus none of the four answers above is correct. But we guess there is a typo in the output. Maybe the “ip address 172.16.100.2 255.255.0.0 command should be “ip address 172.16.100.1 255.255.0.0. That makes answer C correct.
QUESTION 3 Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.) A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension. B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge. C. Thesystem ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095. D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension. E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4 In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.) A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length. B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field. D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers. F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5 In which two ways can you prevent recursive routing in a tunneled environment? (Choose two) A. Configure routes through the tunnel with a lower metric than other routes. B. Configure route filtering to prevent the tunnel endpoints from learning each other through the tunnel. C. Enable QoS on the link. D. Configure routes through the tunnel with a higher metric than other routes. E. configure GRE keepalives on the tunnel interface. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem? A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers. B. The passwords do not match on the two routers. C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface. D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0. E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other. Correct Answer: B With CHAP authentication, the configured passwords must be identical on each router. Here, it is configured as little123 on one side and big123 on the other.
QUESTION 7 which two types of information are held in the mac address table ? A. destination ip addresses B. protocols C. port numbers D. mac address E. source ip address Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe? A. the operation of VTP B. a method of VLAN trunking C. an approach to wireless LAN communication D. the process for root bridge selection E. VLAN pruning Correct Answer: B A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame. The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices. Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.
QUESTION 9 In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? A. when a network device fails to forward packets B. when you require ROMMON access C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations E. when the control plane fails to respond Correct Answer: AB
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two) A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface C. The interface is error -disabled. D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11 Which statement about static routes is true? A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions. B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address. C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed. Correct Answer: D Static routing can be used to define an exit point from a router when no other routes are available or necessary. This is called a default route.
QUESTION 12 Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1 Correct Answer: D An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. The leading 0\\’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.
QUESTION 13 Based on the network shown in the graphic
Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem? A. routing loops, hold down timers B. switching loops, split horizon C. routing loops, split horizon D. switching loops, VTP E. routing loops, STP F. switching loops, STP Correct Answer: F The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
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Where can I get the Microsoft 98-365 Best Practice Test? NewxPass shares the latest and effective Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-365 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Microsoft exam experts update 98-365 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 98-365 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/98-365.html (400 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Understanding server installation (10–15%)
Understanding server roles (25–30%)
Understanding Active Directory (20–25%)
Understanding storage (10–15%)
Understanding server performance management (10–15%)
Understanding server maintenance (15–20%)
Who should take this exam?
Candidates for this exam are familiar with the concepts and the technologies of Windows Server administration. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, account management, and system recovery tools and concepts.
Latest updates Microsoft 98-365 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 In an Active Directory infrastructure, the group policies are applied in a particular order. Rearrange the levels in the correct order in which the group policies are applied. Select and Place:
In an Active Directory infrastructure, the group policies are applied in the following order: 1. Local Level 2. Site Level 3. Domain Level 4. Organizational Unit (OU) Level If a Group Policy setting is configured at the site, domain, or OU level and that setting contradicts a setting configured at the local policy level, the local policy setting will be overridden.
QUESTION 2 Which of the following is true about drivers and Windows Server 2016? A. Drivers must be signed. B. Drivers must be registered by the PnP Society. C. Drivers must include 32-bit and 64-bit support. D. Drivers must be multilingual. Correct Answer: A Drivers included on the Windows installation DVD or downloaded from Microsoft\\’s update website are digitally signed. A driver that lacks a valid digital signature or was altered after it was signed cannot be installed on 64-bit versions of Windows. If you have problems with a device driver, download only drivers that are from Microsoft\\’s update website or the manufacturer\\’s website.
QUESTION 3 HOTSPOT Your network is configured as an Active Directory Domain Services domain. You have two domain controllers running Windows Server 2016. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
There are three different types of Active Directory domain groups (which does not include local groups): Universal, Global, Domain Local
QUESTION 4 Which technology is designed to help teams collaborate? A. Microsoft SharePoint Server B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager C. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager D. Microsoft BizTalk Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The University Chess Club has a single Windows Server 2016 server. The server has 12 GB of RAM and 1TB of disk space on a RAID 5 array. Using this server, you need to install two separate instances of Windows Server 2016: one to act as a web server and one to act as a database server. Which Windows Server 2016 role or feature provides this capability? A. Windows Deployment Services B. Hyper-V C. Windows System Resource Manager D. Windows Internal Database Correct Answer: B Hyper-V can create virtual machines on x86-64 systems. Starting with Windows 8, Hyper-V supersedes Windows Virtual PC as the hardware virtualization component of the client editions of Windows NT. A server computer running Hyper-V can be configured to expose individual virtual machines to one or more networks.
QUESTION 6 Which task can you accomplish by using Organizational Units? A. Apply shared folder permissions to users B. Place different domains in a centralized manageable environment C. Create a secondary Active Directory D. Logically represent a hierarchical structure of your company Correct Answer: D A particularly useful type of directory object contained within domains is the organizational unit. Organizational units are Active Directory containers into which you can place users, groups, computers, and other organizational units. An organizational unit cannot contain objects from other domains. An organizational unit is the smallest scope or unit to which you can assign Group Policy settings or delegate administrative authority. Using organizational units, you can create containers within a domain that represent the hierarchical, logical structures within your organization.
QUESTION 7 You need to access resources located in another forest. Which should you create? A. Child domain B. Distribution group C. Trust D. Organizational unit Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which of the following is an application protocol for querying and modifying data using directory services running over TCP/IP? A. Kerberos B. SNMP C. UDP D. LDAP Correct Answer: D The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a standard protocol, which provides access to the directory. It also provides a common language for LDAP clients and servers to communicate with each other. The LDAP is commonly used as standard in the industry. By using a directory service such as LDAP, information existing in multiple systems and formats can be brought at one place. LDAP is an application protocol for querying and modifying data using directory services running over TCP/IP. Incorrect Answers: A: Kerberos is a secure protocol that supports ticketing authentication. A ticket is granted in response to a client computer authentication request by the Kerberos authentication server, if the request contains valid user credentials and a valid Service Principal Name (SPN). The ticket is then used by the client computer to access network resources. To enable Kerberos authentication, the client and server computers must have a trusted connection to the domain Key Distribution Center (KDC). The task of KDC is to distribute shared secret keys to enable encryption. B: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving. C: User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is often used for one-to-many communications, using broadcast or multicast IP datagrams. Microsoft networking uses UDP for logon, browsing, and name resolution. UDP is a connectionless and unreliable communication protocol. It does not guarantee delivery or verify sequencing for any datagram. UDP provides faster transportation of data between TCP/IP hosts than TCP.
QUESTION 9 Which technology is designed to host calendars, contacts, and e-mail on the server? A. Microsoft Host Integration Server B. Microsoft Expression Studio C. Microsoft SQL Server D. Microsoft Exchange Server Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Disaster recovery is the process of resuming normal business operations as quickly as possible after the disaster is over. What does the disaster recovery process include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Testing all hardware and software before resuming operations B. Restoring data C. Encrypting data D. Executing a written disaster recovery plan E. Replacing any damaged hardware Correct Answer: ABDE Disaster recovery can be defined as the process of restoring systems and data if there is partial or complete failure of computers due to technical or other causes. Disaster recovery is the process of resuming normal business operations as quickly as possible, after the disaster is over. The disaster recovery process includes the following: To execute a written disaster recovery plan. To replace any damaged hardware. To restore data. To test all hardware and software before resuming operations. Incorrect Answers: C: The disaster recovery process does not include encryption of data.
QUESTION 11 The network-attached storage (NAS) device is a file server running on a dedicated device connected to the network. Which of the following are the advantages of the NAS device? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. It enables the Windows, UNIX/Linux, and MacOS to use the same storage and to access the shared data. B. It is easy to install, configure, and manage by using a web browser. C. It is used when computer systems are retired and disk drives are required to be zeroed out. D. It permits the addition of more hard disk storage space to a network without shutting them down for maintenance and upgrades. Correct Answer: ABD The network-attached storage (NAS) device is a server used for file sharing. It is a file server running on a dedicated device connected to the network. These types of devices are based on Linux or UNIX derivatives. Various advantages of the NAS device are as follows: It is easy to install, configure, and manage by using a web browser. It enables the Windows, UNIX/Linux, and MacOS to use the same storage and to access the shared data. It does not require to be located within the server but can be placed anywhere in LAN. It permits the addition of more hard disk storage space to a network without shutting them down for maintenance and upgrades. Incorrect Answers: C: Hard drive wiping is a degaussing process that applies a strong magnetic field for the purpose of initializing the media. It is used to remove data from the hard drive permanently. It is used when computer systems are retired and disk drives are required to be zeroed out.
QUESTION 12 What Microsoft web server is included with Windows servers? A. Internet Information Services B. Web Manager C. Web Provider D. Internet Security and Acceleration Correct Answer: A Microsoft\\’s web server/application server is Internet Information Services (IIS). Windows Server2008 R2 includes IIS 7.5, Windows Server 2016 includes IIS 7.5, and Windows Server 2008 includes IIS 7.0. IIS 7.0 and 7.5 support FTP, FTPS, SMTP, and HTTP/HTTPS.
QUESTION 13 Which Hyper-V network type shares the host\\’s physical network adapter? A. External B. Public C. Private D. Internal Correct Answer: A For Hyper-V host networking, the most common option is to create an external access virtual switch. This allows VMs on the host to access other systems on a traditional VLAN or standard switched network.
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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting and optimizing Enterprise wireless infrastructure and related services plus the tools and methodologies needed to identify and resolve client connectivity, performance, and RF issues.
Latest updates Cisco 300-370 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802.11ac WLAN at customer site. Due to interferences with neighboring 802.11n networks, the engineer must determine the current primary/secondary channel allocation to enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary 20 MHz channel. Which combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHz channels? A. primary 40 MHz: channel 62, primary 80 MHz: channel 58 B. primary 40 MHz: channel 54, primary 80 MHz: channel 58 C. primary 40 MHz: channel 64, primary 80 MHz: channel 60 D. primary 40 MHz: channel 60, primary 80 MHz: channel 56 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\’s and has a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue? A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical. B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC. C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the location A Access Points. D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed. B. The AP successfully joined the controller. C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller. D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller. E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet. Correct Answer: E References:
QUESTION 4 An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contains the IP address offered to the client? A. siaddr B. ciaddr C. viaddr D. giaddr Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default severity level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the severity level to its factory setting? A. informational B. major C. minor D. warning E. critical Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A mobile workstation in a factory contains an AP that is configured as a workgroup bridge. When the workstation moves, it loses connectivity and disrupts operation. What can the engineer implement to minimize roaming problems? A. Use 802.1X authentication. B. Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for fast roaming. C. Use AES for encryption. D. Use the mobile station command. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 In a Cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type is used between the access point and the wireless LAN controller? A. DTLS B. TLS C. STLS D. OpenSSL Correct Answer: A DTLS data encryption is enabled automatically for OfficeExtend access points but disabled by default for all other access points. Most access points are deployed in a secure network within a company building, so data encryption is not necessary. In contrast, the traffic between an OfficeExtend access point and the controller travels through an unsecure public network, so data encryption is more important for these access points. When data encryption is enabled, traffic is encrypted at the access point before it is sent to the controller and at the controller before it is sent to the client.
QUESTION 9 A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication? A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled. B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate. C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs. D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate. E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true? A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off. B. Debug is a message logging severity 7. C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI. D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure? A. The closer the circle is to blue, the more localized the impact is. B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is. C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is. D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join. B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware. C. AP model is not compatible with the controller code version. D. The AP is not configured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs. Correct Answer: C
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It’s not easy to pass the Cisco 300-370 exam, but with accurate learning materials and proper practice, you can crack the exam with excellent results. Lead4pass.com provides you with the most relevant learning materials that you can use to help you prepare.