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Citrix Education – A28: http://training.citrix.com/mod/ctxcatalog/course.php?id=511

Latest effective Citrix CCA 1Y0-A28 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A network engineer has created and bound an UDP-ECV monitor to identify the status of a UDP service.
However, no matter what the response is, the service is always marked as UP.
A possible cause of this behavior is that the network engineer __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the
sentence.)
A. forgot to add a receive string
B. added the string ns_true as receive string
C. added a string that is invalid and thus skipped
D. added a string that is always part of the UDP handshake
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Scenario: A network engineer has modified the configuration of a content-switching virtual server, Website_main,
because a second content-switching server that is capable of handling more connections has been added to the
NetScaler
implementation. Both servers will remain in operation.
The engineer made the following configuration changes:
>set cs vserver Website_main -lbvserver New_Server -backupVserver Old_Server -redirectURL http://
www.mydomain.com/maintenance -soMethod Connection -soThreshold 1000
Why did the engineer enable the spillover option?
A. To handle incoming connections in case the new server is unavailable
B. To handle the extra connections using the old server without dropping them
C. To redirect the extra connections to the Maintenance website when it is needed
D. To handle incoming connections while the server reaches its limit of connections
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
A NetScaler engineer would like to present different web pages to a user based on the device and browser type from
which they are connecting. Which responder policy could assist with this requirement?
A. HTTP.RES.URL.PATH
B. HTTP.REQ.Host(“Host”)
C. HTTP.RES.BODY(1024)
D. HTTP.REQ.HEADER(“User-Agent”)
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Scenario: A network engineer plans to configure an Active Directory Server as the default authentication for a NetScaler
deployment and provide users with the option to change their password if it is expired. Which two actions should the
engineer take to configure this authentication requirement on the NetScaler system? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a pre-authentication policy.
B. Select security type as SSL on Authentication policy.
C. Configure Authentication server with SSO name attribute.
D. Configure Authentication server with allow Password change option.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 5
Scenario: The NetScaler is connected to two subnets. The NSIP is 10.2.9.12. The external SNIP is 10.2.7.3. The MIP
for internal access is 10.2.9.3. Web servers, authentication servers and time servers are on the 10.2.10.0/24 network
which is available through the 10.2.9.1 router. The external firewall has the 10.2.7.1 address. Traffic bound for Internet
clients should flow through the external firewall.
Which command should be used to set the default route?
A. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
B. add route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
C. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.9.1
D. add route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.2.7.1
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Scenario: A network engineer gets an error message when using the configuration utility to import a PKCS#12
certificate that contains a dollar sign ($), a backquote (`), or an escape (\) character password. In order to address this
error, the network engineer could prefix it with __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. an escape character (\)
B. a backquote character (`)
C. a dollar sign character ($)
D. a double quotation character (“)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A network engineer might choose to use SSL_Bridge instead of a SSL virtual server in order to __________. (Choose
the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. be able to decrypt the SSL traffic
B. enable use of OCSP for revoked certificates
C. pass user certificates to the back-end servers
D. enable SSL server certificates on the service group
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the
application architecture, it is imperative that a user\\’s session remains on a single server during the session. The
session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are
working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Scenario: A network engineer has installed a NetScaler system into their corporate DMZ and would like to provide
access to a web server on the internal LAN. The web server will be accessed by external users through the Netscaler.
The
firewall administrator has opened the relevant ports required on the external and the internal firewall. The engineer
notices that the virtual server and services representing the web server are down and the internal web server does
NOT
appear accessible from the NetScaler.
What could be the cause of this?
A. USIP is not enabled.
B. Client IP Insertion is not enabled.
C. A URL rewrite policy is not created.
D. A SNIP address has not been added.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
An engineer has bound three monitors to a service group and configured each of the monitors with a weight of 10.
How should the engineer ensure that the members of the service group are marked as DOWN when at least two
monitors fail?
A. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 0.
B. Configure the service group with a threshold of 21.
C. Configure the service group with a threshold of 20.
D. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 5, and configure the service group threshold to 15.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
Scenario: The NetScaler has connections to a large number of VPNs. The network engineer wants to minimize the
number of ARP requests. Which feature should the network engineer enable to minimize ARP requests?
A. TCP Buffering
B. Use Source IP
C. Edge Configuration
D. MAC based forwarding
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 12
Scenario: A network engineer would like to prevent blacklisted remote clients from accessing NetScaler hosted
application services. An IP address blacklist database is maintained by an external company and available to query over
the Internet.
The engineer would like to reject any connections from IP addresses that are contained in the blacklist. What could the
engineer configure to achieve this goal?
A. SSL offload
B. HTTP callout
C. URL transformation
D. SSL certification revocation list check
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
A network engineer needs to investigate why a few users have issues logging on to the NetScaler system. How can the
engineer troubleshoot authentication issues on the NetScaler system?
A. Use ECV monitoring.
B. Run a violations report in Reporting.
C. Use the CAT aaad.debug command.
D. Check the system-authentication setting in the GUI.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Scenario: A network engineer has configured an HTTP application to be load balanced using a virtual server named
Svr1. Users have reported intermittent errors and the engineer has been given the client IP address of an affected user
and asked to determine which back end service they are connected to.
Using the command-line interface, how could the engineer find this information?
A. Show lb vServer Svr1
B. Show system session
C. Show lb vServer Svr1 -Summary
D. Show lb persistentSessions Svr1
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 15
Some SSL certificate files may be missing from a NetScaler appliance. Which directory should an engineer check to
determine which files are missing?
A. /nsconfig/ssl
B. /nsconfig/ssh
C. flash/nsconfig/
D. /var/netscaler/ssl/
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
When configuring an advanced HTTP callout based on attributes, what are two valid parameters? (Choose two.)
A. SSL cipher type
B. Down state flush
C. Gateway address
D. IP address and port
E. URL stem expression
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 17
How could an engineer configure a monitor to ensure that a server is marked as DOWN if the monitor test is
successful?
A. Enable the LRTM option for the monitor
B. Enable the Reverse option for the monitor
C. Disable Down state flush for the service group
D. Disable the Health monitoring option for the service group
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 18
Scenario: A user browses to a page and is presented with a warning that he is trying to enter a web site with an
untrusted certificate. The network engineer had added the correct certificate to the SSL virtual server.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. TLS is disabled on the virtual server.
B. The certificate is not linked to the intermediate CA.
C. The certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.
D. The CA certificate has not been added to the SSL virtual server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Scenario: A network engineer has bound four policies to a virtual server as follows:
PolicyA has a priority of 10 PolicyB has a priority of 20 PolicyC has a priority of 30 PolicyD has a priority of 0
Which policy will be evaluated first?
A. PolicyA
B. PolicyB
C. PolicyC
D. PolicyD
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Users have reported that they are receiving a confusing error message related to SSL sessions when connecting from
older browsers. How could the network engineer present this error to users in a customized format?
A. Enable the SSL v2 protocol.
B. Set a URL on the backup virtual server.
C. Add a redirect URL to the virtual server.
D. Configure SSL v2 Redirection for the virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

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Citrix Education – 253: http://training.citrix.com/mod/ctxcatalog/course.php?id=961

Latest effective Citrix CCA-N 1Y0-253 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has customized some NetScaler configuration files. The administrator now plans on
upgrading the NetScaler Gateway from NetScaler 10.1 to NetScaler 10.5. What should the administrator do prior to the
upgrade to avoid losing the customizations?
A. Backup the ns.conf file.
B. Backup the files in the jvarjnetscaler directory.
C. Move the customized files to a backup directory.
D. Move the customized files to the jnsconfig directory.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which protocol could an administrator apply with rate-based monitor?
A. FTP
B. ARP
C. DNS
D. HTTPS
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A penetration test has been performed against the NetScaler Gateway virtual IPs (vIPs) resulting in the SSL RC4-based
ciphers being flagged. What should the administrator do to address the vulnerability?
A. Remove all the SSL ciphers from the virtual server.
B. Assign Cipher Group \\’ALL\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server.
C. Assign Cipher Group \\’HIGH\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server.
D. Assign Cipher Group \\’DEFAULT\\’ to the NetScaler virtual server.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which two things occur after adding a Subnet IP (SNIP) to a NetScaler which already has a Mapped IP (MIP)? (Choose
two.)
A. The NetScaler IP (NSIP) is no longer required.
B. A SNIP will be used in preference to a MIP.
C. Adding a SNIP adds an entry to the routing table.
D. Client machines can use the MIP instead of the virtual IP (vIP).
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor authentication solution for a
XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake of a software upgrade on the RADIUS
infrastructure.
During the outage, the administrator needs to disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable
users\\’ continued access to published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator created a content switching virtual server. The administrator is unable to bind the load
balancing virtual server to the content switching virtual server. Which protocol is being used on the load balancing virtual
server that is causing this issue?
A. SSL
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. SSL Bridge
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Scenario: A NetScaler Gateway is configured to use RADIUS for authentication. A Citrix Administrator needs to know
whichNetScalerIP(NSIP)addressisusedforoutgoingRADIUStraffic. How can the administrator verify which NSIP is used?
A. Check the ns.log file.
B. Use the ping command.
C. Check the messages log file.
D. Use the nstcpdump.sh command.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
While logged on to the NetScaler Configuration Utility, a Citrix Administrator notices that CPU utilization is higher than
expected. What should the administrator configure to receive notification of this event in the future, when the
administrator is NOT logged on?
A. Auditing
B. SNMP Trap
C. SNMP view
D. AppFlow Logging
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Scenario: NetScaler Gateway is implemented to provide Web Resources, including Outlook Web Access and an SAP
portal, to users. Marketing and Sales department employees normally work from outside the office location and should
be
able to access Web Resources from different types of devices that are NOT maintained by the company.
Which user access connection method should an administrator configure to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Citrix Receiver
B. PN Agent plug-in
C. Clientless access
D. Access Gateway plug-in
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by
using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file. What will the administrator need to decrypt the
network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-serverkey
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Scenario: An administrator has configured several load balancing virtual servers on a NetScaler to accelerate the Web
content. After an update on the Web content platform, all the servers need the client IP address to perform tracking
operations.
Which two tasks should the administrator complete to pass the client IP address to all the load balancing virtual
servers? (Choose two.)
A. Activate the Source-IP feature on the service.
B. Configurearewritepolicy, thenbinditglobally.
C. Activate the Client-IP Header insertion on the services.
D. Configurearesponderpolicy, thenbindittoallservers.
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only. The administrator
must include two-factor authentication. Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor
authentication for this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator configured link load balancing to balance outbound traffic between two Internet Service
Providers. When testing the configuration, the administrator notices NetScaler is unable to connect to any external
addresses. Which mode should the administrator verify is enabled?
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2
C. Use Subnet IP
D. Use Source IP
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
A Citrix Administrator needs to shorten the URL for users to connect to a StoreFront website without knowing the store
name. Which policy should the administrator use to accomplish this requirement?
A. Rewrite
B. AppQoE
C. Spillover
D. Responder
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 15
Scenario: An administrator is planning to implement NetScaler Gateway. The administrator must ensure that users are
able to change their passwords when the passwords have expired. To meet the needs of the scenario, the administrator
must ensure that is included in the plan.
A. LDAP authentication
B. RADIUS authentication
C. nested groups (enabled)
D. the nsroot username added to Active Directory
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 16
5AnadministratorcreatedaserviceforaWebInterfaceserverthatisencryptedbyanSSLcertificate. Which command should the
administrator run at the command-line interface to create a monitor that will check the Web Interface by logging on to it
with a test user\\’s credentials?
A. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted
B. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -secure YES
C. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -destPort 443
D. add lb monitor mon-WebInterface CITRIX-WI-EXTENDED -sitePath IjCitrixjXenAppI -userName user – domain
DomainName -password [email protected] -encrypted -secure YES
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 17
Scenario: A NetScaler Gateway virtual server is configured for a XenApp infrastructure. The Citrix Administrator is
asked to configure monitoring on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server to ensure the health and availability of XenApp
published applications.
Which monitoring type should the administrator configure?
A. STOREFRONT
B. CITRIX-XD-DDC
C. CITRIX-XML-SERvICE
D. CITRIX-WEB-INTERFACE
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18
Scenario:AcompanywebsitecurrentlyhasthousandsofGIFimages.UsingtheNetScaler, aCitrixAdministratorneeds to
convert the GIFs to PNG format to reduce bandwidth requirements. Which feature on the NetScaler can accomplish this
task?
A. Priority Queueing
B. Content Switching
C. Content Accelerator
D. Front End Optimization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 19
Scenario: An administrator configures load balancing in an environment to load balance a Web server. The
administrator needs to enhance availability in the case that the virtual server goes down. Which two options could the
administrator configure to meet the load balancing needs for this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Redirect URL
B. Reversemonitoring
C. Backup virtual server
D. Content Switching virtual server
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 20
A Citrix Administrator is upgrading NetScaler 10.1 appliances in a high availability (HA) pair to NetScaler 10.5. What is
the first step to launch the upgrade according to Citrix best practice?
A. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the primary appliance to force HA failover.
B. Execute the installns command on the primary appliance.
C. Use the NetScaler Configuration Utility on the secondary appliance to force HA failover.
D. Execute the installns command on the secondary appliance.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator is configuring MicrovPN with MDX wrapped apps to support StoreFront. Which two settings must
the administrator configure in the NetScaler Gateway Global settings under `Configure Domains for Clientless
Access\\’? (Choose two.)
A. StoreFront URL
B. XenMobile Gateway URL
C. App Controller Host name
D. Secure Ticketing Authority
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 22
A Citrix Administrator needs to set up two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway for mobile devices. Which two
actions should the administrator take to allow users to log on using mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. Create a pre-authentication policy
B. Create a RADIUS authentication policy
C. Bind the LDAP policy for primary authentication
D. Bind the RADIUS policy for primary authentication
E. Bind the RADIUS policy for secondary authentication
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 23
What should a Citrix Administrator configure to optimize an internal NetScaler Gateway virtual server when more
bandwidth is available for use and other websites are NOT affected?
A. Windows Scaling within TCP parameters.
B. Max Connections within HTTP parameters.
C. A Net Profile that is applied to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Windows Scaling within a TCP Profile that is applied to the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 24
An administrator plans to use only Citrix Receiver for XenDesktop remote access through a NetScaler Gateway device.
Which type of policy should the administrator configure to meet this requirement?
A. Session
B. Authentication
C. Clientless access
D. Pre-authentication
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 25
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no
longer accepts traffic. Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 26
Scenario: NetScaler is used to load balance Microsoft SharePoint for internal users. An administrator needs to configure
the NetScaler device to allow for external access to the SharePoint site. Which action could the administrator take to
meet the requirements of the scenario?
A. Bind the SharePoint certificate to the virtual server.
B. Add the Microsoft SharePoint server to a Web Interface site.
C. Configure an Authentication, Auditing and Authorization server.
D. Enable \\’ICA proxy only\\’ on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two methods should be used for generating a configuration data and statistics report for evaluation by Citrix?
(Choose two.)
A. Run Ishow callhomeI using the command-line interface.
B. Run Ishow techsupportI using the command-line interface.
C. Click the Call Home link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility.
D. Click the Download trace files link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility.
E. Click the Generate support file link under the Technical Support Tools section in the NetScaler Configuration Utility.
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 28
An administrator needs to allow remote users to access their locally-installed corporate applications over a secure
connection.
In order to meet this requirement, the administrator could configure on the NetScaler. (Choose the correct option to
complete the sentence.)
A. SSL vPN
B. ICA Proxy
C. SSL Offload
D. Clientless Access
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
Which two commands, when run at the command-line interface by a Citrix Administrator, can display interfaces
configured for high availability monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. show node
B. show status
C. show monitor
D. showinterface
E. show hardware
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 30
Scenario: An administrator plans to implement NetScaler to load balance Web Interface traffic. The Web Interface
servers are using standard non-secure ports. Company policy states that all external traffic must be secure. The
administrator
has added the servers for the Web Interface under Load Balancing.
In order to load balance the Web Interface traffic and comply with company policy, the administrator should add services
for and create an . (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. SSL; SSL virtual server
B. SSL; HTTP virtual server
C. HTTP; SSL virtual server
D. HTTP; HTTP virtual server
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which profiling capability allows you to gather and forward network packets to an analyzer?
A. collector
B. spanner
C. retriever
D. aggregator
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which option is the code field of n EAP packet?
A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success
B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure
C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success
D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
In the command \\’aaa authentication default group tacacs local\\’, how is the word \\’default\\’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
When configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS, what is a recommended best practice?
A. Synchronize the router\\’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update.
B. Clear the router\\’s flash of unused signature files.
C. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency.
D. Create the appropriate directory on the router\\’s flash memory to store the downloaded signature files.
E. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which component hosts the web authentication
portal?
A. the endpoints
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. ISE
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are
true? (Choose two.)
A. They send endpoint data to AAA servers.
B. They collect endpoint attributes.
C. They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies.
D. They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints.
E. They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles.
F. They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements.
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 7
Which redirect-URL is pushed by Cisco ISE for posture redirect for corporate users?
A. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cppandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
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B. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cwaandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
C. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=mdmandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
D. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=drwandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose two.)
A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field.
B. DoS
C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests
D. ARP cache poisoning on the router
E. client unable to access network resources
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Catalyst switch interface commands allow only a single voice device and a single data device to be
connected to the IEEE 802.1X-enabled interface? (Choose two.)
A. authentication host-mode single-host
B. authentication host-mode multi-domain
C. authentication host-mode multi-host
D. authentication host-mode multi-auth
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which 802.1x command is needed for ACL to be applied on a switch port?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x pae authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. radius-server vsa send authentication
E. aaa authorization network default group radius
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE?
A. the http secure-server command
B. RADIUS Attribute 29
C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting
D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing.
Logs indicate an EAP failure. What are the two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Client certificate is not included in the Trusted Certificate Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 13
A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown\\’ for a single corporate mac address but unknown
machines are reported as `complaint\\’. Which option is the reason for machine being reported `unknown\\’.
A. Posture service disabled on cisco ISE
B. Posture policy does not support the OS
C. Posture agent not installed on the machine
D. Posture compliance condition is missing on the machine
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which type of SGT classification method is required when authentication is unavailable?
A. Bypass
B. Dynamic
C. Static
D. Inline
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
When enabling the Cisco IOS IPS feature, which step should you perform to prevent rogue signature updates from
being installed on the router?
A. configure authentication and authorization for maintaining signature updates
B. install a known RSA public key that correlates to a private key used by Cisco
C. manually import signature updates from Cisco to a secure server, and then transfer files from the secure server to the
router
D. use the SDEE protocol for all signature updates from a known secure management station
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT?
A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the enterprise security policy
B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with inside endpoints.
C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies.
D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment?
A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint.
B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain.
C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain.
D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Which two authentication stores are supported to design a wireless network using PEAP EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the
authentication method? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. ACS
C. LDAP
D. RSA Secure-ID
E. Certificate Server
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
Which three statement about Windows Server Update Services remediation are true?
A. WSUS can install the latest service pack available
B. WSUS checks for automatic update configuration on Windows
C. WSUS checks for client behavior anomalies
D. WSUS remediates Windows client from a locally manage WSUS server
E. WSUS remediates Windows client from a Microsoft manage WSUS server
F. WSUS provides links to update AV/AS
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 20
Which statement about IOS accounting is true?
A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined.
B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined.
C. Authorization must be configured before accounting.
D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Which of these is a configurable Cisco IOS feature that triggers notifications if an attack attempts to exhaust critical
router resources and if preventative controls have been bypassed or are not working correctly?
A. Control Plane Protection
B. Management Plane Protection
C. CPU and memory thresholding
D. SNMPv3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 22
Which two simple posture conditions are valid?
A. Service
B. Antispyware
C. Firewall
D. File
E. Antivirus
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 23
Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE?
A. the http secure-server command
B. RADIUS Attribute 29
C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting
D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Security Group Access requires which three syslog messages to be sent to Cisco ISE? (Choose three.)
A. IOS-7-PROXY_DROP
B. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_DOS_ATTACK
C. MKA-2-MACDROP
D. AUTHMGR-5-MACMOVE
E. ASA-6-CONNECT_BUILT
F. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_FALLBACK_REQ
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 25
Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. multidomain authentication host mode
B. multihost mode
C. multi-MAC host mode
D. single-host mode
E. dual-host mode
F. multi-auth host mode
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 26
When Cisco IOS IPS signatures are being tuned, how is the Target Value Rating assigned?
A. It is calculated from the Event Risk Rating.
B. It is calculated from a combination of the Attack Severity Rating and Signature Fidelity Rating
C. It is manually set by the administrator.
D. It is set based upon SEAP functions.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two are best practices to implement profiling services in a distributed environment? (Choose two)
A. use of device sensor feature
B. configuration to send syslogs to the appropriate profiler node
C. netflow probes enabled on central nodes
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. global enablement of the profiler service
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 28
When RADIUS NAC and AAA Override are enabled for WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about RADIUS NAC
are true? (Choose two.)
A. It will return an access-accept and send the redirection URL for all users.
B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the ISE.
C. It allows the ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated.
D. It is used for posture assessment, so the ISE changes the user profile based on posture result.
E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 29
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a
unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
Which command can check a AAA server authentication for server group Group1, user cisco, and password cisco555
on a Cisco ASA device?
A. ASA# test aaa-server authentication Group1 username cisco password cisco555
B. ASA# test aaa-server authentication group Group1 username cisco password cisco555
C. ASA# aaa-server authorization Group1 username cisco password cisco555
D. ASA# aaa-server authentication Group1 roger cisco555
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
A network security engineer is considering configuring 802.1x for security. He wants to use single host for data and
single host for voice. Which port authentication method he use?
A. Single host
B. Multi host
C. Multi auth
D. Multi-domain
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 32
Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE Authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication?
A. Dot1x and if authentication failed continue
B. MAB and if user not found continue
C. MAB and if authentication failed continue D. Dot1x and if user not found continue
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
Where would a Cisco ISE administrator define a named ACL to use in an authorization policy?
A. In the conditions of an authorization rule.
B. In the attributes of an authorization rule.
C. In the permissions of an authorization rule.
D. In an authorization profile associated with an authorization rule.
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Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 34
Which effect does the ip http secure-server command have on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify certificate on an ISE device?
A. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.
Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
B. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.
Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
C. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.
Download the CA server certificate.
3.
Access the ISE server and submit the CA request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
D. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.
Download the CA server certificate.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching
B. uRPF
C. routing protocol authentication
D. CPPr
E. BPDU protection
F. role-based access control
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 37
What is a required step when you deploy dynamic VLAN and ACL assignments?
A. Configure the VLAN assignment.
B. Configure the ACL assignment.
C. Configure Cisco IOS Software 802.1X authenticator authorization.
D. Configure the Cisco IOS Software switch for ACL assignment.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
A network administrator wants to use dynamic VLAN assignment from Cisco ISE. Which option must be configured on
the switch to support this?
A. AAA authentication
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. AAA authorization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which three features should be enabled as best practices for MAB? (Choose three.)
A. MD5
B. IP source guard
C. DHCP snooping
D. storm control
E. DAI
F. URPF
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 40
What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.)
A. The port is error disabled.
B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port.
C. The port generates a port resistance error.
D. The port attempts to repair the violation.
E. The port is placed in quarantine state.
F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.

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Latest effective Cisco 300-206 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.


QUESTION 3
What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS
access?
A. sslconfig
B. sslciphers
C. tlsconifg
D. certconfig
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
When you set a Cisco IOS Router as an SSH server, which command specifies the RSA public key of the remote peer
when you set the SSH server to perform RSA-based authentication?
A. router(config-ssh-pubkey-user)#key
B. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string
C. router(config-ssh-pubkey)#key-string
D. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string enable ssh
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Where do you apply a control plane services policy to implement Management Plane Protection on a Cisco Router?
A. Control-plane router
B. Control-plane host
C. Control-plane interface management 0/0
D. Control-plane service policy
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t11/htsecmpp.htmllead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q5

 

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
A. Isolated ports can talk to promiscuous and community ports.
B. Promiscuous ports can talk to isolated and community ports.
C. Private VLANs run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in client mode.
D. Private VLANS run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in transparent mode.
E. Community ports can talk to each other as well as the promiscuous port.
F. Primary, secondary, and tertiary VLANs are required for private VLAN implementation.
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 7
Which option is the Cisco ASA on-box graphical management solution?
A. SSH
B. ASDM
C. Console
D. CSM
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which three options describe how SNMPv3 traps can be securely configured to be sent by IOS? (Choose three.)
A. An SNMPv3 group is defined to configure the read and write views of the group.
B. An SNMPv3 user is assigned to SNMPv3 group and defines the encryption and authentication credentials.
C. An SNMPv3 host is configured to define where the SNMPv3 traps will be sent.
D. An SNMPv3 host is used to configure the encryption and authentication credentials for SNMPv3 traps.
E. An SNMPv3 view is defined to configure the address of where the traps will be sent.
F. An SNMPv3 group is used to configure the OIDs that will be reported.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 9
What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on interfaces?
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 2156 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual cloud
environment?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. Cisco VSG
C. WSVA
D. ESVA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
With Cisco ASA active/standby failover, by default, how many monitored interface failures will cause failover to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
You are going to add ASA to CSM (Cisco Security Manager). Which port on ASA must be reachable for CSM to
succeed?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 80
D. 443
Correct Answer: D
Security Manager can use these transport protocols:
SSL (HTTPS)–Secure Socket Layer, which is an HTTPS connection, is the only transport protocol used with PIX
Firewalls, Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA), and Firewall Services Modules (FWSM). It is also the default protocol for
IPS
devices and for routers running Cisco IOS Software release 12.3 or higher.
If you use SSL as the transport protocol on Cisco IOS routers, you must also configure SSH on the routers. Security
Manager uses SSH connections to handle interactive command deployments during SSL deployments. Cisco Security
Manager was using OpenSSL for the Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocols.
Beginning with version 4.13, Cisco Security Manager replaced OpenSSL version 1.0.2 with Cisco SSL version 6.x.
Cisco SSL
enables FIPS compliance over full FIPS Validation which results in fast and cost-effective connectivity. The Common
Criteria mode in Cisco SSL allows easier compliance. Cisco SSL is feature-forward when compared to OpenSSL. The
product Security Baseline (PSB) requirements for Cisco SSL ensures important security aspects such as credential and
key management, cryptography standards, antispoofing capabilities, integrity and tamper protection, and session, data,
and stream management and administration are taken care of.
SSH–Secure Shell is the default transport protocol for Catalyst switches and Catalyst 6500/7600 devices. You can also
use it with Cisco IOS routers.
Telnet–Telnet is the default protocol for routers running Cisco IOS software releases 12.1 and
12.2. You can also use it with Catalyst switches, Catalyst 6500/7600 devices, and routers running Cisco IOS Software
release 12.3 and higher. See the Cisco IOS software documentation for configuring Telnet.
HTTP–You can use HTTP instead of HTTPS (SSL) with IPS devices. HTTP is not the default protocol for any device
type.
TMS–Token Management Server is treated like a transport protocol in Security Manager, but it is not a real transport
protocol. Instead, by configuring TMS as the transport protocol of a router, you are telling Security Manager to deploy
configurations to a TMS. From the TMS, you can download the configuration to an eToken, plug the eToken into the
router\\’s USB bus, and update the configuration. TMS is available only for certain routers running Cisco IOS Software
12.3 or
higher.
Security Manager can also use indirect methods to deploy configurations to devices, staging the configuration on a
server that manages the deployment to the devices. These indirect methods also allow you to use dynamic IP
addresses on
your devices. The methods are not treated as transport protocols, but as adjuncts to the transport protocol for the
device. You can use these indirect methods:
AUS (Auto Update Server)–When you add a device to Security Manager, you can select the AUS server that is
managing it. You can use AUS with PIX Firewalls and ASA devices.
Configuration Engine–When you add a router to Security Manager, you can select the Configuration Engine that is
managing it.


QUESTION 13
What are two enhancements of SSHv2 over SSHv1? (Choose two.)
A. VRF-aware SSH support
B. DH group exchange support
C. RSA support
D. keyboard-interactive authentication
E. SHA support
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
Which two commands can be used to create a Cisco Unified ACL within the ASA CLI? (Choose two.)
A. ipv6 access-list
B. object-group network
C. ipv6 access-list webtype
D. access-list extended
E. object-group network nat-pat-grp
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/acl_extended.pdf


QUESTION 15
Which statement about Cisco IPS Manager Express is true?
A. It provides basic device management for large-scale deployments.
B. It provides a GUI for configuring IPS sensors and security modules.
C. It enables communication with Cisco ASA devices that have no administrative access.
D. It provides greater security than simple ACLs.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?
A. Trace
B. Debug
C. Informational
D. Critical
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
Which two option are main challenges for public cloud data center?
A. deployment cost
B. tenant isolation
C. disaster recovery
D. system scalability
E. network visibility
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 18
If you encounter problems logging in to the Cisco Security Manager 4.4 web server or client or backing up its databases,
which account has most likely been improperly modified?
A. admin (the default administrator account)
B. casuser (the default service account)
C. guest (the default guest account)
D. user (the default user account)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which Cisco TrustSec role does a Cisco ASA firewall serve within an identity architecture?
A. Access Requester
B. Policy Decision Point
C. Policy Information Point
D. Policy Administration Point
E. Policy Enforcement Point
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 20
Which statement about Cisco Security Manager form factors is true?
A. Cisco Security Manager Professional and Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundles support FWSMs.
B. Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional support FWSMs.
C. Only Cisco Security Manager Professional supports FWSMs.
D. Only Cisco Security Manager Standard supports FWSMs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
If a switch port goes directly into a blocked state only when a superior BPDU is received, what mechanism must be in
use?
A. STP bpdu guard
B. STP root guard
C. SPT bpdu filter
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Why was the packet dropped? ****Exhibit is Missing****
(this exhibit is packet capture with traffic destination to port 23 and being drop by access- list)
A. Telnet access is not allowed between these two nodes.
B. NAT is not applied correctly for the 10.10.96.5 host
C. The source port is configured incorrectly In the capture
D. There is no route on the Cisco ASA to the destination host
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
A network engineer must mange and configurations to a cisco networking environment solutions accomplishes this
task?
A. cisco IPS manage express and pushing configuration to the ips units
B. cisco security 4.5 or later and pushing configuration bundles to each of the,,,,,
C. cisco adaptive security device manager to push configuration to each of the IPS
D. fire SIGHT manager to bundle and push configuration to the IPS units installed
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 24
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
– The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices.

The user needs read-write access to policies.

The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will the administrator assign to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 26
Which are the most secure authentication and encryption options? (Choose two)
A. DES
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. MD5
E. SHA
Correct Answer: CE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/next-generation-cryptography.html#2


QUESTION 27
Which policy map action makes a Cisco router behave as a stateful firewall for matching traffic?
A. Log
B. Inspect
C. Permit
D. Deny
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 28
What two are data and voice protocols do ASA 5500 supports? (Choose two)
A. CTIQBE Inspection
B. H.323 Inspection
C. MGCP Inspection
D. RTSP Inspection
E. SIP Inspection
F. Skinny (SCCP) Inspection
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 29
A. choosed to use udp as answer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be?
A. local
B. default
Correct Answer: A
ASA Identity Firewal:
The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those
users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL.
Additionally, the
Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in
and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).


QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this access list is true?lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q31

A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT
B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default
C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration
D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all
E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic
Correct Answer: A
ASA 9.0(1) code introduced the Unified ACL for IPv4 and IPv6. ACLs now support IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. You can
even specify a mix of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses for the source and destination. The any keyword was changed to
represent IPv4 and IPv6 traffic. The any4 and any6 keywords were added to represent IPv4-only and IPv6-only traffic,
respectively. The IPv6-specific ACLs are deprecated. Existing IPv6 ACLs are migrated to extended ACLs.


QUESTION 32
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of
traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
Hotspot Questionlead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-1

Which statement is true of the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA?
A. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to an FTP server before the buffer is overwritten.
B. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to flash memory before the buffer is overwritten.
C. System log messages with a severity level of six and higher will be logged to the internal buffer.
D. System log messages with a severity level of six and lower will be logged to the internal buffer.
Correct Answer: C lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-2 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-3

 

QUESTION 34
When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true?
A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page.
B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database.
C. The administrator can manually update the page.
D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 35
Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two)
A. RSA-SIG
B. MD5
C. AES
D. 3DES
E. DES
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 36
You must restrict the interface on which management traffic can be received by the routers on your network. Which
feature do you enable?
A. MPP
B. extended ACL on all of the interfaces
C. CPP with a port filter
D. AAA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 37
Which statement about static or default route on the Cisco ASA appliance is true?
A. The admin distance is 1 by default.
B. From the show route output, the [120/3] indicates an admin distance of 3.
C. A default route is specified using the 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 address/mask combination.
D. The tunneled command option is used to enable route tracking.
E. The interface-name parameter in the route command is an optional parameter if the static route points to the next-
hop router IP address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
Which Cisco prime Infrastructure features allows you to assign templates to a group of wireless LAN controllers with
similar configuration requirements?
A. Lightweight access point configuration template
B. Composite template
C. Controller configuration group
D. Shared policy object
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 39
CORRECT TEXT

lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-1 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-2

Correct Answer: explanation
Answer: Please check the steps in explanation part below:
1) Click on Service Policy Rules, then Edit the default inspection rule.
2) Click on Rule Actions, then enable HTTP as shown here: lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-3

3) Click on Configure, then add as shown here: lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-4 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-5

4) Create the new map in ASDM like shown:lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-6

5) Edit the policy as shown:
6) Hit OK


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco ASA CLI commands configure these static routes in the Cisco ASA routing table?
S 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.10, dmzS 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 [2/0] via 172.16.1.11, dmz
A. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11
B. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 1
C. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 2
D. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11
E. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 1
F. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 2
Correct Answer: F

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Hot Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q10)

QUESTION 1
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs on a host named Host1.
You configure VM1 to replicate to another host named Host2. Host2 is located in the same physical location as Host1.
You need to add an additional replica of VM1. The replica will be located in a different physical site.
What should you do?
A. From VM1 on Host2, click Extend Replication.
B. On Host1, configure the Hyper-V settings.
C. From VM1 on Host1, click Extend Replication.
D. On Host2, configure the Hyper-V settings.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Extend Replication through UI:
Before you Extend Replication to third site, you need to establish the replication between a primary server and replica server.
Once that is done, go to replica site and from Hyper-V UI manager select the VM for which you want to extend the replication. Right click on VM and select “Replication->Extend Replication …”. This will open Extend Replication Wizard which is similar to Enable Replication Wizard.
NOTE: You configure a server to receive replication with Hyper-V Manager, in this situation the replica site is assumed to be the Replica Server. Therefore you extend replication from VM1 on Host2.
Note 2: With Hyper-V Extend Replication feature in Windows Server 2012 R2, customers can have multiple copies of data to protect them from different outage scenarios. For example, as a customer I might choose to keep my second DR site in the same campus or a few miles away while I want to keep my third copy of data across the continents to give added protection for my workloads. Hyper-V Replica Extend replication exactly addresses this problem by providing one more copy of workload at an extended site apart from replica site.

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains three domains. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The forest has a two-way realm trust to a Kerberos realm named adatum.com.
You discover that users in adatum.com can only access resources in the root domain of contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the adatum.com users can access the resources in all of the domains in the forest.
What should you do in the forest?
A. Delete the realm trust and create a forest trust.
B. Delete the realm trust and create three external trusts.
C. Modify the incoming realm trust.
D. Modify the outgoing realm trust.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* A one-way, outgoing realm trust allows resources in your Windows Server domain (the domain that you are logged on to at the time that you run the New Trust Wizard) to be accessed by users in the Kerberos realm.
* You can establish a realm trust between any non-Windows Kerberos version 5 (V5) realm and an Active Directory domain. This trust relationship allows cross-platform interoperability with security services that are based on other versions of the Kerberos V5 protocol, for example, UNIX and MIT implementations. Realm trusts can switch from nontransitive to transitive and back. Realm trusts can also be either one-way or two-way.

QUESTION 3
Your network contains two servers named HV1 and HV2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have the Hyper-V server role installed.
HV1 hosts 25 virtual machines. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks are stored in D:\VM.
You shut down all of the virtual machines on HV1.
You copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2.
You need to start all of the virtual machines on HV2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMInitialReplication cmdlet.
B. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
C. From HV1, export all virtual machines to D:\VM. Copy D:\VM to D:\VM on HV2 and overwrite the existing files. On HV2, run the New Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-VM cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a perimeter network and an internal network. The internal network contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.1 infrastructure. The infrastructure uses Active Directory as the attribute store.
You plan to deploy a federation server proxy to a server named Server2 in the perimeter network. 70-412 dumps
You need to identify which value must be included in the certificate that is deployed to Server2.
What should you identify?
A. The FQDN of the AD FS server
B. The name of the Federation Service
C. The name of the Active Directory domain
D. The public IP address of Server2
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To add a host (A) record to corporate DNS for a federation server On a DNS server for the corporate network, open the DNS snap-in.
1. In the console tree, right-click the applicable forward lookup zone, and then click New Host (A).
2. In Name, type only the computer name of the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, type fs for the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) fs.adatum.com).
3. In IP address, type the IP address for the federation server or federation server cluster (for example, 192.168.1.4).
4. Click Add Host.

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that has the Active Directory Federation Services server role installed. All servers run Windows Server 2012.
You complete the Active Directory Federation Services Configuration Wizard on Server1.
You need to ensure that client devices on the internal network can use Workplace Join.
Which two actions should you perform on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration -PrepareActiveDirectory.
B. Edit the multi-factor authentication global authentication policy settings.
C. Run Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration.
D. Run Set-AdfsProxyProperties HttpPort 80.
E. Edit the primary authentication global authentication policy settings.
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
C. To enable Device Registration Service
On your federation server, open a Windows PowerShell command window and type:
Enable-AdfsDeviceRegistration
Repeat this step on each federation farm node in your AD FS farm.
E. Enable seamless second factor authentication
Seamless second factor authentication is an enhancement in AD FS that provides an added level of access protection to corporate resources and applications from external devices that are trying to access them. When a personal device is
Workplace Joined, it becomes a `known’ device and administrators can use this information to drive conditional access and gate access to resources.
To enable seamless second factor authentication, persistent single sign-on (SSO) and conditional access for Workplace Joined devices.
In the AD FS Management console, navigate to Authentication Policies. Select Edit Global Primary Authentication. Select the check box next to Enable Device Authentication, and then click OK.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
Users frequently access the website of an external partner company. The URL of the website is http://partners.adatum.com.
The partner company informs you that it will perform maintenance on its Web server and that the IP addresses of the Web server will change.
After the change is complete, the users on your internal network report that they fail to access the website. However, some users who work from home report that they can access the website.
You need to ensure that your DNS servers can resolve partners.adatum.com to the correct IP address immediately.
What should you do?
A. Run dnscmd and specify the CacheLockingPercent parameter.
B. Run Set-DnsServerGlobalQueryBlockList.
C. Run ipconfig and specify the Renew parameter.
D. Run Set-DnsServerCache.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The Set-DnsServerCache cmdlet modifies cache settings for a Domain Name System (DNS) server.
Run Set-DnsServerCache with the -LockingPercent switch.
/ -LockingPercent<UInt32>
Specifies a percentage of the original Time to Live (TTL) value that caching can consume. Cache locking is configured as a percent value. For example, if the cache locking value is set to 50, the DNS server does not overwrite a cached entry for half of the duration of the TTL. By default, the cache locking percent value is 100. This value means that the DNS server will not overwrite cached entries for the entire duration of the TTL.
Note. A better way would be clear the DNS cache on the DNS server with either Dnscmd /ClearCache (from command prompt), or Clear-DnsServerCache (from Windows PowerShell).
Incorrect:
Not A. You need to use the /config parameter as well:
You can change this value if you like by using the dnscmd command:
dnscmd /Config /CacheLockingPercent<percent>

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 and a member server named Server1. Server1 has the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature installed.
On Dc1, you configure Windows Firewall to allow all of the necessary inbound ports for IPAM.
On Server1, you open Server Manager as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-412 dumps
You need to ensure that you can use IPAM on Server1 to manage DNS on DC1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the outbound firewall rules on Server1.
B. Modify the inbound firewall rules on Server1.
C. Add Server1 to the Remote Management Users group.
D. Add Server1 to the Event Log Readers group.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
To access configuration data and server event logs, the IPAM server must be a member of the domain IPAM Users Group (IPAMUG). The IPAM server must also be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.
Note: The computer account of the IPAM server must be a member of the Event Log Readers security group.

QUESTION 8
You have 30 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All of the servers are backed up daily by using Windows Azure Online Backup.
You need to perform an immediate backup of all the servers to Windows Azure Online Backup.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run on each server?
A. Get-OBPolicy | StartOBBackup
B. Start-OBRegistration | StartOBBackup
C. Get-WBPolicy | Start-WBBackup
D. Get-WBBackupTarget | Start-WBBackup
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
This example starts a backup job using a policy.
Windows PowerShell
PS C:\> Get-OBPolicy | Start-OBBackup
Incorrect:
Not B. Registers the current computer to Windows Azure Backup.
Not C. Not using Azure
Not D. Not using Azure

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DNS Server server role installed.
Server1 has a zone named contoso.com. The zone is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) 70-412 dumps
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You need to assign a user named User1 permission to add and delete records from the contoso.com zone only.
What should you do first?
A. Enable the Advanced view from DNS Manager.
B. Add User1 to the DnsUpdateProxy group.
C. Run the New Delegation Wizard.
D. Configure the zone to be Active Directory-integrated.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Secure dynamic updates are only supported or configurable for resource records in zones that are stored in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS).
Note: To modify security for a resource record
Open DNS Manager.
In the console tree, click the applicable zone.
In the details pane, click the record that you want to view.
On the Action menu, click Properties.
On the Security tab, modify the list of member users or groups that are allowed to securely update the applicable record and reset their permissions as needed.

QUESTION 10
You have 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to create a Windows PowerShell script that registers each server in Windows Azure Backup and sets an encryption passphrase.
Which two PowerShell cmdlets should you run in the script? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-OBPolicy
B. New-OBRetentionPolicy
C. Add-OBFileSpec
D. Start-OBRegistration
E. Set OBMachineSetting
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
D. Start-OBRegistration
Registers the current computer with Windows Azure Online Backup using the credentials (username and password) created during enrollment. E. The Set-OBMachineSetting cmdlet sets a OBMachineSetting object for the server that includes proxy server settings for accessing the internet, network bandwidth throttling settings, and the encryption passphrase that is required to decrypt the files during recovery to another server.
Incorrect:
Not C. TheAdd-OBFileSpeccmdlet adds theOBFileSpecobject, which specifies the items to include or exclude from a backup, to the backup policy (OBPolicyobject). TheOBFileSpecobject can include or exclude multiple files, folders, or volumes.

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Useful Microsoft 70-494 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is a loan processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays all loans along with rate information. Lazy loading has been disabled.
The Loan class is shown below.
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You need to return the loans and rate information in a single round trip to the database.
Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that displays a report. The report includes large images that are stored in a database. Members of the EntityClient namespace are used to access the database through the ADO.NET Entity Framework data model.
You need to prevent memory exceptions while generating a report using the EntityDataRcader type.
Which CommandBehavior type should you use?
A. FastForwardReadOnly
B. SequentialAccess
C. SingleResult
D. SingleRow
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
SequentialAccess
Provides a way for the DataReader to handle rows that contain columns with large binary values. Rather than loading the entire row, SequentialAccess enables the DataReader to load data as a stream.

QUESTION 3
You are developing a Microsoft Azure web application. The application will be deployed to 10 web role instances. A minimum of 8 running instances is needed to meet scaling requirements.
You need to configure the application so that upgrades are performed as quickly as possible, but do not violate scaling requirements.
How many upgrade domains should you use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are developing a WCF service.
A new service instance must be created for each client request.
You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instancing mode should you use?
A. Single
B. PerRequest
C. PerCall
D. Multiple
E. PerSession
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
You are developing a WCF service that compares several data sources. The service takes a long time to complete.
The service must meet the following requirements:
The client must be able to continue processing while the service is running. The service must initiate communication with the client application when processing is complete.
You need to choose a message pattern to meet the requirements.
Which message pattern should you choose?
A. One Way
B. Streaming
C. Duplex
D. Request/Reply
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application is an order processing system that uses the ADO.NET Entity Framework against a SQL Server database. It has a controller that loads a page that displays customers. 70-494 dumps
Customers are filtered on Country and, if provided, on CompanyName.
You have an Entity Framework context named db.
The Customer class is shown below.
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You need to execute a single deferred query to return the filtered list of customers.
Which code segment should you use?
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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to maintain data integrity including retrieving identical sets across reads in all situations that use transactions.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. Repeatable
B. Serializable
C. ReadUncommitted
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
REPEATABLE READ
Specifies that statements cannot read data that has been modified but not yet committed by other transactions and that no other transactions can modify data that has been read by the current transaction until the current transaction completes.

QUESTION 8
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to maintain data integrity in all situations that use transactions.
A. ReadUncommitted
B. Repeatable
C. Serializable
D. ReadCommitted
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application.
Applications can be deployed to remote servers only by administrators who have elevated privileges. The administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2012.
You need to select a deployment tool to deploy the application to remote servers for testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. Copy Web Site Tool
B. One-Click Publish
C. Publish Web Site Tool
D. Web Deployment Package
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You develop an ASP.NET MVC application that is secured by using SSL. You are ready to deploy the application to production.
The deployment package must include the installation of the SSL certificate.
You need to configure the deployment package to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create a web publish pipeline target file with a custom web deploy target.
B. In the Package/Publish settings of the project, select the All Files in this project option.
C. Extend the CopyAllFilesToSingleFolder target in the project file.
D. In the Build Events settings of the project, configure a pre-build event to include the SSL certificate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are building an ADO.NET Entity Framework application. You need to validate the conceptual schema definition language (CSDL), store schema definition language (SSDL), and mapping specification language (MSL) files.
Which Entity Data Model tool can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. EDM Generator (EdmGen.exe)
B. ADO.NET Entity Data Model Designer
C. Entity Data Model Wizard
D. Update Model Wizard
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
You are developing a .NET application that uses the HttpClient type to call an ASP.NET Web API application. The API call returns a list of customers in JSON format and logs the results.
The URI for the API call is in a variable named address.
You need to make the API call without blocking.
Which code segment should you use?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Example:
// Create an HttpClient instance
11: HttpClient client = new HttpClient();
12:
13: // Send a request asynchronously continue when complete
14: client.GetAsync(_address).ContinueWith(
15: (requestTask) =>
16: {
17: // Get HTTP response from completed task.
18: HttpResponseMessage response = requestTask.Result;
19:
20: // Check that response was successful or throw exception
21: response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode();
22:
23: // Read response asynchronously as JsonValue and write out top facts for each country
24: response.Content.ReadAsAsync<JsonArray>().ContinueWith(
25: (readTask) =>

QUESTION 13
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to remove a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use? 70-494 dumps
A. PUT
B. DELETE
C. POST
D. GET
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company.
The libraries must be shared across the company.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.
What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

Explanation:

QUESTION 15
You are designing an ASP.NET Web API application.
You need to select an HTTP verb to allow blog administrators to moderate a comment.
Which HTTP verb should you use?
A. GET
B. POST
C. DELETE
D. PUT
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given cisco switch? (choose two)
A. show interfaces interface
B. show interfaces trunk
C. show interfaces switch port
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interfaces vlan
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201
B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
C. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default
D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)
A. 802.2 Protocol
B. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10BaseT half duplex
D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interface
C. Enable no auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. Err disabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)
A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 8
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? 200-125 dumps (Choose Three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?
A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?
A. Routing
B. Hair pinning
C. Encapsulation
D. Switching
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What does split horizon prevent?
A. routing loops, link state
B. routing loops, distance vector
C. switching loops, STP
D. switching loops, VTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?
A. interface
B. virtual IP address
C. priority
D. router ID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?
A. preempt
B. priority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What to do when the router password was forgotten?
A. use default password cisco to reset
B. access router physically
C. use ssl/vpn
D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?
A. telnet
B. ssh
C. vtp
D. vpn
E. dmvpn
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
How do you configure a hostname?
A. Router(config)#hostname R1
B. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
C. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
200-125 dumps Which technology you will choose to connect multiple sites with secure connections?
A. Point-to-point
B. DMVPN
C. vpn
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp interface
D. Show cdp traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?(choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization iscompued automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables,using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 28
Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse two)
A. 50
B. 1550
C. 150
D. 1250
E. 2050
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
What does split-horizon do?
A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol
B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which statement about vlan operation on cisco catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk,the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table.
B. unkown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
200-125 dumps
A. router# show protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show line
D. router#show interface gig0/1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial Interface?(choose two)
A. PEAP
B. CHAP
C. TACACS+
D. PAP
E. LEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 34
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses.
Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.9.0
B. 172.16.8.0
C. 172.16.31.0
D. 172.16.20.0
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 35
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? 200-125 dumps (Choose two)
A. uses process number
B. neighbor configured directly
C. configured driectly on interface
D. configured globally interface
E. have shutdown feature
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 39
interface fa0/0
ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXX
neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.
A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31
D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which two statements about LLDP are true?(choose two)
A. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices
B. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
C. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
D. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
E. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer
Correct Answer: AE

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A customer needs to configure a XenDesktop environment so that an end user has the best experience when launching a virtual desktop. The environment needs to be configured with fault tolerance so that when a XenServer goes down for maintenance the target device can still be deployed by any XenServer with the least load.
Currently, the customer has a XenServer pool consisting of 16 XenServer hosts with 8 GB of memory and a 2 TB SATA hard disk A 2 TB Fibre Channel Storage Area Network is attached to the XenServer. The Provisioning services host is configured on a stand-alone server with 8 GB of memory and three 500 GB SCSI hard disks configured as a RAID 5 configuration. What is the best write caching method for deploying 800 target devices within a XenServer pool?
A. Cache on the target device and redirect to the RAM of the target device.
B. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on the local file system.
C. Cache on the target device and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
D. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In a Provisioning services environment, what is the default location of the write cache if no location is specified manually?
A. RAM of the target device
B. Local drive of the target device
C. A subdirectoryinthe vDisk location
D. A subdirectory in the default Provisioning services installation path
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning a XenDestop 5 Quick Deploy to demonstrate superior end user experience.
What would be considered when planning the Quick Deploy?
A. SQL Sewer 2008 R2 should first be instated and configured on the server that will run the Controller.
B. The SQL Server 2005 database for the XenDesktop site should be located on the same subnet as the Controller.
C. The hypervisor should on the same subnet as the SQL Server 2008 R2 database for the XenDesktop site.
D. SQL Express 2008 R2 should be installed as a prerequisite on the Controller running Microsoft Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company has two sites about 3000 miles apart, one in New York and the other in Los Angeles.
Each site has 1500 users. XenDesktop site access must be available for all the users at both locations.
High availability is required so no single port of failure is acceptable. A minimum of _______XenDesktop Controller(s) and _________Provisioning services host(s) are necessary to support all 3000 users given the requirements. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 1,1
B. 2,2
C. 3,3
D. 4,4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
According to Citrix best practices, which storage type should an administrator use to set up a XenDesktop environment using XenServer?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. NTFS
D. Clustered Shared Volume
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three storage types can XenServer use for the virtual machine disks if migrating virtual machines without downtime is required? (Choose three)
A. CSV
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. Local Disk
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to configure port exceptions to allow the collection of Windows metrics using the Windows Remote Management 2.0 service. 1Y0-A19 dumps Which port must the administrator allow for this environment?
A. 1494
B. 3389
C. 4752
D. 5985
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator configured a master virtual machine and created a pooled catalog with a desktop group. The administrator discovered that antivirus software was not installed on the master virtual machine.
How would the administrator update the image pool to include antivirus software for the pooled desktops with the least amount of administrative effort?
A. Recreate the master virtual machine and install the antivirus software.
B. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, then update the catalog
C. Convert the master virtual machine to a template and install antivirus software on the template.
D. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, take a snapshot of the virtual machine and assign the snapshot to the catalog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When installing XenDesktop5 using the Quick Deploy method, ___________ (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. all of the components must be installed on the same server
B. the master virtual machine must be running on XenServer 5.5 or higher
C. the master virtual machine must be a member of the same domain as the Controller
D. all of the components that need to be installed are the XenDesktop Controller, Desktop Studio and the license server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When too pieces of information must be supplied to install Proponing series and connect to a SQL Express database? (Choose two.)
A. File group
B. Host name
C. Port number
D. Instance name
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
An administrator using a third-party firewall needs to manually reconfigure the firewall to allow port 3389 in order to permit________ (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. HDX communication
B. database communication
C. shadowing through Desktop Director
D. remote assistance through Desktop Studio
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to create a Microsoft Windows 7 template for a XenDesktop environment and has already created a virtual machine with Microsoft Windows 7. Which step must the administrator take next before converting the virtual machine to a template?
A. Restart the virtual machine.
B. Restart the virtual hard disk.
C. Suspend the virtual hard disk.
D. Shut down the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a dedicated desktop to a new user?
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to log on to the appropriate Controller.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash content rendered on session hosts?
A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which user action is prevented by enabling the client clipboard redirection policy?
A. Uploading images from the Internet to a user session
B. Downloading images from the server to a user session
C. Copying and pasting between applications within user sessions
D. Copying and pasting between user sessions and the local machine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An administrator must configure the Web Interface in order to 3II0W users to access applications, virtual desktops and online content by clicking icons on their desktops or start menus. 1Y0-A19 dumps Which Web Interface site must the administrator configure to meet the requirements of this environment?
A. XenAppWeb
B. XenApp Services
C. XenDesktop Web
D. Desktop Appliance
E. XenDesktop Services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that end users can only access their client’s default printer during sessions. The administrator set the Auto-create client printers policy setting to ‘Auto-create the client’s default printer only’.
When additional policy setting must the administrator ensure is set to ‘Allowed’?
A. Default printer
B. Client printer redirection
C. Direct connections to print servers
D. Retained and restored client printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Scenario: An administrator created a catalog for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using Provisioning services. The catalog contains 500 desktop, and a desktop group contains 200 desktops from this catalog.
The Power Time Scheme for this desktop group is set to the default Fifty desk any desktops are in the use.
How many desktops are in the ‘off state?
A. 15
B. 75
C. 135
D. 150
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An administrator is configuring a master image and knows that the end users accessing it will need to useWinZip. Which delivery mechanism should the administrator use to deliver WinZip to the users?
A. Stream WinZip to a XenApp server.
B. Install WinZip on the XenClient image.
C. Host WnZip in a XenApp environment.
D. Install WinZip on the master image locally.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
An administrator needs to ensure that when user desktops are not in use at busy times of the day, they are added back into the idle pool. How should the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Set ‘When logged off’ to ten minutes/shutdown under ‘During peak hour’.
B. Set ‘When disconnected’ to five minutes/suspend under ‘During peak hours’.
C. Set ‘When logged off’ to twenty minutes/shutdown under ‘During off-peak hours’.
D. Set ‘When disconnected’ to fifteen minutes/suspend under ‘During off-peak hours’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which set of steps must be completed to configure a target device to start up from a vDisk?
A. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
B. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
C. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use private image access mode.
D. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use standard image access mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Scenario: All users in the Sales group must be able to save documents created on their virtual desktops to USB devices connected to their local desktops. Some users in the Sales group also belong to the Remote Users group; however, the Remote Users group must not be able to save documents to a local USB device. An administrator created the Sales USB policy, which allows Client USB device redirection for the Sales group, and the Remote Users USB policy, which prohibits Client USB device redirection for the Remote Users group.
Which additional step must the administrator take to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Set the Remote Users USB policy to ‘Disable’.
B. Edit the USB device list on the endpoint device.
C. Ensure that the Sales USB policy has highest priority.
D. Add Client USB device redirection rules to the Sales USB policy.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Scenario: The design for an environment requires that Web Interface is load balanced across multiple servers. An administrator has been asked to figure one master site and to distribute the configuration of that site throughout the Web Interface implementation. Which two steps must the administrator take in order to share the master site’s configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the boot strap configuration file of the other sites to point to the IP address of the master site.
B. Set up file sharing permission to allow access over the network to the configuration folder of the master site
C. Replace the configuration files of the other sites with the master site’s configuration file to ensure they point to the same configuration.
D. Change the setting of the configuration location parameter of the other sites to point to the absolute network path of the master site’s configuration.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Scenario: An administrator configured the Client fixed drives policy setting to allow all end users to access or save files to fixed drives on their devices. Users are still unable to map client fixed drives, and they cannot access the fixed drives manually.
Users are unable to map and access fixed drives on their user devices because _____ and _____. (Choose the two correct phases to complete the sentence.)
A. Asynchronous writes are NOT enabled
B. Client drive letters are NOT being preserved
C. The Client drive redirection policy setting is NOT enabled
D. The Auto connect client drives policy setting in NOT enabled
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 27
Which two terns are needed for an administrator to create a catalog for existing machines in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines available in the datacenter
B. Active Directory computer accounts for the machines
C. Device collections configured to load the vDisk over the network
D. A PrtMs.on.ng services deployment with a vDisk imaged from the master target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two components must an administrator install on a master image that will be used for streamed machines? 1Y0-A19 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Receiver
B. Online plug-in
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
An administrator made changes to a vDisk image and now needs the vDisk to use the original image instead of the updated image.
How could the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Unmount the vDisk, create a copy of the image, apply the rollback file to the copy, remount the vDisk and change the Class and Type of the vDisk
B. Copy the rollback file to the updates folder, use the ‘Schedule Automatic Disk Updates’ option and select ‘Check for incremental updates’ on the server
C. Apply the delta file to the updated image, use the ‘Enable Automatic Update for this vDisk1 option and select ‘Check for automatic updates’ on the save
D. Put the vDisk in Private image mode, change the version numbers back to the original vDisk image version numbers and put the vDisk back in standard image mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which two components does Citrix recommend an administrator install on a master image for optimal application access? (Choose two.)
A. Online plug-in
B. Offline plug-in
C. EdgeSight agent
D. provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: AB

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300-070 dumps

New Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (13-40)

QUESTION 13
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support only numeric values.
B. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns support only numeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translation patterns support only numeric values.
D. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which type of dial plan implements destinations by using a format that is similar to email addresses?
A. H.323.
B. E.164.
C. DNS.
D. URI.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of I080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?
A. 48
B. 180
C. 720
D. 800
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
The Cisco TelePresence Conductor will not handle conference requests if the administrator username/ password is configured as which of these options?
A. admin/TANDBERG
B. administrator/TANDBERG
C. tandberg/Cisco
D. admin/Cisco
E. cisco/Cisco
F. administrator/Cisco
G. cisco/TANDBERG
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.)
A. direct mode
B. H.225-routed mode
C. H.265-routed mode
D. H.245-routed mode
E. full proxy mode
F. partial proxy mode
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 18
When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default dial peer?
A. ID:3
B. PID:6
C. PID:0
D. PID:4
E. PID:5
F. PID:1
G. PID:2
H. PID:7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. 300-070 dumps Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-5551212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service.
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You are a Voice Engineer working at ABC Company. You are asked to configure Cisco Unified Border Element in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two configurations are required? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a SIP profile with Early Offer support for voice and video calls; insert MTP as needed.
B. Change the SIP trunk security profile to a nonsecure SIP trunk profile.
C. Under the SIP information configuration, set the destination port to 5061.
D. Bind the SIP signaling to the Cisco Unified Border Element interface.
E. Configure dial peers on Cisco Unified Border Element for inbound and outbound calls appropriately.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?
A. call classification
B. call location
C. device pool
D. signaling port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Where do you configure a SIP route pattern?
A. Call Routing andgt; Route/Hunt andgt; SIP Route Pattern
B. System andgt; SIP Route Pattern
C. Call Routing andgt; SIP Route Pattern
D. Advanced Features andgt; SIP Route Pattern
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Where is a Local Route Group configuration applied?
A. In each IP phone
B. In each device pool
C. In each location
D. In each region
E. In each route list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement about traffic policing and shaping is true?
A. Shaping limits traffic rates by dropping, re-marking, or transmitting traffic.
B. Policing involves regulating excessive traffic rates by delaying (that is, buffering) traffic.
C. Traffic policing and shaping help regulate bandwidth usage by limiting the amount of traffic.
D. Traffic policing is more suitable for lower-speed links such as Multilink PPP and Frame Relay, as it buffers excess traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which CUCM default global conference setting should be changed to ensure fraud prevention? 300-070 dumps
A. Advanced Ad Hoc Conference Enabled.
B. Block OffNet to OnNet Transfer.
C. MCU Conference Bridge Custom Layout Index.
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference.
E. Enable Click-to-Conference for Third-Party Applications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?
A. Ad Hoc Conferencing
B. Homogenous Conferencing
C. HeterogeneousConferencing
D. Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
E. Meet-Me Conferencing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. By adding a Cisco Unified CM server to the cluster.
B. By adding a software conference bridge using Conference Bridge Configuration.
C. By installing DSP to a Cisco Unified CM server.
D. By reassigning other media resources to conference resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are three features of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three).
A. Protocol Interworking.
B. Bandwidth Control.
C. Admission Request.
D. Automated Alternate Routing.
E. Address Hiding.
F. Security.
G. Video Integration.
Correct Answer: AFG

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which calling search space has the highest priority?
A. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
B. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
C. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
D. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which pattern does the route pattern \+61278[^-5]59 match?
A. \+61278359001
B. +61278459001
C. 278259001
D. +61278259001
E. +612783559001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3
B. DSCP AF21 value 46, Cos 5
C. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7
D. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which party has a SIP B2BUA role in the call?
A. 172.17.4.100
B. 10.100.4.65 and 172.17.4.100
C. 10.100.4.65
D. None of the parties has a B2BUA role in the call.
E. 10.100.4.68 and 10.100.4.65
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented? 300-070 dumps
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 39
Which groups will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers that are set to use the andlt;Noneandgt; partition?
A. Only users that have the andlt;Noneandgt; partition assigned in their calling search space will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
B. All users will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
C. The andlt;Noneandgt; partition will prevent all users from accessing the Meet-Me conference numbers.
D. Any IP phones with their lines configured in the andlt;Noneandgt; partition will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
Correct Answer: C

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Best IBM certifications I 000-744 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 3
Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 4
When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacityfrom use.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 6
When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 7
What best describes a drive in eplaced status? 000-744 dumps
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 8
When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 9
What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 10
In addition to the storage administrator’s e-mail address, what information do you need to set up e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender’s SMTP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
B. sender’s POP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
C. storage administrator’s POP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
D. storage administrator’s SMTP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 12
Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at different times.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 13
In the exhibit, which management method is being used?

A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 14
You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. 000-744 dumps The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control overdata going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 15
How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 16
To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 17
In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on logical drive” indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 18
When configuring a customer’s multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 19
A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 20
What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Correct Answers: B

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