[2020.3] Latest effectiveness of F5 Certification 101 exam dumps and online practice tests

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Latest Update F5 Certification 101 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following does NOT describe network performance management?
A. Updating software on various devices
B. Seeing graphs in near real-time
C. Visibility into multiple network devices
D. Being alerted to an issue as it happens
E. Viewing virtual server statistics
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Without creating a user defined region, what is the most specific group a topology record can identify?
A. city
B. country
C. continent
D. state/province
E. region of country
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which level of parameter assumes the highest precedence in BIG-IP ASM System processing logic?
A. Flow
B. Object
C. Global
D. URL
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A top-level DNS zone uses a CNAME record to point to a sub-zone. Which of the following is an example of a subzone?
A. www.F5.com/sub
B. www.F5.com
C. www.gslb.F5.com
D. .com
E. f5.com
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A web client accesses a web application using what protocol?
A. TCP
B. XML
C. HTML D. HTTP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
Why is BIG-IP ASM ideally suited to protect against layer 7 attacks, including HTTP and HTTPS/SSL traffic, when
compared to an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?
A. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is based on Packet Filtering.
B. An IPS doesn\\’t have the visibility into HTTPS traffic. it doesn\\’t understand what applications are in the network.
C. An IPS only focus on operating system attacks; it doesn\\’t understand what application are in the network.
D. An IPS can only look at overall traffic patterns; it doesn\\’t understand what applications are in the network.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
GTM can load balance to LTM in addition to non-BIG-IP hosts.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
After editing and saving changes to the configuration file containing virtual servers, what is the immediate result?
A. The new configuration is verified and loaded.
B. The new configuration is verified not loaded.
C. The new configuration is verified.
D. The new configuration is loaded but not verified.
E. The new configuration is neither verified not loaded.
F. The new configuration is verified and loaded if is it syntactically correct.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 9
CORRECT TEXT LTM runs on________F5\\’s proprietary product platform. (Fill in the correct answer)
Correct Answer: TMOS

 

QUESTION 10
What is the main business driver for bringing Enterprise Manager into the network infrastructure?
A. Consolidate management of administrator and user accounts
B. Consolidate management of licenses
C. Consolidate management of SSL certificates
D. Consolidate management of BIG-IP devices
E. Consolidate management of access policies
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Which two can be a part of a pool\\’s definition? (Choose two.)
A. rule(s)
B. profile(s)
C. monitor(s)
D. persistence type
E. load balancing mode
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 12
What does the BIG-IP_add script do?
A. add BIG-IP servers to the wideip.conf file
B. add an existing GTM System to a sync group
C. synchronize configuration files between BIG-IP Systems
D. exchange web certificates and keys between BIG-IP Systems
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are four of the security benefits of TMOS? (Choose four.)
A. It verifies traffic based on antivirus signatures.
B. It provides protection against DDoS.
C. It uses SYN cookies and dynamic connection reapers.
D. It supplies guidance for poorly developed applications.
E. It denies all traffic that hasn\\’t been defined.
F. It can hide confidential information from outbound traffic.
Correct Answer: BCEF

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[2020.3] Latest HP Certification Exam Tips

Tips and practical test questions and answers for getting HP exam certification
(HP2-H88 exam, HPE0-S57 exam, HPE2-W02 exam,HPE6-A42 exam,HPE6-A47 exam,HPE6-A70 exam)(First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass HP expert.) You can get free HP exam practice test questions here. Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/hp.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!

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Latest HP Certifications Exam questions

Latest HP Sales Certified HP2-H88 exam List

Latest updates HP HP2-H88 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1
How does HP meet the “everything as a service” demand of rapid urbanization?
A. with HP STS (Smart Technologies Service)
B. with HP CSaaS (Cloud Solutions as a Service)
C. with HP CPaaS (Computing Power as a Service)
D. with HP DaaS (Device as a Service)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
How can you help your worldwide corporate and enterprise customers with stable, consistent images and managed
lifecycle transitions?
A. Offer a product with global series support.
B. Offer a contract for after care.
C. Offer a product with a Care Pack.
D. Offer installation and recycle services.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/GetPDF.aspx/4AA7-5400EEAP.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
What does HP offer to customers looking to blend the virtual and physical worlds?
A. HP Omen fanny pack
B. HP Multi Jet Fusion 3D Printer
C. HP Virtual Reality solutions
D. HP Z8 G4 Workstation
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.itbusiness.ca/news/how-hp-will-bridge-the-digital-and-physical-worlds-with-blendedreality/54458

 

QUESTION 4
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Which HP product has HP Sure View Gen3 as an option?
A. HP ProOne 600 G4 AiO PC
B. HP ProBook 400 G6 series Notebook PC
C. HP EliteOne 800 G5 AiO PC
D. HP Chromebook 14 G5
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.thurrott.com/hardware/196696/hp-introduces-third-gen-of-hp-sure-view-with-new-elitebookx360-830-eliteone-800-all-in-one

 

QUESTION 5
What is true about HP Sure Click?
A. It isolates web content in a virtual machine, where malware cannot affect other tabs, applications, or the operating
system.
B. It helps IT departments develop and maintain policies for supported web browsers.
C. It helps IT administrators deploy and maintain security settings across a fleet of PCs.
D. It monitors keyboard clicks and adjusts the feel of the keys so that the user has a nice experience using the keyboard
on an HP EliteBook.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/getpdf.aspx/4AA7-2638ENW.pdf

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Latest HPE ASE HPE0-S57 exam List

Designing HPE Hybrid IT Solutions | Certification and Learning:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE0-S57

Latest updates HP HPE0-S57 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A customer is looking to virtualize desktops and application access to provide better business continuance and disaster
recovery. They also need simplified deployment and the ability to scale out in the feature. Which HPE platform should
you recommend?
A. Edgeline
B. ProLiant DL
C. Superdome Flex
D. SimpliVity
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/a00019351enw.pdf

 

QUESTION 2
A customer contacts you for assistance with an expansion of their current HPE Synergy environment. The existing
environment contains:
1.
one Synergy 12000 frame
2.
two Composers
3.
eight SY480 Compute Modules – 1 CPU – 384GB RAM – 3820C 10/20GbE CNA
4.
one D3940 Storage Module
The new requirement is 16Gb FC connectivity to a newly-deployed 3PAR storage array.
Which components should you include? (Choose two.)
A. Synergy 3830C Host Bus Adapter
B. two QSFP+ AOC/DAC cables for ICM clustering
C. a second CPU per Compute Module
D. HPE Synergy FC License Upgrade per Composer pair
E. an additional Virtual Connect SE 40Gb F8
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=c05061206

 

QUESTION 3
A customer is a cloud provider who needs a new storage array. They want a solution that has built-in multi-tenancy
features. Why should you propose HPE 3PAR StoreServ to the customer?
A. It divides controller nodes into groups for multiple tenants.
B. It includes the virtual domains feature as part of all-inclusive licensing.
C. It divides drives into separate pools for multiple tenants.
D. It includes the NPARs feature for physical separation of the array into tenant areas.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/getpdf.aspx/4aa3-3516enw.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
A customer needs to manage the power of their Apollo servers. The server racks provide only basic PDU capability.
Which Management tool will meet the customer\\’s need?
A. HPE Apollo Platform Manager
B. HPE Insight Cluster Management Utility
C. HPE Power Advisor
D. HPE OneView
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://support.hpe.com/hpsc/doc/public/display?docId=a00074645en_us

 

QUESTION 5
A customer has the following design requirements:
1.
Support for 16Gb Fibre Channel
2.
All SAN elements must be managed by the SAN team
3.
All SAN elements need to be managed by the existing tools
Which component must be included in the design to meet the customer\\’s requirements?
A. HPE Virtual Connect SE 16Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy
B. HPE Virtual Connect SE 40Gb FC Module for HPE Synergy
C. HPE Synergy 8Gb FC License Upgrade
D. Brocade 16Gb Fibre Channel SAN Switch Module for HPE Synergy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://h20195.www2.hpe.com/v2/GetPDF.aspx/c04790440.pdf

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Latest HP HPE Sales Certified HPE2-W02 exam List

Selling Aruba Products and Solutions:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE2-W02

Latest updates HP HPE2-W02 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
Your customer uses Aruba Central and ClearPass in their Aruba-powered campus network. The company is rapidly
deploying branches and the CIO wants to ensure enterprise scalability for these networks without having to spend extra
money on management.
Which aspect of the Aruba Branch Gateway should you emphasize for this customer?
A. smart rate ports for future-proofing
B. routing through the data center for better security
C. machine learning and AI-powered security assurance
D. single policy enforcement point at branches
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
What correctly describes the addressable market for SD-WAN and the opportunity that it presents?
A. While the SD-WAN market experienced rapid growth over the past 5 years, the market is now slowing down and
experiencing a small reduction in growth.
B. While the SD-WAN market is much smaller than the campus switching and WLAN market in absolute value, the SDWAN market is growing more rapidly.
C. The SD-WAN market is experiencing slow growth at rates comparable to the campus and switching market as a
whole, and it should peak in the next 5 years.
D. The SD-WAN market is experiencing very rapid growth and will overtake the campus switching and WLAN markets in
absolute value within the next 2 years.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which customer is a good target for an Aruba SD-Branch solution?
A. an enterprise that needs to add one large branch over MPLS
B. a retailer that needs to support a large number of small branch sites
C. a university that needs to provide VPN access for faculty at home
D. a small to medium business (SMB) that needs a simple solution to add a branch.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/wp/WP_SDBranchOverview.pdf


QUESTION 4
Which customer statement indicates that you have an ideal opportunity for selling an Aruba mobile engagement
solution?
A. “Airports are known for being a hassle, but we want to change this. We would like to give travelers a way to find
parking, navigate to their gate on a map, and find deals.”
B. “We want to use technology to accelerate student learning, but to achieve this we need a network that gives priority
handling to collaboration and multi-media apps.”
C. “We are a fast paced game design company, but developers have been complaining about unresponsive
applications, and we think that a slow network is to blame.”
D. “Our business is ever-expanding and we have added so many new mobile devices and so much wireless equipment
that our admins cannot keep track of them. We need a way to simplify management.”
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
What is one key way that Aruba IntroSpect enhances security for a customer network?
A. It enforces role-based policies to ensure the right users connect to the right resources.
B. It provides an enhanced guest portal with user identification and tracking features.
C. It inspects all traffic and ensures that sensitive data is securely encrypted.
D. It ties security alerts to the user or device identify associated with the alert.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest HP Aruba Certified Mobility Associate (ACMA) V8 HPE6-A42 exam List

Latest updates HP HPE6-A42 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
An Aruba solution has a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security. How are encryption keys dynamically managed for
the wireless users?
A. The MM generates and distributes keys to clients and access points (APs).
B. Administrators configure identical key strings on the Mobility Controllers (MCs) and wireless client 802.1X settings.
C. Keys are generated and distributed securely during each wireless user authentication process.
D. Keys are derived from the preshared key configured on the WLAN and on each wireless client.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
A WLAN in an Aruba Mobility Master (MM)-based solution enforces Enterprise-WPA2 security and uses the tunnel
forwarding mode. The company has an external RADIUS server.
Which device exchanges RADIUS packets with the RADIUS server?
A. Mobility Controller (MC)
B. wireless client
C. access point (AP)
D. Mobility Master (MM)
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A company has an Aruba solution. The company wants to support a guest WLAN with the internal captive portal, but the
company also wants to develop their own custom portal pages.
What correctly describes the level of customization that the internal captive portal supports?
A. The internal captive portal must use the default pages without modification, but administrators can upload pages
developed externally.
B. Administrators can modify the default internal captive portal pages, but cannot upload pages developped externally.
C. Administrators can modify the default internal captive portal pages or upload pages developped externally.
D. The internal captive portal must use the default pages without modification, and administrators cannot upload pages
developped externally.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Network administrators use the wizard to create a WLAN that uses WPA2-Enterprise security to a RADIUS server at
10.21.98.55. They do not manually change any settings.
Which device determines the EAP type that the wireless clients must support?
A. Mobility Master (MM)
B. Mobility Controller (MC)
C. RADIUS server
D. AP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
What are two criteria that distinguish different Aruba Mobility Controller (MC) models from each other?
A. firewall speed and ability to act as a standalone controller or not
B. number of supported users and firewall throughput
C. number of supported APs and ability to support 802.11ac APs or not
D. number of supported users and ability to support 802.11ac APs or not
Correct Answer: B

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Latest HP Aruba Certified Design Professional (ACDP) V1 HPE6-A47 exam List

Aruba Certified Design Professional Exam:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE6-A47

Latest updates HP HPE6-A47 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1
A customer needs a solution to terminate VPN tunnels for Aruba RAPs. The customer has a single site and a single
public IP address for this purpose. Network address translation (NAT) will forward the IPsec traffic to the correct device
to terminate the VPN tunnel. The customer also requires N+1 redundancy for the solution.
Which solution meets the customer requirements?
A. two Aruba MCs on the same subnet that use VRRP without clustering
B. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 3 cluster
C. two Aruba MCs on different subnets that use VRRP without clustering
D. two Aruba MCs deployed as a Layer 2 cluster
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
A customer needs a networking solution that supports their Microsoft Skype for Business Unified Communications (UC)
solution. The architect plans to use multiple Aruba APs, switches, and controllers.
The customer wants real time statistics and assessment of call quality.
Which component should the architect include to provide these services?
A. Aruba AirWare
B. Aruba Central
C. Aruba Mobility Master (MM)
D. Aruba ClearPass
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
An architect proposes an Aruba solution with a hardware Mobility Master (MM) to a customer. The customer has a
disaster recovery site which is connected to the main site at Layer 3. The customer requires the MM to remain available
in case of a total site failure.
Which plan meets the customer requirements?
A. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set up VRRP between them.
B. Deploy a hardware MM to the disaster recovery site and set its IP address as the standby master for MCs.
C. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and set the VMM IP address to the same address as the
hardware MM.
D. Deploy the virtual MM (VMM) to the disaster recovery site and configure clustering on the hardware and software
appliances.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
An architect needs to plan a wireless deployment. The architect conducts a physical walkthrough, but still needs more
information. Which significant RF obstacle can be difficult to see visually and might require access to blueprints?
A. fiberglass
B. metal firewall
C. ceiling tiles
D. drywall
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
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An architect needs to plan a network solution for a new office building with four floors. Each floor has two wiring closets
with the equipment shown in the exhibit. The switches will connect to employee desktops, a few campus APs controlled
by MCs, and printers. The switches do not implement tunneled node.
What is a best practice design for the VLANs and subnets for the wired devices?
A. one VLAN per closet and a /24 subnet for each VLAN
B. one VLAN per closet and a /25 subnet for each VLAN
C. one VLAN for the entire building and a /23 subnet
D. one VLAN per floor and a /24 subnet for each VLAN
Correct Answer: B

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Latest HP Aruba ACMA HPE6-A70 exam List

Aruba Certified Mobility Associate Exam:https://certification-learning.hpe.com/tr/Datacard/Exam/HPE6-A70

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[2020.3] Latest EMC Certifications Exam Practice Questions, EMC EMCDS EMCIE exam dumps

Tips and practical test questions and answers for getting EMC exam certification
(E20-065 exam, E20-393 exam, E20-555 exam)(First: Exam practice test,
Second: Lead4pass EMC expert.) You can get free EMC exam practice test questions here.
Or choose: https://www.lead4pass.com/emc.html Study hard to pass the exam easily!

Table of Contents:

Latest EMC Certifications Exam questions

Latest EMC EMCDS E20-065 exam List

Specialist – Data Scientist, Advanced
Analytics Version 1.0: https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/dell-emc/documents/en-us/E20_065_Advanced_Analytics_Specialist_Exam.pdf

Latest updates EMC E20-065 exam practice questions(1-10)

QUESTION 1
What are the major components of the YARN architecture?
A. ResourceManager and NodeManager
B. Task Tracker and NameNode
C. HDFS, Tez, and Spark
D. Avro, ZooKeeper, and HDFS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
What best describes tokenization?
A. Adding lexical relations to the raw text
B. Converting text into the list of terms
C. Converting text into a list of unique terms
D. Reducing variant forms of tokens to their base forms
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
In which step in the visualization lifecycle would you determine how the raw data is stored?
A. Visualization Planning
B. Data Preparation
C. Visualization Building
D. Discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What is NOT a category of a NoSQL data store?
A. Columnar
B. Document
C. Key/Value
D. Flat File
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
What is a property of a good color model for ordinal data?
A. Uses a rainbow-like color map for distinction of categories
B. Uses a rainbow-like color map for ease of display and printing
C. Uses perceptually ordinal colors with just-noticeable increments
D. Uses perceptually ordinal colors with linear, perceptual increments
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
What is a characteristic of lemmatization?
A. Can be performed by calling the synset () function on a lemma in LNTK
B. Can be performed by calling the lemma() function on a synset in LNTK
C. Reduces words of variant forms to their base forms based on a set of heuristics
D. Reduces words of variant forms to their base forms based on a dictionary
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
A data engineer is asked to process several large datasets using MapReduce. Upon initial inspection the engineer
realizes that there are complex interdependencies between the datasets.
Why is this a problem?
A. MapReduce works best on unstructured data
B. There is no problem; MapReduce accommodates all the data
C. MapReduce can only parse one file at a time.
D. MapReduce is not ideal when the processing of one dataset depends on another.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
What are two visualization tools used for trivariate data?
A. Scatter plot matrix
B. Hexbin plot and heatmap
C. Scatter plot matrix and density plot
D. Scatter plot matrix and heatmap
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
A marketing team creates a graph using a square for each data point, where the length of each side is set to the data
value. The data values are 10 and 20.
What is the lie factor of the graph?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which Hadoop Files System shell command copies data from a local file system into HDFS?
A. rm
B. cp
C. put
D. get
Correct Answer: C

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Latest EMC EMCIE E20-393 exam List

EMC E20-393 Exam Video

Find Exam, |Dell EMC Education Service:https://education.dellemc.com/content/EMC/en-us/home/certification-overview/find-exam.html

Latest updates EMC E20-393 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
Which system level alert indicates an error has occurred that has no impact on the system and should be remedied in
the near future?
A. Error
B. Warning
C. Informational
D. Notice
Correct Answer: A
References: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15085-dell-emc-unity-unisphere-overview.pdf (23)

 

QUESTION 2
How does Dell EMC Unity XT differ from Dell EMC UnityVSA?
A. Unity XT supports FAST VP only UnityVSA supports FAST VP and FAST Cache
B. Unity XT supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting UnityVSA supports monitoring and reporting only
C. UnityXT supports FAST VP and FAST Cache. UnityVSA supports FAST VP only
D. UnityXT supports monitoring and reporting only UnityVSA supports host I/O limits and monitoring and reporting
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/nl-nl/asset/datasheets/products/storage/h17717_dell_emc_unity_xt_hybrid_family_top_reasons.pdf

 

QUESTION 3
Which VASA API protocol is used to integrate with Dell EMC UnityVSA over HTTPS?
A. SNMP
B. WSDL
C. SOAP
D. REST
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
What are four constraints defined in a VMware Capability Profile?
A. Service Level, Access, Protocol, and Space Efficiency
B. Capacity, Drive Type, RAID Level, and Data Reduction
C. Protocol Endpoint, Drive Type, RAID Level, and VM UUID
D. Service Level, Drive Type, RAID Level, and Space Efficiency
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/resources/en-us/asset/white-papers/products/storage/h15091-dell-emc-unityvirtualization-integration.pdf (figure 6)

 

QUESTION 5
A storage administrator has added multiple resources to a single density-based Host I/O Limit policy for the following
storage resources: LUN A: 25 GB LUN B: 25 GB LUN C: 50 GB Density-Based Limit 20 IOPS
What is the total IOPS set by this policy?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 2000
D. 2500
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.dell.com/community/Unity/Host-IO-Limits-on-Unity-600F-storage/td-p/7131577

 

QUESTION 6
What is a function of CloudIQ?
A. Tier to cloud storage
B. Provision storage resources
C. Configure host access
D. Monitor system health
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/white-papers/h15691-emc-cloudiq-overview.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
Which Unity service task is used to reinstall the root operating system while leaving the user\\’s data intact?
A. Restore the Management server
B. Reimage the Storage Processor
C. Restore the Management software
D. Reinitialize the storage system
Correct Answer: B
Re-image a storage processor (SP) to safely fix problems with the system software that could not be resolved by
rebooting the SP. Re-imaging analyzes the system software for errors and attempts to correct them instantly. Re-image
an SP
from the Service System page.
Your configuration settings and stored files will not be changed.
References: https://community.emc.com/docs/DOC-40315

 

QUESTION 8
Which Unity feature supports provisioning within vCenter, provides full visibility to physical storage, and increases
management efficiency?
A. VSI
B. ODX
C. ESI
D. VAAI
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When creating a new LUN on a Dell EMC Unity array using Unisphere, what is the default setting of the Data Reduction
feature?
A. OFF for thick LUNs and ON for thin LUNs
B. ON for thick LUNs and OFF for thin LUNs
C. ON for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool
D. OFF for thin LUNs in an All-Flash pool
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
A storage administrator configured a Hybrid Dell EMC Unity XT storage system using one default port containing three
disk types. They need additional Flash capacity. What is the correct way to expand the pool?
A. Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash 4 drives to the pool
B. Add 2 SAS Flash drives to the FAST Cache
C. Add 1 SAS Flash drive to the pool
D. Add a RAID Group of SAS Flash drives to the pool
Correct Answer: A

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Latest EMC E20-555 exam List

E20-555 – Dell EMC Education Services – Dell Technologies:https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/Dell-EMC/documents/en-us/e20-555_TA_Isilon_Solutions_And_Design_Specialist_Exam.pdf

Latest updates EMC E20-555 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
An Isilon has two ports configured per node. Each port is on a different VLAN. Although incoming traffic is evenly
distributed, transmitted data from the Isilon uses one port more than the other port. What could be the cause of this
imbalance?
A. Static routes are configured on the less-used port
B. A default gateway was not configured on both ports
C. Source Based Routing is not enabled on the cluster
D. Priority of the gateway in the less-used port set too low
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
What is the sector size of an Isilon 8 TB drive?
A. 512 bytes
B. 1024 bytes
C. 2048 bytes
D. 4096 bytes
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor\\’s offering. They currently have 100TB of usable
capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years, which will require them to lease additional
space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI and TCO to be important decision criteria.
Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon\\’s OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID based NAS
solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance may degrade.
D. Isilon\\’s OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than competitive offerings.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source broadcast media files for
playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed
that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Your customer\\’s site uses an old X-Series cluster, and they are interested in consolidating their two primary workflows.
iostat shows that one of the applications is sensitive to latency, while isi statistics indicates sensitivity to disk response
times. There are approximately 1000 users accessing 70 TB of file data.
Which node type would you recommend?
A. S200
B. X400
C. X200
D. NL400
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
How many file systems are present in a 20-node Isilon X200 cluster?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
If business objectives such as value and SLAs are considered, which Isilon license feature provides the ability to
manage performance and the cost of data in a cluster?
A. SmartPools
B. SmartConnect
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartQuota
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which license is a prerequisite for enabling CloudPools?
A. SmartPools
B. FilePools
C. DiskPools
D. NodePools
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A customer wants to use their large Gen 6 Isilon cluster for ILM. All of their data is written to and read from a single file
pool. They need to use multiple file pools, so slightly used data is stored on less expensive, large disks. Heavily used
data is stored on a faster tier.
What would satisfy the customer\\’s needs?
A. Configure SmartPools Advanced
B. Add an A-series node with SmartPools license
C. Enable FAST VP license on each node pair
D. Install SmartPools license on the cluster
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Your customer manages a print media environment, consisting of three Isilon clusters, which are out of support. The
customer would like to have access to new software releases and feature sets. You have been asked to perform a full
discovery of the customer\\’s environment.
The customer\\’s current Isilon clusters are as follows:
“Cust” (12 x 12000X) serves as upload media storage for different tenants.
“Working” (8 x 12000X + 6 x X200) serves as a working zone for extraction to RAW and printing media from it.
“Archive” (16 x 72NL + Accelerator nodes) is used to store printed content for six months.
The customer operates in a Windows environment using SMB 2.0, two DNS servers per AD forest, three forest domains
which are servicing three different environments. All servers are operating on a 1Gb network, three VLANs segregating
the DEV/QA/PROD environments. Currently, there is no monitoring in place for performance measurement or
optimization.
The requirements for this solution include:
Better ROI and TCO
Maintain same performance with possible improvements
Renew HW/SW and get inclusive support
Limit migrations
Reduce space, power, cooling consumption
Get new feature sets
If migration required, use Parallel copy (multiple nodes, multiple threads, multiple connections)
Segregate tenant shares from other tenants
Expand up to 1PB of total storage
What would you recommend be done to consolidate the three clusters into one?
A. • Expand the largest and most I/O intensive cluster using SmartFail

Consolidate the remaining two clusters using Multithreaded version of RoboCopy

Modify A-Record and propagate to all DNS servers to point to the new cluster
B. • Leave the clusters as is
• Upgrade drive sizes to meet the customer requirements
C. • Expand the largest and most I/O intensive cluster using SmartFail
• Consolidate the remaining two clusters using SyncIQ
D. • Build a new cluster for consolidation

Use SnapshotIQ to migrate the existing data onto the new consolidated cluster

Spoof DNS to point to the new cluster
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates CCNA 200-125 exam dumps and 200-301 exam tips

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[2020 new] Cisco Certified Network Associate (200-301 CCNA): https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/ccna-200-301.html

This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:

  • Network fundamentals
  • Network access
  • IP connectivity
  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
  • Automation and programmability
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Latest updates Cisco 200-125 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Correct Answer: B
Netflow can be used to diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth utilization quickly with
command line interface or reporting tools. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/iosnetflow/prod_white_paper0900aecd80406232.html

QUESTION 2
RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q2

After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. incorrect bandwidth configuration
B. incorrect LMI configuration
C. incorrect map statement
D. incorrect IP address
Correct Answer: C
First we have to say this is an unclear question and it is wrong. The “frame-relay map ip” statement is correct thus none
of the four answers above is correct. But we guess there is a typo in the output. Maybe the “ip address 172.16.100.2
255.255.0.0 command should be “ip address 172.16.100.1 255.255.0.0. That makes answer C correct.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension.
B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge.
C. Thesystem ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095.
D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension.
E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
In which two ways can you prevent recursive routing in a tunneled environment? (Choose two)
A. Configure routes through the tunnel with a lower metric than other routes.
B. Configure route filtering to prevent the tunnel endpoints from learning each other through the tunnel.
C. Enable QoS on the link.
D. Configure routes through the tunnel with a higher metric than other routes.
E. configure GRE keepalives on the tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q6

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to
authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
With CHAP authentication, the configured passwords must be identical on each router. Here, it is configured as little123
on one side and big123 on the other.

QUESTION 7
which two types of information are held in the mac address table ?
A. destination ip addresses
B. protocols
C. port numbers
D. mac address
E. source ip address
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?
A. the operation of VTP
B. a method of VLAN trunking
C. an approach to wireless LAN communication
D. the process for root bridge selection
E. VLAN pruning
Correct Answer: B
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must
send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is
created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier
in a Layer 2 frame.
The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a
network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides
VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.

QUESTION 9
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?
A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface
C. The interface is error -disabled.
D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses
E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which statement about static routes is true?
A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.
B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default
D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.
Correct Answer: D
Static routing can be used to define an exit point from a router when no other routes are available or necessary. This is
called a default route.

QUESTION 12
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Correct Answer: D
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets).
The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
The leading 0\\’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

QUESTION 13
Based on the network shown in the graphic

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q13

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent
the problem?
A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. switching loops, STP
Correct Answer: F
The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via
multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with
other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm
guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.

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Exam 98-365: Windows Server Administration Fundamentals:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-98-365.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Understanding server installation (10–15%)
  • Understanding server roles (25–30%)
  • Understanding Active Directory (20–25%)
  • Understanding storage (10–15%)
  • Understanding server performance management (10–15%)
  • Understanding server maintenance (15–20%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam are familiar with the concepts and the technologies of Windows Server administration. Candidates should have some hands-on experience with Windows Server, Windows-based networking, Active Directory, account management, and system recovery tools and concepts.

Latest updates Microsoft 98-365 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
In an Active Directory infrastructure, the group policies are applied in a particular order. Rearrange the levels in the
correct order in which the group policies are applied.
Select and Place:lead4pass 98-365 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-365 exam question q1-1

In an Active Directory infrastructure, the group policies are applied in the following order:
1.
Local Level
2.
Site Level
3.
Domain Level
4.
Organizational Unit (OU) Level
If a Group Policy setting is configured at the site, domain, or OU level and that setting contradicts a setting configured at
the local policy level, the local policy setting will be overridden.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true about drivers and Windows Server 2016?
A. Drivers must be signed.
B. Drivers must be registered by the PnP Society.
C. Drivers must include 32-bit and 64-bit support.
D. Drivers must be multilingual.
Correct Answer: A
Drivers included on the Windows installation DVD or downloaded from Microsoft\\’s update website are digitally signed.
A driver that lacks a valid digital signature or was altered after it was signed cannot be installed on 64-bit versions of
Windows. If you have problems with a device driver, download only drivers that are from Microsoft\\’s update website or
the manufacturer\\’s website.

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
Your network is configured as an Active Directory Domain Services domain. You have two domain controllers running
Windows Server 2016.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 98-365 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 98-365 exam question q3-1

There are three different types of Active Directory domain groups (which does not include local groups): Universal,
Global, Domain Local

QUESTION 4
Which technology is designed to help teams collaborate?
A. Microsoft SharePoint Server
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager
C. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager
D. Microsoft BizTalk Server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The University Chess Club has a single Windows Server 2016 server. The server has 12 GB of RAM and 1TB of disk
space on a RAID 5 array. Using this server, you need to install two separate instances of Windows Server 2016: one to
act as a web server and one to act as a database server.
Which Windows Server 2016 role or feature provides this capability?
A. Windows Deployment Services
B. Hyper-V
C. Windows System Resource Manager
D. Windows Internal Database
Correct Answer: B
Hyper-V can create virtual machines on x86-64 systems.
Starting with Windows 8, Hyper-V supersedes Windows Virtual PC as the hardware virtualization component of the
client editions of Windows NT. A server computer running Hyper-V can be configured to expose individual virtual
machines to
one or more networks.

QUESTION 6
Which task can you accomplish by using Organizational Units?
A. Apply shared folder permissions to users
B. Place different domains in a centralized manageable environment
C. Create a secondary Active Directory
D. Logically represent a hierarchical structure of your company
Correct Answer: D
A particularly useful type of directory object contained within domains is the organizational unit. Organizational units are
Active Directory containers into which you can place users, groups, computers, and other organizational units. An
organizational unit cannot contain objects from other domains.
An organizational unit is the smallest scope or unit to which you can assign Group Policy settings or delegate
administrative authority. Using organizational units, you can create containers within a domain that represent the
hierarchical,
logical structures within your organization.

QUESTION 7
You need to access resources located in another forest. Which should you create?
A. Child domain
B. Distribution group
C. Trust
D. Organizational unit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an application protocol for querying and modifying data using directory services running over
TCP/IP?
A. Kerberos
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. LDAP
Correct Answer: D
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a standard protocol, which provides access to the directory. It also
provides a common language for LDAP clients and servers to communicate with each other. The LDAP is commonly
used as standard in the industry. By using a directory service such as LDAP, information existing in multiple systems
and formats can be brought at one place. LDAP is an application protocol for querying and modifying data using
directory services running over TCP/IP.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Kerberos is a secure protocol that supports ticketing authentication. A ticket is granted in response to a client
computer authentication request by the Kerberos authentication server, if the request contains valid user credentials and
a valid Service Principal Name (SPN). The ticket is then used by the client computer to access network resources. To
enable Kerberos authentication, the client and server computers must have a trusted connection to the domain Key
Distribution Center (KDC). The task of KDC is to distribute shared secret keys to enable encryption.
B: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage
the network. SNMP is used to keep track of what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving.
C: User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is often used for one-to-many communications, using broadcast or multicast IP
datagrams. Microsoft networking uses UDP for logon, browsing, and name resolution. UDP is a connectionless and
unreliable communication protocol. It does not guarantee delivery or verify sequencing for any datagram. UDP provides
faster transportation of data between TCP/IP hosts than TCP.

QUESTION 9
Which technology is designed to host calendars, contacts, and e-mail on the server?
A. Microsoft Host Integration Server
B. Microsoft Expression Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Microsoft Exchange Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Disaster recovery is the process of resuming normal business operations as quickly as possible after the disaster is
over. What does the disaster recovery process include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose
all that apply.
A. Testing all hardware and software before resuming operations
B. Restoring data
C. Encrypting data
D. Executing a written disaster recovery plan
E. Replacing any damaged hardware
Correct Answer: ABDE
Disaster recovery can be defined as the process of restoring systems and data if there is partial or complete failure of
computers due to technical or other causes. Disaster recovery is the process of resuming normal business operations
as
quickly as possible, after the disaster is over. The disaster recovery process includes the following:
To execute a written disaster recovery plan.
To replace any damaged hardware.
To restore data.
To test all hardware and software before resuming operations.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The disaster recovery process does not include encryption of data.

QUESTION 11
The network-attached storage (NAS) device is a file server running on a dedicated device connected to the network.
Which of the following are the advantages of the NAS device? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. It enables the Windows, UNIX/Linux, and MacOS to use the same storage and to access the shared data.
B. It is easy to install, configure, and manage by using a web browser.
C. It is used when computer systems are retired and disk drives are required to be zeroed out.
D. It permits the addition of more hard disk storage space to a network without shutting them down for maintenance and
upgrades.
Correct Answer: ABD
The network-attached storage (NAS) device is a server used for file sharing. It is a file server running on a dedicated
device connected to the network. These types of devices are based on Linux or UNIX derivatives.
Various advantages of the NAS device are as follows:
It is easy to install, configure, and manage by using a web browser.
It enables the Windows, UNIX/Linux, and MacOS to use the same storage and to access the shared data.
It does not require to be located within the server but can be placed anywhere in LAN.
It permits the addition of more hard disk storage space to a network without shutting them down for maintenance and
upgrades.
Incorrect Answers:
C: Hard drive wiping is a degaussing process that applies a strong magnetic field for the purpose of initializing the
media. It is used to remove data from the hard drive permanently. It is used when computer systems are retired and disk
drives are required to be zeroed out.

QUESTION 12
What Microsoft web server is included with Windows servers?
A. Internet Information Services
B. Web Manager
C. Web Provider
D. Internet Security and Acceleration
Correct Answer: A
Microsoft\\’s web server/application server is Internet Information Services (IIS). Windows Server2008 R2 includes IIS
7.5, Windows Server 2016 includes IIS 7.5, and Windows Server 2008 includes IIS 7.0. IIS 7.0 and 7.5 support FTP,
FTPS, SMTP, and HTTP/HTTPS.

QUESTION 13
Which Hyper-V network type shares the host\\’s physical network adapter?
A. External
B. Public
C. Private
D. Internal
Correct Answer: A
For Hyper-V host networking, the most common option is to create an external access virtual switch. This allows VMs
on the host to access other systems on a traditional VLAN or standard switched network.

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300-370 WITSHOOT – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/witshoot.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting and optimizing Enterprise wireless infrastructure and related services plus the tools and methodologies needed to identify and resolve client connectivity, performance, and RF issues.

Latest updates Cisco 300-370 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802.11ac WLAN at customer site. Due to interferences with
neighboring 802.11n networks, the engineer must determine the current primary/secondary channel allocation to
enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary 20 MHz channel. Which
combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHz channels?
A. primary 40 MHz: channel 62, primary 80 MHz: channel 58
B. primary 40 MHz: channel 54, primary 80 MHz: channel 58
C. primary 40 MHz: channel 64, primary 80 MHz: channel 60
D. primary 40 MHz: channel 60, primary 80 MHz: channel 56
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in
different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\’s and has
a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and
Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they
do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue?
A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical.
B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC.
C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the
location A Access Points.
D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question q3

Which statement about the join process of the access point is true?
A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management
interface subnet.
Correct Answer: E
References:

 

QUESTION 4
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contains
the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. viaddr
D. giaddr
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending
its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default severity level has been changed. Which
value does the engineer select to reset the severity level to its factory setting?
A. informational
B. major
C. minor
D. warning
E. critical
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer wants to run the Voice Audit tool in PI and wants to be able to verify:
that clients will be capable of having static IPs whether or not Call Admission Control is enabled Which two rules field
descriptions must be checked in the report? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP assignment
B. CAC: max bandwidth
C. ACM
D. DTPC
E. load-based CAC
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/3-2/reference/guide/pi_ref.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
A mobile workstation in a factory contains an AP that is configured as a workgroup bridge. When the workstation moves,
it loses connectivity and disrupts operation. What can the engineer implement to minimize roaming problems?
A. Use 802.1X authentication.
B. Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for fast roaming.
C. Use AES for encryption.
D. Use the mobile station command.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
In a Cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type is used between the access point and the wireless LAN
controller?
A. DTLS
B. TLS
C. STLS
D. OpenSSL
Correct Answer: A
DTLS data encryption is enabled automatically for OfficeExtend access points but disabled by default for all other
access points. Most access points are deployed in a secure network within a company building, so data encryption is
not necessary. In contrast, the traffic between an OfficeExtend access point and the controller travels through an
unsecure public network, so data encryption is more important for these access points. When data encryption is
enabled, traffic is encrypted at the access point before it is sent to the controller and at the controller before it is sent to
the client.

 

QUESTION 9
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true?
A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off.
B. Debug is a message logging severity 7.
C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI.
D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure?
A. The closer the circle is to blue, the more localized the impact is.
B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is.
C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is.
D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all
options are used.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-370 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-370 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question q13

The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error?
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model is not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is not configured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam AZ-301: Microsoft Azure Architect Design:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-301

Candidates for this exam are Azure Solution Architects who advise stakeholders and translate business requirements into secure, scalable, and reliable solutions. Candidates should have advanced experience and knowledge across various aspects of IT operations,
including networking, virtualization, identity, security, business continuity, disaster recovery, data management, budgeting, and governance. This role requires managing how decisions in each area affect an overall solution. Candidates must be proficient in Azure administration, Azure development, and DevOps, and have expert-level skills in at least one of those domains.

Skills measured

  • Determine workload requirements (10-15%)
  • Design for identity and security (20-25%)
  • Design a data platform solution (15-20%)
  • Design a business continuity strategy (15-20%)
  • Design for deployment, migration, and integration (10-15%)
  • Design an infrastructure strategy (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft az-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have a hybrid deployment of Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the Azure AD tenant can be managed only from the computers on
your on-premises network.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure AD roles and administrators
B. a conditional access policy
C. Azure AD Application Proxy
D. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You have an on-premises Active Directory forest and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant. All Azure AD users
are assigned a Premium P1 license.
You deploy Azure AD Connect.
Which two features are available in this environment that can reduce operational overhead for your company\\’s help
desk? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management policies
B. access reviews
C. self-service password reset
D. Microsoft Cloud App Security Conditional Access App Control
E. password writeback
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 3
Your company identifies the following business continuity and disaster recovery objectives for virtual machines that host
sales, finance, and reporting application in the company\\’s onpremises data center.
•The finance application requires that data be retained for seven years. In the event ot a disaster, the application must
be able to run from Azure. The recovery in objective (RTO) is 10 minutes,
• The reporting application must be able to recover point in-time data al a daily granularity.
The RTO is eight hours.
•The sales application must be able to fail over to second on-premises data center.
You need to recommend which Azure services meet the business community and disaster recovery objectives. The
solution must minimize costs.
What should you recommend for each application? To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct application.
Each service may be used owe. More than once not at an You may need to drag the spin bar between panes or scroll
10
view content.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-301 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam question q3-1

 

QUESTION 4
You need to design an architecture to capture the creation of users and the assignment of roles. The captured data
must be stored in Azure Cosmos DB.
Which Azure services should you include in the design? To answer, drag the appropriate services to the correct targets.
Each service may be used once. more than once, or not at all. You need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE .Each correct selection worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-103 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-103 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system.
What should you include in the recommendations?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)
C. Azure Storage Service Encryption
D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
You plan to deploy 200 Microsoft SQL Server databases to Azure by using SQL Database and Azure SQL Database
Managed Instance.
You need to recommend a monitoring solution that provides a consistent monitoring approach for all deployments The
solution must meet the following requirements: Support current-state analysis on metrics collected near -real-time
multiple
times per minutes and maintained for up to one hour.
Support longer term analysis based on metrics collected multiple timer per hour and maintained for up two weeks.
Support monitoring of the number of concurrent logins and concurrent sessions.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Monitor
B. dynamic management views
C. SQL Server-Profiler
D. trace flags
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
You store web access logs data in Azure Blob storage.
You plan to generate monthly reports from the access logs.
You need to recommend an automated process to upload the data to Azure SQL Database every month.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft SQL Server Migration Assistant (SSMA)
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Data Migration Assistant
D. AzCopy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
You have the network topology shown in the following exhibit.lead4pass az-103 exam question q8

You have a user-defined route that has a default route of 0.0.0.0/0 and the next hop set to the network virtual
appliance.
You configure the Azure Storage account to use virtual network service endpoints.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-103 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-103 exam question q8-2

 

QUESTION 9
You are planning the implementation of an order processing web service that will contain microservices hosted in an
Azure Service Fabric cluster.
You need to recommend a solution to provide developers with the ability to proactively identify and fix performance
issues. The developers must be able to simulate user connections to the order processing web service from the
Internet, as
well as simulate user transactions. The developers must be notified if the goals for the transaction response times are
not met.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. container health
B. Azure Network Watcher
C. Application Insights
D. Service Fabric Analytics
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy an Azure virtual machine to two Azure regions, and you deploy an Azure Application Gateway.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution for the network configuration of the front-end tier of the payment processing. What
should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Application Gateway
B. Traffic Manager
C. a Standard Load Balancer
D. a Basic load Balancer
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
You are planning an Azure solution that will host production database for a high-performance application. The solution
will include the following components:
Two virtual machines that will run Microsoft SQL Server 2016, will be deployed to different data centers in the same
Azure region, and will be part of an Always On availability group.
SQL server data that will be backed up by using the Automated Backup feature of the SQL Server IassS Agent
Extension (SQLIaaSExtension)
You identify the storage priorities for various data type as shown in the following table.lead4pass az-301 exam question q13

Which storage type should you recommend for each data type? To answer, drag the appreciate storage types to the
correct data types. Each storage type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the spilt
bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-301 exam question q13-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-301 exam question q13-2

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Exam AZ-103: Microsoft Azure Administrator:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-103

Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that span storage, security, networking, and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle and take requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate.

Skills measured

  • Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage storage (15-20%)
  • Deploy and manage virtual machines (VMs) (15-20%)
  • Configure and manage virtual networks (30-35%)
  • Manage identities (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft az-103 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure subscription.
Users access the resources in the subscription from either home or from customer sites. From home, users must
establish a point-to-site VPN to access the Azure resources. The users on the customer sites access the Azure
resources by
using site-to-site VPNs.
You have a line-of-business app named App1 that runs on several Azure virtual machine. The virtual machines run
Windows Server 2016.
You need to ensure that the connections to App1 are spread across all the virtual machines. What are two possible
Azure services that you can use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a public load balancer
B. Traffic Manager
C. an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
D. an internal load balancer
E. an Azure Application Gateway
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result,
these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager
template named ARM1.json.
You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance.
You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: From the Update management blade, you click enable.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/redeploy-to-new-node

 

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is connected to the Internet. You add a
network interface named Interface1 to VM1 as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)lead4pass az-103 exam question q3

From Computer1, you attempt to connect to VM1 by using Remote Desktop, but the connection fails.
You need to establish a Remote Desktop connection to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Start VM1.
B. Attach a network interface.
C. Delete the DenyAllOutBound outbound port rule.
D. Delete the DenyAllInBound inbound port rule.
Correct Answer: A
Incorrect Answers:
B: The network interface has already been added to VM.
C: The Outbound rules are fine.
D: The inbound rules are fine. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop.
Note: Rules are processed in priority order, with lower numbers processed before higher numbers, because lower
numbers have higher priority. Once traffic matches a rule, processing stops. As a result, any rules that exist with lower
priorities (higher numbers) that have the same attributes as rules with higher priorities are not processed.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

 

QUESTION 4
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenet named adatum.com.
You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users.
What should you do?
A. Create a sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
C. Create and configure the Identity Hub.
D. Configure a security policy in Azure Security Center.
Correct Answer: A
With Azure Active Directory Identity Protection, you can: require users to register for multi-factor authentication handle
risky sign-ins and compromised users
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/flows

 

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has Azure AD Privileged Identity Management configured.
You have 10 users who are assigned the Security Administrator role for the tenant. You need the users to verify whether
they still require the Security Administrator role.
What should you do?
A. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure a user risk policy.
B. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, create an access review.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure the Weekly Digest.
D. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, create a conditional access policy.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-how-to-start-security-review

 

QUESTION 6
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.lead4pass az-103 exam question q6 lead4pass az-103 exam question q6-1 lead4pass az-103 exam question q6-2

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you
click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks
stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will
earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to create a virtual network named VNET1008 that contains three subnets named subnet0, subnet1, and
subnet2. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Connections from any of the subnets to the Internet must be blocked. Connections from the Internet to any of the
subnets must be blocked. The number of network security groups (NSGs) and NSG rules must be minimized.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1: Click Create a resource in the portal.
Step 2: Enter Virtual network in the Search the Marketplace box at the top of the New pane that appears. Click Virtual
network when it appears in the search results. Step 3: Select Classic in the Select a deployment model box in the
Virtual
Network pane that appears, then click Create.
Step 4: Enter the following values on the Create virtual network (classic) pane and then click Create:
Name: VNET1008
Address space: 10.0.0.0/16
Subnet name: subnet0
Resource group: Create new
Subnet address range: 10.0.0.0/24
Subscription and location: Select your subscription and location. Step 5: In the portal, you can create only one subnet
when you create a virtual network. Click Subnets (in the SETTINGS section) on the Create virtual network (classic)
pane
that appears.
Click +Add on the VNET1008 – Subnets pane that appears.
Step 6: Enter subnet1 for Name on the Add subnet pane. Enter 10.0.1.0/24 for Address range. Click OK.
Step 7: Create the third subnet: Click +Add on the VNET1008 – Subnets pane that appears. Enter subnet2 for Name on
the Add subnet pane. Enter 10.0.2.0/24 for Address range. Click OK.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/create-virtual-network-classic

 

QUESTION 7
You create an Azure subscription named Subscription1 and an associated Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
named Tenant1. Tenant1 contains the users in the following table.lead4pass az-103 exam question q7

You need to add an Azure AD Privileged Identity Management application to Tenant1. Which account can you use?
A. [email protected]
B. [email protected]
C. [email protected]
D. [email protected]
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-getting-started

 

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend an environment for the deployment of App1. What should you recommend?
A. a new App Service plan that uses the P3v2 pricing tier
B. ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I1 pricing tier
C. ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I3 pricing tier
D. a new App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-app-service-environment-control-inbound-traffic

 

QUESTION 9
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.

lead4pass az-103 exam question q9

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you
click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and
this
exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete
each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all
other
sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to store media files in the rg1lod7523691n1 storage account. You need to configure the storage account to
store the media files. The solution must ensure that only users who have access keys can download the media files and
that
the files are accessible only over HTTPS.
What should you do from Azure portal?
A. Answer: See solution below.
Correct Answer: A
We should create an Azure file share.
Step 1: In the Azure portal, select All services. In the list of resources, type Storage Accounts. As you begin typing, the
list filters based on your input. Select Storage Accounts.
On the Storage Accounts window that appears.
Step 2: Locate the rg1lod7523691n1 storage account.
Step 3: On the storage account page, in the Services section, select Files.

lead4pass az-103 exam question q9-1

Step 4: On the menu at the top of the File service page, click + File share. The New file share page drops down. Step 5:
In Name type myshare. Click OK to create the Azure file share.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-portal

 

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1
contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources
were
created in RG1. Solution: From the Subscriptions blade, you select the subscription, and then click Resource providers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
You need to create a web app named corp7509086n2 that can be scaled horizontally. The solution must use the lowest
possible pricing tier for the App Service plan.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See explanation below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1:
In the Azure Portal, click Create a resource > Web + Mobile > Web App.
Step 2:
Use the Webb app settings as listed below.
Web App name: corp7509086n2
Hosting plan: Azure App Service plan
Pricing tier of the Pricing Tier: Standard
Change your hosting plan to Standard, you can\\’t setup auto-scaling below standard tier.
Step 3:
Select Create to provision and deploy the Web app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-web-how-to-create-a-web-app-in-an-ase https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/plans/

 

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Tenant1 and an Azure subscription named You enable
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
You need to secure the members of the Lab Creator role. The solution must ensure that the lab creators request access
when they create labs.
What should you do first?
A. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, edit the role settings for Lab Creator.
B. From Subscription1 edit the members of the Lab Creator role.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, creates a user risk policy.
D. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, discover the Azure resources of Conscription.
Correct Answer: A
As a Privileged Role Administrator you can: Enable approval for specific roles Specify approver users and/or groups to
approve requests View request and approval history for all privileged roles
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

 

QUESTION 13
You have a public load balancer that balancer ports 80 and 443 across three virtual machines.
You need to direct all the Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) to VM3 only.
What should you configure?
A. an inbound NAT rule
B. a load public balancing rule
C. a new public load balancer for VM3
D. a new IP configuration
Correct Answer: A
To port forward traffic to a specific port on specific VMs use an inbound network address translation (NAT) rule.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Load-balancing rule to distribute traffic that arrives at frontend to backend pool instances.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/load-balancer/load-balancer-overview

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Citrix 1Y0-203 exam exercise questions, 1Y0-203 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Now available! New Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Administration exam” Exam 1Y0-203.

Here you can get the latest free 1Y0-203 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

1Y0-203 exam

  • Initial Requirements
  • Installing and Configuring a XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • Provisioning and Delivering App and Desktop Resources
  • Providing Access with StoreFront and Receiver
  • Understanding and Configuring Citrix Policies
  • Application Presentation and Management
  • Printing with XenApp and XenDesktop
  • Citrix Profile Management
  • Managing the XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • XenApp and XenDesktop Site Redundancy Considerations
  • XenApp and XenDesktop Basic Security Considerations
  • Monitoring the XenApp and XenDesktop Site
  • Supporting and Troubleshooting XenApp and XenDesktop

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Free Citrix 1Y0-203 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy a new version of Receiver to 10 users who are onsite as visitors and
use personal BYOD laptops that run an older version of Receiver. The users only require a base installation of Receiver
with NO customizations; however, they will need to have the ability to print and save files locally from within their
sessions.
The users will access XenDesktop resources through StoreFront.
Which two deployment options can the administrator choose for these users? (Choose two.)
A. Have users run HTML5 Receiver through web browser.
B. Use an Enterprise software deployment of Receiver.
C. Deploy Receiver through StoreFront browser.
D. Have users perform a manual installation of Native Receiver.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Administrator wants to use NetScaler Gateway to allow external users to access internal resources securely.
Which three functionalities will the NetScaler Gateway provide to allow access to internal resources on behalf of
external users? (Choose three.)
A. Allow secured external connections to StoreFront (reverse Web Proxy)
B. Authenticate Users
C. Enumerate resources
D. Allow secured access to internal hosted applications (HDX Proxy)
E. Aggregate resources
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Administrator needs to add a VMware ESXi host as a hosting unit in the XenDesktop.
Which three permissions are required by User account to add the VMware ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. System.Read
B. DataStore.AllocateSpace
C. DataStore.FileManagement
D. System.View
E. System.Anonymousx
F. DataStore.Browse
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
Which account is used by FlexCast Management Architecture (FMA) services to access the Citrix XenApp and
XenDesktop SQL databases?
A. Network Service Account
B. Local System Account
C. Local User Account
D. Controller\\’s Machine Account
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is planning to update a Machine Catalog for the first time. The Machine Catalog was
created with Machine Creation Services (MCS). What happens to the identity disk after the update?
A. It is deleted and recreated
B. It stays the same size
C. It doubles in size
D. It is formatted and re-initialized
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two FlexCast models allow for high scalability and user density? (Choose two.)
A. Remote PC access
B. Hosted VDI
C. Published applications
D. Hosted shared desktops
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which two cloud providers are supported with XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15? (Choose two.)
A. Amazon Web Services
B. Google Cloud Services
C. Microsoft Azure
D. IBM Cloud
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator works at a hospital where doctors frequently move between patient rooms.
Each patient room has a different workstation. Several doctors have complained that when they switch patient rooms,
they have to relaunch their Citrix-delivered applications.
Which feature can the administrator configure to address this issue?
A. Session Pre-launch
B. ICA Keep-Alive
C. Session Reliability
D. Workspace Control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to deploy 2000 virtual desktops. The hardware in the environment has a very fast
SSD local storage, and the SAN is running almost at capacity. There is NO need for user-installed applications or
persistency in the environment.
Which provisioning method would allow the administrator to save SAN storage?
A. Provisioning Services
B. Manual Provisioning
C. Existing machines
D. Machine Creation Services
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator needs to get a list of all published applications being used along with associated user names in a
XenApp environment. Which cmdlet can the administrator execute to accomplish this task?
A. Get-BrokerApplicationInstance
B. Get-BrokerApplication
C. Get-BrokerSessionLinger
D. Get-BrokerSession
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator needs to review the Delivery Group\\’s historical data from the last 200 days. Which tool allows the
administrator to view this data?
A. Citrix Studio – Delivery Groups
B. Citrix Director – Dashboard
C. Citrix Studio – Applications
D. Citrix Director – Trends
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two steps can a Citrix Administrator perform to use Citrix PowerShell cmdlets in a XenDesktop environment?
(Choose two.)
A. Get-executionPolicy
B. Set-ExecutionPolicy unrestricted
C. Get-Command-Module Citrix*
D. Add-Pssnapin citrix*
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has configured two sites: Site A and Site B. Each site uses the same license server
named LicenseServer1. The administrator has the following additional information:
Site A is configured to check out Enterprise licenses.
Site B is configured to check out Platinum licenses.
LicenseServer1 contains both Enterprise and Platinum licenses.
The Enterprise licenses have become exhausted, and the next user from Site A attempts to launch a published desktop.
What will be the outcome of this action?
A. The application will launch successfully with Platinum licenses checked out.
B. The application will launch successfully, and Site A will enter the Supplement Grace Period.
C. The user will be unable to launch the application, and the error message “No resources available” will appear.
D. The application will launch successfully, and Site B will enter the Supplement Grace Period.
Correct Answer: B

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API API-571 exam exercise questions, API-571 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

API 571 – Corrosion and Materials – API” Exam API-571.

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API-571 exam

1.Studying For The Exam

Exam questions for the API 571 Corrosion and Materials certification are derived from API RP 571 Damage Mechanisms Affecting Fixed Equipment in the Refining Industry.
The Body of Knowledge for the API 571 exam consists of the entire API RP 571, 2nd edition (2011), with the exception of the following sections: 1.1, 3.1, 4.1 and 5.2.

2.Exam Structure

The API 571 exam is 3.25 hours long.
There are 80 questions, of which only 70 are scored. The remaining 10 are pretest, which are not scored.
All questions are multiple-choice and closed-book. Paper and reference materials are not allowed into exams.

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Free API API-571 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A 5Cr-1Mo piping system in the hydrogen unit shows significant internal wall loss after 2 years in service due to
CO?corrosion. Which material would be best suited to use to install a new pipe system?
A. Titanium
B. 9Cr-1Mo
C. A-106 Gr B
D. 316 SS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Hydrogen stress cracking is the same mechanism that is responsible for sulfide stress corrosion cracking in wet H²S
environments except that HF acid is generating the __________.
A. Sulfide
B. Caustic
C. Hydrogen
D. Water
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Carbonate stress corrosion cracking is the term applied to surface breaking or cracks that occur adjacent to carbon steel
welds under the combined action of ____________ and ___________ in carbonate containing systems.
A. Temperature, stress
B. Tensile stress, corrosion
C. Corrosion, velocity
D. Tensile stress, velocity
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Sulfuric acid promotes general and localized corrosion of carbon steel. Carbon steel heat affected zones may
experience severe corrosion. Acid concentration, temperature, alloy content and ____________ are critical factors
affecting sulfuric acid corrosion.
A. Pressure
B. Stress
C. Velocity
D. Ductility
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
For furnaces, to prevent PASCC, keep the firebox heated above the dewpoint to keep ________ from forming.
A. Water
B. Acids
C. Moisture
D. Corrosion
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
In susceptible materials, the primary factor that affects sigma phase formation is the ________ at elevated
temperatures.
A. Time of exposure
B. Pressure
C. Stress
D. Velocity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Welds joining dissimilar materials (ferritic and austenetic) may suffer __________ related damage at high temperatures
due to differential thermal expansion stresses.
A. Stress
B. Creep
C. Fatigue
D. Thermal stress
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Carburization can be confirmed by a substantial increase in hardness and a _______ in ductility.
A. Loss
B. Gain
C. Change
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Cl SCC usually occurs at metal temperatures above ________.
A. 125º F
B. 175º F
C. 140º F
D. 200º F
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
With Cl SCC, ________ levels of chloride ________ the likelihood of cracking.
A. Decreasing, Increases
B. Increasing, Decreases
C. Increasing, Increases
D. Increasing, Eliminates
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
_________ is accelerated high temperature wastage of materials that occurs when contaminants in the fuel form
deposits and melt on the metal surfaces.
A. Spheroidization
B. Dealloying
C. Fuel ash corrosion
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Susceptibility to temper embrittlement is largely determined by the presence of the alloying elements manganese and
_______.
A. Chromium
B. Moly
C. Silicon
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A brittle fracture:
A. Is caused by stress cycles.
B. Is always the result of thermal stresses.
C. Grow very rapidly with minimum deformation prior to failure.
D. Grows slowly and is dependent on time and stress.
Correct Answer: C

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