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Newest Citrix 1Y0-A19 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Free Update (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A customer needs to configure a XenDesktop environment so that an end user has the best experience when launching a virtual desktop. The environment needs to be configured with fault tolerance so that when a XenServer goes down for maintenance the target device can still be deployed by any XenServer with the least load.
Currently, the customer has a XenServer pool consisting of 16 XenServer hosts with 8 GB of memory and a 2 TB SATA hard disk A 2 TB Fibre Channel Storage Area Network is attached to the XenServer. The Provisioning services host is configured on a stand-alone server with 8 GB of memory and three 500 GB SCSI hard disks configured as a RAID 5 configuration. What is the best write caching method for deploying 800 target devices within a XenServer pool?
A. Cache on the target device and redirect to the RAM of the target device.
B. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on the local file system.
C. Cache on the target device and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
D. Cache on the Provisioning services host and redirect the cache on a share within the Fibre Channel storage repository.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
In a Provisioning services environment, what is the default location of the write cache if no location is specified manually?
A. RAM of the target device
B. Local drive of the target device
C. A subdirectoryinthe vDisk location
D. A subdirectory in the default Provisioning services installation path
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An administrator is planning a XenDestop 5 Quick Deploy to demonstrate superior end user experience.
What would be considered when planning the Quick Deploy?
A. SQL Sewer 2008 R2 should first be instated and configured on the server that will run the Controller.
B. The SQL Server 2005 database for the XenDesktop site should be located on the same subnet as the Controller.
C. The hypervisor should on the same subnet as the SQL Server 2008 R2 database for the XenDesktop site.
D. SQL Express 2008 R2 should be installed as a prerequisite on the Controller running Microsoft Windows Server 2008.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company has two sites about 3000 miles apart, one in New York and the other in Los Angeles.
Each site has 1500 users. XenDesktop site access must be available for all the users at both locations.
High availability is required so no single port of failure is acceptable. A minimum of _______XenDesktop Controller(s) and _________Provisioning services host(s) are necessary to support all 3000 users given the requirements. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 1,1
B. 2,2
C. 3,3
D. 4,4
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
According to Citrix best practices, which storage type should an administrator use to set up a XenDesktop environment using XenServer?
A. NFS
B. CIFS
C. NTFS
D. Clustered Shared Volume
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three storage types can XenServer use for the virtual machine disks if migrating virtual machines without downtime is required? (Choose three)
A. CSV
B. NFS
C. iSCSI
D. Local Disk
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 7
An administrator needs to configure port exceptions to allow the collection of Windows metrics using the Windows Remote Management 2.0 service. 1Y0-A19 dumps Which port must the administrator allow for this environment?
A. 1494
B. 3389
C. 4752
D. 5985
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator configured a master virtual machine and created a pooled catalog with a desktop group. The administrator discovered that antivirus software was not installed on the master virtual machine.
How would the administrator update the image pool to include antivirus software for the pooled desktops with the least amount of administrative effort?
A. Recreate the master virtual machine and install the antivirus software.
B. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, then update the catalog
C. Convert the master virtual machine to a template and install antivirus software on the template.
D. Install the antivirus software on the master virtual machine, take a snapshot of the virtual machine and assign the snapshot to the catalog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
When installing XenDesktop5 using the Quick Deploy method, ___________ (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. all of the components must be installed on the same server
B. the master virtual machine must be running on XenServer 5.5 or higher
C. the master virtual machine must be a member of the same domain as the Controller
D. all of the components that need to be installed are the XenDesktop Controller, Desktop Studio and the license server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
When too pieces of information must be supplied to install Proponing series and connect to a SQL Express database? (Choose two.)
A. File group
B. Host name
C. Port number
D. Instance name
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
An administrator using a third-party firewall needs to manually reconfigure the firewall to allow port 3389 in order to permit________ (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. HDX communication
B. database communication
C. shadowing through Desktop Director
D. remote assistance through Desktop Studio
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to create a Microsoft Windows 7 template for a XenDesktop environment and has already created a virtual machine with Microsoft Windows 7. Which step must the administrator take next before converting the virtual machine to a template?
A. Restart the virtual machine.
B. Restart the virtual hard disk.
C. Suspend the virtual hard disk.
D. Shut down the virtual machine.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How can an administrator remotely access a Controller in a XenDesktop environment in order to assign a dedicated desktop to a new user?
A. Install the Controller software on the server being used to access the Controller and point it to the appropriate Controller.
B. Install Desktop Studio on the server being used to access the Controller and point Desktop Studio to the appropriate Controller.
C. Install Web Interface on the server being used to access the Controller and log on to the appropriate Controller through Web Interface.
D. Install Desktop Director on the server being used to access the Controller and use Desktop Director to log on to the appropriate Controller.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which HDX MediaStream policy setting must an administrator configure to adjust the quality of Flash content rendered on session hosts?
A. Flash (client-side)
B. Flash (server-side)
C. Multimedia Acceleration
D. Multimedia Acceleration buffer size
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which user action is prevented by enabling the client clipboard redirection policy?
A. Uploading images from the Internet to a user session
B. Downloading images from the server to a user session
C. Copying and pasting between applications within user sessions
D. Copying and pasting between user sessions and the local machine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
An administrator must configure the Web Interface in order to 3II0W users to access applications, virtual desktops and online content by clicking icons on their desktops or start menus. 1Y0-A19 dumps Which Web Interface site must the administrator configure to meet the requirements of this environment?
A. XenAppWeb
B. XenApp Services
C. XenDesktop Web
D. Desktop Appliance
E. XenDesktop Services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Scenario: An administrator needs to ensure that end users can only access their client’s default printer during sessions. The administrator set the Auto-create client printers policy setting to ‘Auto-create the client’s default printer only’.
When additional policy setting must the administrator ensure is set to ‘Allowed’?
A. Default printer
B. Client printer redirection
C. Direct connections to print servers
D. Retained and restored client printers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Scenario: An administrator created a catalog for virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) using Provisioning services. The catalog contains 500 desktop, and a desktop group contains 200 desktops from this catalog.
The Power Time Scheme for this desktop group is set to the default Fifty desk any desktops are in the use.
How many desktops are in the ‘off state?
A. 15
B. 75
C. 135
D. 150
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An administrator is configuring a master image and knows that the end users accessing it will need to useWinZip. Which delivery mechanism should the administrator use to deliver WinZip to the users?
A. Stream WinZip to a XenApp server.
B. Install WinZip on the XenClient image.
C. Host WnZip in a XenApp environment.
D. Install WinZip on the master image locally.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
An administrator needs to ensure that when user desktops are not in use at busy times of the day, they are added back into the idle pool. How should the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Set ‘When logged off’ to ten minutes/shutdown under ‘During peak hour’.
B. Set ‘When disconnected’ to five minutes/suspend under ‘During peak hours’.
C. Set ‘When logged off’ to twenty minutes/shutdown under ‘During off-peak hours’.
D. Set ‘When disconnected’ to fifteen minutes/suspend under ‘During off-peak hours’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which action must an administrator take before implementing HDX MediaStream Flash Redirection?
A. Install the Flash Player on the server.
B. Stream the Flash Player to the server.
C. Install the Flash Player on the user device.
D. Stream the Flash Player to the user device.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which set of steps must be completed to configure a target device to start up from a vDisk?
A. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
B. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and set device to start up from vDisk.
C. Add target device to a site, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use private image access mode.
D. Add target device to a collection, assign a vDisk to the device and configure the vDisk to use standard image access mode.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Scenario: All users in the Sales group must be able to save documents created on their virtual desktops to USB devices connected to their local desktops. Some users in the Sales group also belong to the Remote Users group; however, the Remote Users group must not be able to save documents to a local USB device. An administrator created the Sales USB policy, which allows Client USB device redirection for the Sales group, and the Remote Users USB policy, which prohibits Client USB device redirection for the Remote Users group.
Which additional step must the administrator take to meet the needs of this scenario?
A. Set the Remote Users USB policy to ‘Disable’.
B. Edit the USB device list on the endpoint device.
C. Ensure that the Sales USB policy has highest priority.
D. Add Client USB device redirection rules to the Sales USB policy.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Scenario: An administrator needs to create a catalog. Provisioning services-based virtual machines will be imported into the catalog. Which machine type must the administrator select when creating the catalog?
A. Pooled
B. Existing
C. Streamed
D. Dedicated
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Scenario: The design for an environment requires that Web Interface is load balanced across multiple servers. An administrator has been asked to figure one master site and to distribute the configuration of that site throughout the Web Interface implementation. Which two steps must the administrator take in order to share the master site’s configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Edit the boot strap configuration file of the other sites to point to the IP address of the master site.
B. Set up file sharing permission to allow access over the network to the configuration folder of the master site
C. Replace the configuration files of the other sites with the master site’s configuration file to ensure they point to the same configuration.
D. Change the setting of the configuration location parameter of the other sites to point to the absolute network path of the master site’s configuration.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 26
Scenario: An administrator configured the Client fixed drives policy setting to allow all end users to access or save files to fixed drives on their devices. Users are still unable to map client fixed drives, and they cannot access the fixed drives manually.
Users are unable to map and access fixed drives on their user devices because _____ and _____. (Choose the two correct phases to complete the sentence.)
A. Asynchronous writes are NOT enabled
B. Client drive letters are NOT being preserved
C. The Client drive redirection policy setting is NOT enabled
D. The Auto connect client drives policy setting in NOT enabled
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 27
Which two terns are needed for an administrator to create a catalog for existing machines in a XenDesktop environment? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machines available in the datacenter
B. Active Directory computer accounts for the machines
C. Device collections configured to load the vDisk over the network
D. A PrtMs.on.ng services deployment with a vDisk imaged from the master target device
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two components must an administrator install on a master image that will be used for streamed machines? 1Y0-A19 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Receiver
B. Online plug-in
C. Virtual Desktop Agent
D. Provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
An administrator made changes to a vDisk image and now needs the vDisk to use the original image instead of the updated image.
How could the administrator accomplish this task?
A. Unmount the vDisk, create a copy of the image, apply the rollback file to the copy, remount the vDisk and change the Class and Type of the vDisk
B. Copy the rollback file to the updates folder, use the ‘Schedule Automatic Disk Updates’ option and select ‘Check for incremental updates’ on the server
C. Apply the delta file to the updated image, use the ‘Enable Automatic Update for this vDisk1 option and select ‘Check for automatic updates’ on the save
D. Put the vDisk in Private image mode, change the version numbers back to the original vDisk image version numbers and put the vDisk back in standard image mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which two components does Citrix recommend an administrator install on a master image for optimal application access? (Choose two.)
A. Online plug-in
B. Offline plug-in
C. EdgeSight agent
D. provisioning services target device
Correct Answer: AB

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New Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (13-40)

QUESTION 13
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support only numeric values.
B. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns support only numeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translation patterns support only numeric values.
D. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which type of dial plan implements destinations by using a format that is similar to email addresses?
A. H.323.
B. E.164.
C. DNS.
D. URI.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of I080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?
A. 48
B. 180
C. 720
D. 800
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
The Cisco TelePresence Conductor will not handle conference requests if the administrator username/ password is configured as which of these options?
A. admin/TANDBERG
B. administrator/TANDBERG
C. tandberg/Cisco
D. admin/Cisco
E. cisco/Cisco
F. administrator/Cisco
G. cisco/TANDBERG
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.)
A. direct mode
B. H.225-routed mode
C. H.265-routed mode
D. H.245-routed mode
E. full proxy mode
F. partial proxy mode
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 18
When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default dial peer?
A. ID:3
B. PID:6
C. PID:0
D. PID:4
E. PID:5
F. PID:1
G. PID:2
H. PID:7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. 300-070 dumps Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-5551212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service.
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You are a Voice Engineer working at ABC Company. You are asked to configure Cisco Unified Border Element in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two configurations are required? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a SIP profile with Early Offer support for voice and video calls; insert MTP as needed.
B. Change the SIP trunk security profile to a nonsecure SIP trunk profile.
C. Under the SIP information configuration, set the destination port to 5061.
D. Bind the SIP signaling to the Cisco Unified Border Element interface.
E. Configure dial peers on Cisco Unified Border Element for inbound and outbound calls appropriately.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?
A. call classification
B. call location
C. device pool
D. signaling port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Where do you configure a SIP route pattern?
A. Call Routing andgt; Route/Hunt andgt; SIP Route Pattern
B. System andgt; SIP Route Pattern
C. Call Routing andgt; SIP Route Pattern
D. Advanced Features andgt; SIP Route Pattern
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Where is a Local Route Group configuration applied?
A. In each IP phone
B. In each device pool
C. In each location
D. In each region
E. In each route list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement about traffic policing and shaping is true?
A. Shaping limits traffic rates by dropping, re-marking, or transmitting traffic.
B. Policing involves regulating excessive traffic rates by delaying (that is, buffering) traffic.
C. Traffic policing and shaping help regulate bandwidth usage by limiting the amount of traffic.
D. Traffic policing is more suitable for lower-speed links such as Multilink PPP and Frame Relay, as it buffers excess traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which CUCM default global conference setting should be changed to ensure fraud prevention? 300-070 dumps
A. Advanced Ad Hoc Conference Enabled.
B. Block OffNet to OnNet Transfer.
C. MCU Conference Bridge Custom Layout Index.
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference.
E. Enable Click-to-Conference for Third-Party Applications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?
A. Ad Hoc Conferencing
B. Homogenous Conferencing
C. HeterogeneousConferencing
D. Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
E. Meet-Me Conferencing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. By adding a Cisco Unified CM server to the cluster.
B. By adding a software conference bridge using Conference Bridge Configuration.
C. By installing DSP to a Cisco Unified CM server.
D. By reassigning other media resources to conference resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are three features of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three).
A. Protocol Interworking.
B. Bandwidth Control.
C. Admission Request.
D. Automated Alternate Routing.
E. Address Hiding.
F. Security.
G. Video Integration.
Correct Answer: AFG

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which calling search space has the highest priority?
A. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
B. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
C. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
D. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which pattern does the route pattern \+61278[^-5]59 match?
A. \+61278359001
B. +61278459001
C. 278259001
D. +61278259001
E. +612783559001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3
B. DSCP AF21 value 46, Cos 5
C. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7
D. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which party has a SIP B2BUA role in the call?
A. 172.17.4.100
B. 10.100.4.65 and 172.17.4.100
C. 10.100.4.65
D. None of the parties has a B2BUA role in the call.
E. 10.100.4.68 and 10.100.4.65
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented? 300-070 dumps
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 39
Which groups will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers that are set to use the andlt;Noneandgt; partition?
A. Only users that have the andlt;Noneandgt; partition assigned in their calling search space will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
B. All users will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
C. The andlt;Noneandgt; partition will prevent all users from accessing the Meet-Me conference numbers.
D. Any IP phones with their lines configured in the andlt;Noneandgt; partition will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 2
What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 3
Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 4
When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacityfrom use.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 6
When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 7
What best describes a drive in eplaced status? 000-744 dumps
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 8
When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 9
What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 10
In addition to the storage administrator’s e-mail address, what information do you need to set up e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender’s SMTP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
B. sender’s POP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
C. storage administrator’s POP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
D. storage administrator’s SMTP server address, the sender’s e-mail address
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Correct Answers: C

QUESTION 12
Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at different times.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 13
In the exhibit, which management method is being used?

A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 14
You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. 000-744 dumps The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control overdata going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 15
How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 16
To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 17
In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on logical drive” indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Correct Answers: A

QUESTION 18
When configuring a customer’s multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Correct Answers: B

QUESTION 19
A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Correct Answers: D

QUESTION 20
What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Correct Answers: B

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Best Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps exam (1-30) questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two elements that are associated with customer interaction is the Seven Elements Framework used to plan? (Choose two.)
A. general communications
B. high-impact negotiations
C. business concepts
D. prior solutions considered
E. seller\’s authority for pricing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are major tensions that business performance measurement could help balance? (Choose two.)
A. Responsive / non-responsive.
B. Different performance expectations.
C. Profit, growth and control.
D. Critical / non-critical.
E. Monitor and control.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 6
According to research, what is the leading reason that technology projects fail? 810-403 dumps
A. poor stakeholder identification and management
B. lack of budget
C. too many stakeholders
D. lack of a business model canvas
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which is the main outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Organizations want more from their IT solutions which respect to value, time-to-market, and measurable outcomes.
B. Organizations want to improve the chain of value based on the cost of IT solutions they provide.
C. Organizations want to develop marketing and communicational strategies in order to sell more efficiently.
D. Organizations want to offer a renewed portfolio in order to increase share value.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How does an open plan volume licensing model works?
A. It does not specify individual users, so any user can access the service.
B. It provides the organization with an agreed number of users.
C. The costs are directly related to usage, not quantity of users.
D. The enterprise pays as it acquires services.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 11
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 13
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. Advanced Routing
B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which option is most likely to improve interactions with customers?
A. Understand their communication style.
B. Understand the goals of their team.
C. Learn their personal interests.
D. Know the time available to present the solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Related to business outcomes, why are customers looking for Cisco and its Partners\’ solutions and services?
A. To explore how technology innovation yields new revenue, lower costs, or reduce risk in more detail
B. To help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while relying on a human interaction faster
C. To help them more quickly or effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies in which they make investments
D. To allow customers to complete a marketing research as part of their investment funds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When selling business outcomes, which two key factors must be considered in relation to the achievement of the outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. metrics and measurement
B. project management milestones
C. specific timeframe and milestones
D. communication procedures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which two options have a positive impact on costs from the direct benefits provided by?
A. Enabling rapid growth to new markets andamp; geographies
B. Managing technology obsolescence
C. Managing technology innovation
D. Saving OpEx shifting to predicable CapEx
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Which question provides the best information to define customer success factors? 810-403 dumps
A. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
B. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
C. What services do you need?
D. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 23
Which tool is recommended to help identify customer responsibilities in one of their business processes?
A. BMC chart
B. RACE report
C. Agile chart
D. RACI chart
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which option is a key concept of the unique Cisco sales approach?
A. Add as many new Cisco technologies to the solution that meet customer needs.
B. Start driving outcomes for customers, and go beyond selling and implementing technology solutions.
C. Put together the most logical set of services for the customer.
D. Engage in dialog about customer needs and new technologies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What are the phases of the Seven Elements framework?
A. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
B. Past, Present, Future.
C. Previous, Present, Posterior.
D. Before, In Between, After.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 29
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, 810-403 dumps to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are multicast addresses? 200-150 dumps (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
200-150 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
A company has a single subnet in a small office. The administrator wants to limit non-web related traffic to the corporate intranet server as well as prevent abnormal HTTP requests and HTTP protocol anomalies from causing problems with the web server. 200-150 dumps Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Application firewall and NIPS
B. Edge firewall and HIDS
C. ACLs and anti-virus
D. Host firewall and WAF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site.
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site. 1Y0-351 dumps
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An engineer has been hired to manage the content-switching configurations on the NetScaler.
The user account for this engineer must have the standard rules that apply to the other administrators.
What should the engineer do to allow for the extra privileges?
A. Modify the current Command Policy and then save the changes.
B. Unbind the current Command Policy of the user account and then save the changes.
C. Remove the custom Command Policy and then create one with the new requirements.
D. Create a custom Command Policy and bind it to the user account with the highest priority.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A network engineer needs to configure smart card-based authentication on NetScaler Access Gateway.
Which type of authentication policy could the engineer configure in order to accomplish this task?
A. Local
B. RADIUS
C. Certificate
D. Secure LDAP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network.
Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?
A. Network -> IPs
B. System -> Auditing
C. AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D. Protection Features -> Filter
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address. 1Y0-351 dumps
Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?
A. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B. set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C. set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D. set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Company policy states that SNMP management should only be allowed from specific hosts.
What should the network engineer do to prevent unauthorized access to SNMP?
A. Add an SNMP manager.
B. Add an SNMP trap destination.
C. Check secure access only on the NSIP.
D. Add an SNMP community name that is difficult to guess.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for secured web traffic that does NOT terminate at the NetScaler device.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Source IP
B. Cookie Insert
C. URL Passive
D. SRCIPDESTIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has two sites that host six cache web servers that are used to promote sales information.
Which feature on the NetScaler should an engineer enable to provide faster application performance and also provide additional capacity if the demand increases for one site?
A. Load balancing
B. Integrated Cache
C. Responder Policy
D. Content switching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. 1Y0-351 dumps Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Scenario: The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An administrator needs to install a XenApp 6.5 server to act as an additional dedicated data collector.
After installing XenApp on the new server, the next step is to configure it by enabling the __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. Session-host mode only
B. Controller and Session-host modes
C. data collector and XML Broker host mode
D. data collector and XTE Service host mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp 6.5 farm with one zone. All servers in the zone have identical hardware and software. The zone is configured with a primary data collector with a preference of Most Preferred and a backup data collector with a preference of Preferred. All other XenApp servers in the zone have a preference of Not Preferred.
If both the primary and backup zone data collectors are turned off, the XenApp server in the zone that will be elected the new primary zone data collector is the one __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. with the lowest Host ID number
B. with the highest Host ID number
C. that responds last to the election request
D. that responds first to the election request
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for the new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have more than 100 XenApp servers and 500 published resources, support more than 5,000 concurrent users and have two zones separated by a WAN connection.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 9.7
B. Oracle Enterprise 11.1
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for a new XenApp 6.5 data store. The new farm will have multiple zones over WAN connections with low bandwidth and high latency.
Which two database options should the administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 Express R2
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Scenario: The administrator of a XenApp Enterprise Edition server farm is configuring Single Sign-on for the users of the farm. 1Y0-A20 dumps The Citrix license server was installed with the default vendor daemon and console Web port numbers, but NOT the default license server port number.
Of the port numbers that are in use in the XenApp server farm, which one should the administrator specify for the license server during Single Sign-on configuration?
A. 443
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27009
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Scenario: The administrator of a small XenApp server farm has configured end-to-end data encryption between the XenApp servers and user devices by setting up Access Gateway VPX. Session Reliability is enabled in the farm with default settings.
Over which port will published applications be delivered?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which Citrix service should an administrator monitor when troubleshooting issues with Session Reliability?
A. IMA
B. XML
C. XTE
D. MFCom
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. Because of the existing network security practices, the administrator has to separate the Citrix license server from the XenApp server farm with a firewall.
Which two ports should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the XenApp servers to contact the Citrix license server? (Choose two.)
A. 2512
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 9
Scenario: An administrator is hired to implement a new XenApp server farm in an existing network. The administrator needs to manage the Citrix license server, which is located behind a firewall.
Which port should the administrator ask the network security team to configure on the firewall to allow the administrator to manage the license server?
A. 135
B. 2513
C. 7279
D. 8082
E. 27000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Scenario: An administrator recently configured Session Reliability on a XenApp server which delivers one published application to 20 users on the local network.
After configuring Session Reliability, the administrator ran Microsoft TCPView to monitor a service that Session Reliability uses. The administrator notices that users are connecting to the published application on port 443 but NOT on the default Session Reliability port. The administrator verified that Session Reliability is configured and working.
Which two reasons explain why the users are connecting to the published application on port 443? (Choose two.)
A. SSL/TLS is enabled in the published application’s properties.
B. Data encryption has been enabled using the SSL Relay Configuration tool.
C. A policy is enabled to encrypt the session data between the server and user devices.
D. The published application is configured to allow connections made through Access Gateway Advanced Edition.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
An administrator needs to ensure that new XenApp servers are automatically added to worker groups. 1Y0-A20 dumps
When creating a worker group, which two options could the administrator select to meet the requirements of the scenario?(Choose two.)
A. Application Folder
B. Local Security Group
C. XenApp Farm Server Group
D. Active Directory Server Group
E. Active Directory Organizational Unit
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp farm that uses Citrix Provisioning Services to automate the addition of XenApp servers to the farm. The administrator must implement a solution to automate the addition of new servers to the published resources, load evaluators, Citrix policies and load balancing policies.
Which two should the administrator configure to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Zones
B. Policies
C. Worker groups
D. Load evaluators
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Scenario: An administrator is setting up a XenApp farm. There are 15 to 25 users in the farm. To ensure high availability, two servers will be installed. The administrator is deciding on the best placement for the Web Interface server. Remote access is NOT going to be considered at this time.
The administrator should install the Web Interface __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. on both servers
B. on one of the two servers
C. and XenApp on both servers
D. and XenApp on one of the servers
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In building out a new XenApp environment, an administrator places the Secure Gateway and Web Interface in the DMZ.
What must the administrator do to secure the traffic to the XML Broker?
A. Change the XML traffic port to a non-standard assignment.
B. Use the SSL Relay tool to encrypt traffic to the XML Broker in the farm.
C. Place the XML Broker in the DMZ and encrypt the traffic between them.
D. Use encrypted ICA to communicate between the XML Broker and the Web Interface.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Scenario: An administrator is unable to start the IMA Service on a single XenApp server. The administrator suspects another administrator may have changed the contents of the file that holds the connectivity information for the server to the data store server.
Which file should the administrator check to verify the service connectivity information?
A. :\Program Files\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.dsn
B. :\Program Files\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.mdb
C. :\Program Files (x86)\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.dsn
D. :\Program Files (x86)\Citrix\Independent Management Architecture\MF20.mdb
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Scenario: An administrator is notified that a single XenApp server has an issue with starting the IMA Service. A quick check of all dependent services shows there are NO issues. When the administrator checks the MF20.dsn file using Notepad, the file is unreadable and contains miscellaneous characters. 1Y0-A20 dumps
In order to quickly resolve this issue, the administrator should copy the __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. contents only of a working server’s IMA folder
B. folder and contents from a working server’s IMA folder
C. MF20.dsn file from another server and reinstall XenApp 6.5
D. MF20.dsn file from another server, renaming the hostname of the XenApp Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Scenario: Users are receiving the error shown in the attached exhibit when connecting to Notepad on XenApp.
The administrator runs the QUERY FARM command on the server and receives results in the second attached exhibit.
1Y0-A20 dumps
Which configuration component is causing the high application load?
A. An Active Directory group policy
B. A load balancing preference policy
C. A load evaluator applied to the server
D. A load evaluator applied to the application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Scenario: Users are receiving the error shown in the attached exhibit when connecting to Notepad on XenApp.
1Y0-A20 dumps
The administrator runs the QUERY FARM command on the server and receives the results shown in the second attached exhibit.
Which three events could the server load value of 10,000 indicate? (Choose three.)
A. The server is offline.
B. The server CANNOT contact the Citrix license server.
C. The server has reached its limit of 10,000 running processes.
D. A server load evaluator applied by policy indicates the server is at full load.
E. The particular server has a problem reading performance counter information.
F. The administrator has assigned an invalid load evaluator to the server using a policy.
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 19
Scenario: Users complain that first thing in the morning they receive errors when trying to launch their application and have to re-try many times. At other times of the day, there are NO issues.
What could be causing the morning issue?
A. A load throttling load evaluator is limiting the number of concurrent logons.
B. A scheduling load evaluator is restricting the maximum server load at this time.
C. A server load load evaluator is limiting the number of concurrent users in the farm.
D. An application user load load evaluator is limiting the maximum number of users allowed to run the application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A company recently upgraded all their Citrix licenses from XenApp Enterprise to XenApp Platinum. The Citrix License Server has been correctly updated and configured with the correct Citrix license files. Now users are NOT able to connect.
Which step should the administrator take to allow users to connect again?
A. Restart the server hosting the Citrix data store.
B. Upgrade the Delivery Services Console to the AppCenter.
C. Update the XenApp product edition in the Computer policy.
D. Restart all Citrix servers reporting 20,000 as their current load.
Correct Answer: C

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70-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that has the Print and Document Services server role installed. You need to provide users with the ability to manage print jobs on Server1 by using a web browser.
What should you do?
A. Start the Computer Browser service and set the service to start automatically.
B. Install the LPD Service role service.
C. Install the Internet Printing role service.
D. Start the Printer Extensions and Notifications service and set the service to start automatically.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You work as an administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers in the L2P.com domain have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed, while domain controllers have Windows Server 2008 R2 installed.
You are then tasked with deploying a new Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller. You are preparing to install the DNS Server role, and enable the global catalog server option.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider making use of Server Manager.
B. You should consider making use of the Active Directory Installation Wizard.
C. You should consider making use of the DHCP Installation Wizard
D. You should consider making use of TS Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain namedL2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing Storage Spaces.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Storage Spaces?
A. Mirroring and parity are optional resilient storage modes of Storage Spaces.
B. Failover clustering is not supported by Storage Spaces.
C. Storage spaces are virtual disks with associated attributes such as a preferred level of resiliency, and thin or fixed provisioning.
D. Storage spaces are a collection of physical disks with associated attributes such as a preferred level of resiliency, and thin or fixed provisioning.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. 70-410 dumps All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing connection security rules.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to connection security rules? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Connection security rules allows for traffic to be secured via IPsec.
B. Connection security rules do not allow the traffic through the firewall.
C. Connection security rules are applied to programs or services.
D. Connection security rules are applied between two computers.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed. You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing Group Policy preference.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Group Policy preference?
A. It supports applications and operating system features that are not compatible with Group Policy
B. It does not support item-level targeting.
C. It is the same as Group Policy filtering.
D. It does not cause the application or operating system feature to disable the user interface for the settings they configure.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.All client computers run Windows 8.
You need to ensure that when users are connected to the network, they always use local offline files that are cached from Server1.
Which Group Policy setting should you configure?
A. Configure Slow link speed.
B. Turn on economical application of administratively assigned Offline Files.
C. Configure slow-link mode.
D. Enable file synchronization on costed networks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 and has the File Server server role installed.
On Server1, you create a share named Documents. The Share permission for the Documents share is configured as shown in the following table.
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The NTFS permission for the Documents share is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
You need to configure the Share and NTFS permissions for the Documents share. The permissions must meet the following requirements:
– Ensure that the members of a group named Group1 can read files and run programs in – Documents. Ensure that the members of Group1 can modify the permissions on their own files in Documents.
– Ensure that the members of Group1 can create folders and files in Documents.
– Minimize the number of permissions assigned to users and groups.
How should you configure the permissions?
To answer, drag the appropriate permission to the correct location. Each permission may be used once, more than once, or not at all. 70-410 dumps You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-410 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1. The domain contains a standalone server named Server2 that is located in a perimeter network. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to manage Server2 remotely from Server1.
What should you do?
A. From Server2, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
B. From Server1, run the winrni command.
C. From Server2, run the winrm command.
D. From Server1, run the Enable-PsRemoting cmdlet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 and Server2 run a Server with a GUI installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You remove the Graphical Management Tools and Infrastructure feature on Server2. You need to restart Server2. What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct statements.
Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-410 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the DHCP Server server role installed.
You create two IPv4 scopes on Server1. 70-410 dumps The scopes are configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
The DHCP clients in Subnet_Tor can connect to the client computers in Subnet_Mtl by using an IP address or a FQDN. You discover that the DHCP clients in Subnet_Mtl can connect to client computers in Subnet_Tor by using an IP address only.
You need to ensure that the DHCP clients in both subnets can connect to any other DHCP client by using a FQDN.
What should you add?
A. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Mtl
B. The 015 DNS Domain Name option to Subnet_Tor
C. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Mtl
D. The 006 DNS Servers option to Subnet_Tor
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All of the AppLocker policy settings for the member servers are configured in a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
A member server named Server1 runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
On Server1, you test a new set of AppLocker policy settings by using a local computer policy. You need to merge the local AppLocker policy settings from Server1 into the AppLocker policy settings of GPO1.
What should you do?
A. From Local Group Policy Editor on Server1, export an .inf file. Import the .inf file by using Group Policy Management Editor.
B. From Server1, run the Set-ApplockerPolicycmdlet.
C. From Local Group Policy Editor on Server1, export an .xml file. Import the .xml file by using Group Policy Management Editor.
D. From Server1, run the New-ApplockerPolicycmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a production Active Directory forest named contoso.com and a test Active Directory forest named contoso.test. A trust relationship does not exist between the forests.
In the contoso.test domain, you create a backup of a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1.
You transfer the backup of GPO1 to a domain controller in the contoso.com domain.
You need to create a GPO in contoso.com based on the settings of GPO1.You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Get- GPO cmdlet and the Copy- GPO cmdlet.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the New- GPO cmdlet and the Import- GPO cmdlet.
C. From Group Policy Management, create a new starter GPO.Right-click the new starter GPO, and then click Restore from Backup.
D. From Group Policy Management, right-click the Croup Policy Objects container, and then click Manage Backups.
Correct Answer: B

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70-411 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1.
You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1.
What should you configure?
A. Security Filtering.
B. WMI Filtering.
C. Block Inheritance.
D. Item-level targeting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008 R2.
You plan to test Windows Server 2012 R2 by using native-boot virtual hard disks (VHDs).
You have a Windows image file named file1.wim.
You need to add an image of a volume to file1.wim.
What should you do?
A. Run imagex.exe and specify the /append parameter.
B. Run imagex.exe and specify the /export parameter.
C. Run dism.exe and specify the /image parameter.
D. Run dism.exe and specify the /append-image parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You have a DNS server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The server hosts the zone for contoso.com and is accessible from the Internet. 70-411 dumps
You need to create a DNS record for the Sender Policy Framework (SPF) to list the hosts that are authorized to send email for contoso.com.
Which type of record should you create?
A. mail exchanger (MX)
B. resource record signature (RRSIG)
C. text (TXT)
D. name server (NS)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Director domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named Server1. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have two user accounts named User1 and User2. User1 and User2 are the members of a group named Group1. User1 has the Department value set to Accounting, user2 has the Department value set to Marketing. Both users have the Employee Type value set to Contract Employee.
You create the auditing entry as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibit.
Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-411 dumps
QUESTION 5
Your network contains four Network Policy Server (NPS) servers named Server1, Server2, Servers, and Server4.
Server1 is configured as a RADIUS proxy that forwards connection requests to a remote RADIUS server group named Group1.
You need to ensure that Server2 and Server3 receive connection requests. Server4 must only receive connection requests if both Server2 and Server3 are unavailable.
How should you configure Group1?
A. Change the Weight of Server4 to 10.
B. Change the Weight of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
C. Change the Priority of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
D. Change the Priority of Server4 to 10.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy Server server role installed.
The domain contains a server named Server2 that is configured for RADIUS accounting.
Server1 is configured as a VPN server and is configured to forward authentication requests to Server2. 70-411 dumps
You need to ensure that only Server2 contains event information about authentication requests from connections to Server1.
Which two nodes should you configure from the Network Policy Server console?
To answer, select the appropriate two nodes in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-411 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-411 dumps
QUESTION 7
You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed.
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?
A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-411 dumps
Server1 has the following role services installed:
– DirectAccess and VPN (RRAS)
– Network Policy Server
Remote users have client computers that run either Windows XP, Windows 7, or Windows 8.
You need to ensure that only the client computers that run Windows 7 or Windows 8 can establish VPN connections to Server1.
What should you configure on Server1?
A. A condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
B. A constraint of a Network Policy Server (NPS) network policy
C. a condition of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
D. A vendor-specific RADIUS attribute of a Network Policy Server (NPS) connection request policy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a read-only domain controller (RODC) named RODC1.
You create a global group named RODC_Admins.
You need to provide the members of RODC_Admins with the ability to manage the hardware and the software on R0DC1. The solution must not provide RODC_Admins with the ability to manage Active Directory objects.
What should you do?
A. From Active Directory Site and Services, configure the Security settings of the RODC1 server object.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADAccountControlcmdlet.
C. From a command prompt, run the dsmgmt local roles command.
D. From Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the Member Of settings of the RODC1 account.
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco Systems Inc. (GOOG) Management Cisco Cloudy Strategy Conference (Transcript)

Cisco continues to dominate the global exchange and router markets, with the technology giant taking a 51% share of the market as end-user investments rebound.

According to Synergy Research Group’s Q3 data, Cisco currently holds a share of enterprise routers in individual segments, ranging from 63% of enterprise routers to 38% of service provider routers, representing a supply from the first quarter of 2016 The best share of business performance.

The Cisco Spark service offers a wide range of collaboration capabilities including team messaging, voice and video calling, online conferencing, whiteboarding, and a set of application programming interfaces (APIs) for workflow optimization across multiple enterprise applications.
Cisco
Cisco Spark by Orange is being used by global enterprises that want a mobile workspace that can scale from a single seat to a collaborative environment. Michael Burrell, global business director for unified communications at Orange Business Services, told FierceTelecom that more corporate customers are using the service.

Some of the customers already taking advantage of the service include a global mining company that is using Cisco Spark with WebEx and Spark Boards to enable collaboration.

With 24×7 support and seamless integration with existing service management, Cisco Spark enables organizations to reduce costs globally and at the same time increase end-user productivity with free phone numbers and competitive rates at call-back.

As a large supplier, Orange Business Services will provide the customer’s corporate network with the necessary Cisco Spark platform management and integration. Like other providers, Orange Business Services is keen on taking advantage of the growing hybrid cloud trend.
Cisco
The service provider can integrate various functions, including Cisco’s UC solution, integrate video conferencing or cloud connected audio.

Spark supports a wide range of endpoints and integrates with the phone or video as well as the Spark Board (a 55-70 inch screen that can be used as a whiteboard, video or audio conferencing unit).

This network of labs provides a global mix of physical and virtual resources, which is designed to provide a dedicated space for innovation and development. To enable customers to try on the service, Orange has opened 11 Cisco Spark by Orange Open Labs. Initially, the lab will include eight major locations in Europe and Singapore, as well as two locations in the United States.

Customer usage labs integrate collaboration, connectivity, robotics development, and application integration with the Cisco Spark API catalog. The lab provides a real-time software and API development environment between Cisco Spark and third-party applications.
Cisco
Enterprises will be able to develop specific apps leveraging Cisco Spark by Orange APIs and integrate them smoothly into their business processes, maximizing efficiency and resources.

For example, a bank customer can create a robot to extract personal financial documents in secure Spark space. Customers can also create a Spark space for specific customers, with different teams, from sales to marketing and customer service, to documents, chat or video conferencing through an expert.

The lab is the realization of something that’s been promised for a long time in the unified communications and collaboration space, which is communications-enabled business processes, Rather than the process being separate from the collaboration tools and applications, it becomes meshed in the process to improve the output of it.

Reference: https://www.fiercetelecom.com/telecom/orange-business-services-cisco-spark-based-platform-reaches-200k-user-subscriptions

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