[Latest Updates] Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 Exam Practice Questions and answers,300-208 dumps free

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Latest effective Cisco 300-208 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which profiling capability allows you to gather and forward network packets to an analyzer?
A. collector
B. spanner
C. retriever
D. aggregator
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which option is the code field of n EAP packet?
A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success
B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure
C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success
D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
In the command \\’aaa authentication default group tacacs local\\’, how is the word \\’default\\’ defined?
A. Command set
B. Group name
C. Method list
D. Login type
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
When configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS, what is a recommended best practice?
A. Synchronize the router\\’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update.
B. Clear the router\\’s flash of unused signature files.
C. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency.
D. Create the appropriate directory on the router\\’s flash memory to store the downloaded signature files.
E. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which component hosts the web authentication
portal?
A. the endpoints
B. the WLC
C. the access point
D. the switch
E. ISE
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 6
Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are
true? (Choose two.)
A. They send endpoint data to AAA servers.
B. They collect endpoint attributes.
C. They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies.
D. They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints.
E. They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles.
F. They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements.
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 7
Which redirect-URL is pushed by Cisco ISE for posture redirect for corporate users?
A. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cppandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
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B. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cwaandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
C. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=mdmandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
D. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo
rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=drwandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose two.)
A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field.
B. DoS
C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests
D. ARP cache poisoning on the router
E. client unable to access network resources
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 9
Which two Cisco Catalyst switch interface commands allow only a single voice device and a single data device to be
connected to the IEEE 802.1X-enabled interface? (Choose two.)
A. authentication host-mode single-host
B. authentication host-mode multi-domain
C. authentication host-mode multi-host
D. authentication host-mode multi-auth
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
Which 802.1x command is needed for ACL to be applied on a switch port?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x pae authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. radius-server vsa send authentication
E. aaa authorization network default group radius
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE?
A. the http secure-server command
B. RADIUS Attribute 29
C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting
D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing.
Logs indicate an EAP failure. What are the two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
B. Client certificate is not included in the Trusted Certificate Store
C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list
D. Default rule denies all traffic
E. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 13
A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown\\’ for a single corporate mac address but unknown
machines are reported as `complaint\\’. Which option is the reason for machine being reported `unknown\\’.
A. Posture service disabled on cisco ISE
B. Posture policy does not support the OS
C. Posture agent not installed on the machine
D. Posture compliance condition is missing on the machine
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which type of SGT classification method is required when authentication is unavailable?
A. Bypass
B. Dynamic
C. Static
D. Inline
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 15
When enabling the Cisco IOS IPS feature, which step should you perform to prevent rogue signature updates from
being installed on the router?
A. configure authentication and authorization for maintaining signature updates
B. install a known RSA public key that correlates to a private key used by Cisco
C. manually import signature updates from Cisco to a secure server, and then transfer files from the secure server to the
router
D. use the SDEE protocol for all signature updates from a known secure management station
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT?
A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the enterprise security policy
B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with inside endpoints.
C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies.
D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment?
A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint.
B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain.
C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain.
D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
Which two authentication stores are supported to design a wireless network using PEAP EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the
authentication method? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. ACS
C. LDAP
D. RSA Secure-ID
E. Certificate Server
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
Which three statement about Windows Server Update Services remediation are true?
A. WSUS can install the latest service pack available
B. WSUS checks for automatic update configuration on Windows
C. WSUS checks for client behavior anomalies
D. WSUS remediates Windows client from a locally manage WSUS server
E. WSUS remediates Windows client from a Microsoft manage WSUS server
F. WSUS provides links to update AV/AS
Correct Answer: ADE


QUESTION 20
Which statement about IOS accounting is true?
A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined.
B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined.
C. Authorization must be configured before accounting.
D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
Which of these is a configurable Cisco IOS feature that triggers notifications if an attack attempts to exhaust critical
router resources and if preventative controls have been bypassed or are not working correctly?
A. Control Plane Protection
B. Management Plane Protection
C. CPU and memory thresholding
D. SNMPv3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 22
Which two simple posture conditions are valid?
A. Service
B. Antispyware
C. Firewall
D. File
E. Antivirus
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 23
Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE?
A. the http secure-server command
B. RADIUS Attribute 29
C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting
D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Security Group Access requires which three syslog messages to be sent to Cisco ISE? (Choose three.)
A. IOS-7-PROXY_DROP
B. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_DOS_ATTACK
C. MKA-2-MACDROP
D. AUTHMGR-5-MACMOVE
E. ASA-6-CONNECT_BUILT
F. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_FALLBACK_REQ
Correct Answer: BDF


QUESTION 25
Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. multidomain authentication host mode
B. multihost mode
C. multi-MAC host mode
D. single-host mode
E. dual-host mode
F. multi-auth host mode
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 26
When Cisco IOS IPS signatures are being tuned, how is the Target Value Rating assigned?
A. It is calculated from the Event Risk Rating.
B. It is calculated from a combination of the Attack Severity Rating and Signature Fidelity Rating
C. It is manually set by the administrator.
D. It is set based upon SEAP functions.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 27
Which two are best practices to implement profiling services in a distributed environment? (Choose two)
A. use of device sensor feature
B. configuration to send syslogs to the appropriate profiler node
C. netflow probes enabled on central nodes
D. node-specific probe configuration
E. global enablement of the profiler service
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 28
When RADIUS NAC and AAA Override are enabled for WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about RADIUS NAC
are true? (Choose two.)
A. It will return an access-accept and send the redirection URL for all users.
B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the ISE.
C. It allows the ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated.
D. It is used for posture assessment, so the ISE changes the user profile based on posture result.
E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time.
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 29
Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a
unique characteristic of the most secure mode?
A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication
B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication
C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication
D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 30
Which command can check a AAA server authentication for server group Group1, user cisco, and password cisco555
on a Cisco ASA device?
A. ASA# test aaa-server authentication Group1 username cisco password cisco555
B. ASA# test aaa-server authentication group Group1 username cisco password cisco555
C. ASA# aaa-server authorization Group1 username cisco password cisco555
D. ASA# aaa-server authentication Group1 roger cisco555
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 31
A network security engineer is considering configuring 802.1x for security. He wants to use single host for data and
single host for voice. Which port authentication method he use?
A. Single host
B. Multi host
C. Multi auth
D. Multi-domain
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 32
Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE Authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication?
A. Dot1x and if authentication failed continue
B. MAB and if user not found continue
C. MAB and if authentication failed continue D. Dot1x and if user not found continue
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 33
Where would a Cisco ISE administrator define a named ACL to use in an authorization policy?
A. In the conditions of an authorization rule.
B. In the attributes of an authorization rule.
C. In the permissions of an authorization rule.
D. In an authorization profile associated with an authorization rule.
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Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 34
Which effect does the ip http secure-server command have on a Cisco ISE?
A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line.
B. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect by using web-based authentication.
D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 35
What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify certificate on an ISE device?
A. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.
Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
B. 1. Download the CA server certificate.
2.
Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
C. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.
Download the CA server certificate.
3.
Access the ISE server and submit the CA request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the CA server.
D. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file.
2.
Download the CA server certificate.
3.
Access the CA server and submit the ISE request.
4.
Install the issued certificate on the ISE.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 36
Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching
B. uRPF
C. routing protocol authentication
D. CPPr
E. BPDU protection
F. role-based access control
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 37
What is a required step when you deploy dynamic VLAN and ACL assignments?
A. Configure the VLAN assignment.
B. Configure the ACL assignment.
C. Configure Cisco IOS Software 802.1X authenticator authorization.
D. Configure the Cisco IOS Software switch for ACL assignment.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 38
A network administrator wants to use dynamic VLAN assignment from Cisco ISE. Which option must be configured on
the switch to support this?
A. AAA authentication
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. AAA authorization
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 39
Which three features should be enabled as best practices for MAB? (Choose three.)
A. MD5
B. IP source guard
C. DHCP snooping
D. storm control
E. DAI
F. URPF
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 40
What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.)
A. The port is error disabled.
B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port.
C. The port generates a port resistance error.
D. The port attempts to repair the violation.
E. The port is placed in quarantine state.
F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.

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[Latest Updates] Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Exam Practice Questions and answers,300-206 dumps free

Latest updates Cisco CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions (SENSS v1.0) 300-206 exam questions and Answers! Free sharing 300-206 pdf online download, online exam Practice test, easy to improve skills! Get the full 300-206 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-206.html (Total questions:358 Q&A). Year-round updates! guarantee the first attempt to pass the exam!

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Latest effective Cisco 300-206 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 2
Choose two correct statements about private-vlan.
A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID
that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch)
B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also
configured as protected (same switch)
C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs
D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan
E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ?
Correct Answer: DE
You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is
propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not
take
effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI.
A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.


QUESTION 3
What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS
access?
A. sslconfig
B. sslciphers
C. tlsconifg
D. certconfig
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
When you set a Cisco IOS Router as an SSH server, which command specifies the RSA public key of the remote peer
when you set the SSH server to perform RSA-based authentication?
A. router(config-ssh-pubkey-user)#key
B. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string
C. router(config-ssh-pubkey)#key-string
D. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string enable ssh
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Where do you apply a control plane services policy to implement Management Plane Protection on a Cisco Router?
A. Control-plane router
B. Control-plane host
C. Control-plane interface management 0/0
D. Control-plane service policy
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t11/htsecmpp.htmllead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q5

 

QUESTION 6
Which three statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose three.)
A. Isolated ports can talk to promiscuous and community ports.
B. Promiscuous ports can talk to isolated and community ports.
C. Private VLANs run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in client mode.
D. Private VLANS run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in transparent mode.
E. Community ports can talk to each other as well as the promiscuous port.
F. Primary, secondary, and tertiary VLANs are required for private VLAN implementation.
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 7
Which option is the Cisco ASA on-box graphical management solution?
A. SSH
B. ASDM
C. Console
D. CSM
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which three options describe how SNMPv3 traps can be securely configured to be sent by IOS? (Choose three.)
A. An SNMPv3 group is defined to configure the read and write views of the group.
B. An SNMPv3 user is assigned to SNMPv3 group and defines the encryption and authentication credentials.
C. An SNMPv3 host is configured to define where the SNMPv3 traps will be sent.
D. An SNMPv3 host is used to configure the encryption and authentication credentials for SNMPv3 traps.
E. An SNMPv3 view is defined to configure the address of where the traps will be sent.
F. An SNMPv3 group is used to configure the OIDs that will be reported.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 9
What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on interfaces?
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 2156 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual cloud
environment?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. Cisco VSG
C. WSVA
D. ESVA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
With Cisco ASA active/standby failover, by default, how many monitored interface failures will cause failover to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
You are going to add ASA to CSM (Cisco Security Manager). Which port on ASA must be reachable for CSM to
succeed?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 80
D. 443
Correct Answer: D
Security Manager can use these transport protocols:
SSL (HTTPS)–Secure Socket Layer, which is an HTTPS connection, is the only transport protocol used with PIX
Firewalls, Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA), and Firewall Services Modules (FWSM). It is also the default protocol for
IPS
devices and for routers running Cisco IOS Software release 12.3 or higher.
If you use SSL as the transport protocol on Cisco IOS routers, you must also configure SSH on the routers. Security
Manager uses SSH connections to handle interactive command deployments during SSL deployments. Cisco Security
Manager was using OpenSSL for the Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocols.
Beginning with version 4.13, Cisco Security Manager replaced OpenSSL version 1.0.2 with Cisco SSL version 6.x.
Cisco SSL
enables FIPS compliance over full FIPS Validation which results in fast and cost-effective connectivity. The Common
Criteria mode in Cisco SSL allows easier compliance. Cisco SSL is feature-forward when compared to OpenSSL. The
product Security Baseline (PSB) requirements for Cisco SSL ensures important security aspects such as credential and
key management, cryptography standards, antispoofing capabilities, integrity and tamper protection, and session, data,
and stream management and administration are taken care of.
SSH–Secure Shell is the default transport protocol for Catalyst switches and Catalyst 6500/7600 devices. You can also
use it with Cisco IOS routers.
Telnet–Telnet is the default protocol for routers running Cisco IOS software releases 12.1 and
12.2. You can also use it with Catalyst switches, Catalyst 6500/7600 devices, and routers running Cisco IOS Software
release 12.3 and higher. See the Cisco IOS software documentation for configuring Telnet.
HTTP–You can use HTTP instead of HTTPS (SSL) with IPS devices. HTTP is not the default protocol for any device
type.
TMS–Token Management Server is treated like a transport protocol in Security Manager, but it is not a real transport
protocol. Instead, by configuring TMS as the transport protocol of a router, you are telling Security Manager to deploy
configurations to a TMS. From the TMS, you can download the configuration to an eToken, plug the eToken into the
router\\’s USB bus, and update the configuration. TMS is available only for certain routers running Cisco IOS Software
12.3 or
higher.
Security Manager can also use indirect methods to deploy configurations to devices, staging the configuration on a
server that manages the deployment to the devices. These indirect methods also allow you to use dynamic IP
addresses on
your devices. The methods are not treated as transport protocols, but as adjuncts to the transport protocol for the
device. You can use these indirect methods:
AUS (Auto Update Server)–When you add a device to Security Manager, you can select the AUS server that is
managing it. You can use AUS with PIX Firewalls and ASA devices.
Configuration Engine–When you add a router to Security Manager, you can select the Configuration Engine that is
managing it.


QUESTION 13
What are two enhancements of SSHv2 over SSHv1? (Choose two.)
A. VRF-aware SSH support
B. DH group exchange support
C. RSA support
D. keyboard-interactive authentication
E. SHA support
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 14
Which two commands can be used to create a Cisco Unified ACL within the ASA CLI? (Choose two.)
A. ipv6 access-list
B. object-group network
C. ipv6 access-list webtype
D. access-list extended
E. object-group network nat-pat-grp
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/acl_extended.pdf


QUESTION 15
Which statement about Cisco IPS Manager Express is true?
A. It provides basic device management for large-scale deployments.
B. It provides a GUI for configuring IPS sensors and security modules.
C. It enables communication with Cisco ASA devices that have no administrative access.
D. It provides greater security than simple ACLs.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 16
What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?
A. Trace
B. Debug
C. Informational
D. Critical
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
Which two option are main challenges for public cloud data center?
A. deployment cost
B. tenant isolation
C. disaster recovery
D. system scalability
E. network visibility
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 18
If you encounter problems logging in to the Cisco Security Manager 4.4 web server or client or backing up its databases,
which account has most likely been improperly modified?
A. admin (the default administrator account)
B. casuser (the default service account)
C. guest (the default guest account)
D. user (the default user account)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
Which Cisco TrustSec role does a Cisco ASA firewall serve within an identity architecture?
A. Access Requester
B. Policy Decision Point
C. Policy Information Point
D. Policy Administration Point
E. Policy Enforcement Point
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 20
Which statement about Cisco Security Manager form factors is true?
A. Cisco Security Manager Professional and Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundles support FWSMs.
B. Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional support FWSMs.
C. Only Cisco Security Manager Professional supports FWSMs.
D. Only Cisco Security Manager Standard supports FWSMs.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 21
If a switch port goes directly into a blocked state only when a superior BPDU is received, what mechanism must be in
use?
A. STP bpdu guard
B. STP root guard
C. SPT bpdu filter
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit. Why was the packet dropped? ****Exhibit is Missing****
(this exhibit is packet capture with traffic destination to port 23 and being drop by access- list)
A. Telnet access is not allowed between these two nodes.
B. NAT is not applied correctly for the 10.10.96.5 host
C. The source port is configured incorrectly In the capture
D. There is no route on the Cisco ASA to the destination host
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 23
A network engineer must mange and configurations to a cisco networking environment solutions accomplishes this
task?
A. cisco IPS manage express and pushing configuration to the ips units
B. cisco security 4.5 or later and pushing configuration bundles to each of the,,,,,
C. cisco adaptive security device manager to push configuration to each of the IPS
D. fire SIGHT manager to bundle and push configuration to the IPS units installed
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 24
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
– The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices.

The user needs read-write access to policies.

The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will the administrator assign to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 25
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 26
Which are the most secure authentication and encryption options? (Choose two)
A. DES
B. 3DES
C. AES
D. MD5
E. SHA
Correct Answer: CE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/next-generation-cryptography.html#2


QUESTION 27
Which policy map action makes a Cisco router behave as a stateful firewall for matching traffic?
A. Log
B. Inspect
C. Permit
D. Deny
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 28
What two are data and voice protocols do ASA 5500 supports? (Choose two)
A. CTIQBE Inspection
B. H.323 Inspection
C. MGCP Inspection
D. RTSP Inspection
E. SIP Inspection
F. Skinny (SCCP) Inspection
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 29
A. choosed to use udp as answer
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 30
About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be?
A. local
B. default
Correct Answer: A
ASA Identity Firewal:
The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those
users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL.
Additionally, the
Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in
and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).


QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this access list is true?lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q31

A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT
B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default
C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration
D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all
E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic
Correct Answer: A
ASA 9.0(1) code introduced the Unified ACL for IPv4 and IPv6. ACLs now support IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. You can
even specify a mix of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses for the source and destination. The any keyword was changed to
represent IPv4 and IPv6 traffic. The any4 and any6 keywords were added to represent IPv4-only and IPv6-only traffic,
respectively. The IPv6-specific ACLs are deprecated. Existing IPv6 ACLs are migrated to extended ACLs.


QUESTION 32
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of
traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 33
Hotspot Questionlead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-1

Which statement is true of the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA?
A. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to an FTP server before the buffer is overwritten.
B. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to flash memory before the buffer is overwritten.
C. System log messages with a severity level of six and higher will be logged to the internal buffer.
D. System log messages with a severity level of six and lower will be logged to the internal buffer.
Correct Answer: C lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-2 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q33-3

 

QUESTION 34
When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true?
A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page.
B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database.
C. The administrator can manually update the page.
D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 35
Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two)
A. RSA-SIG
B. MD5
C. AES
D. 3DES
E. DES
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 36
You must restrict the interface on which management traffic can be received by the routers on your network. Which
feature do you enable?
A. MPP
B. extended ACL on all of the interfaces
C. CPP with a port filter
D. AAA
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 37
Which statement about static or default route on the Cisco ASA appliance is true?
A. The admin distance is 1 by default.
B. From the show route output, the [120/3] indicates an admin distance of 3.
C. A default route is specified using the 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 address/mask combination.
D. The tunneled command option is used to enable route tracking.
E. The interface-name parameter in the route command is an optional parameter if the static route points to the next-
hop router IP address.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 38
Which Cisco prime Infrastructure features allows you to assign templates to a group of wireless LAN controllers with
similar configuration requirements?
A. Lightweight access point configuration template
B. Composite template
C. Controller configuration group
D. Shared policy object
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 39
CORRECT TEXT

lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-1 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-2

Correct Answer: explanation
Answer: Please check the steps in explanation part below:
1) Click on Service Policy Rules, then Edit the default inspection rule.
2) Click on Rule Actions, then enable HTTP as shown here: lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-3

3) Click on Configure, then add as shown here: lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-4 lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-5

4) Create the new map in ASDM like shown:lead4pass 300-206 exam dumps - q39-6

5) Edit the policy as shown:
6) Hit OK


QUESTION 40
Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco ASA CLI commands configure these static routes in the Cisco ASA routing table?
S 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.10, dmzS 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 [2/0] via 172.16.1.11, dmz
A. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11
B. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 1
C. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 2
D. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11
E. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 1
F. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 2
Correct Answer: F

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2018 New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given cisco switch? (choose two)
A. show interfaces interface
B. show interfaces trunk
C. show interfaces switch port
D. show ip interface brief
E. show interfaces vlan
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command can you enter to configure an IPV6 floating static route?
A. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 201
B. Router(config)# ipv6 route::/0 serail0/1
C. Router(config)# ipv6 route static resolve default
D. Router(config)# ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serail 0/1 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two.)
A. 802.2 Protocol
B. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10BaseT half duplex
D. CSMA/CD Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA Stops transmitting when congestion occurs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
How to configure RIPv2? (Choose Two.)
A. Enable RIP
B. Connect RIP to WAN interface
C. Enable no auto-summary
D. Enable authentication
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
A. Forwarding
B. Enabled
C. Disabled
D. Err disabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.)
A. Layer 2 protocol
B. Layer 3 protocol
C. Proprietary protocol
D. enabled by default
E. disabled by default
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 8
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? 200-125 dumps (Choose Three.)
A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. switchport mode trunk
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
D. switchport trunk native vlan 20
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?
A. Tos Field
B. DSCP
C. IP Precedence
D. Cos
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?
A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
If you configure syslog messages without specifying the logging trap level, which log messages will the router send?
A. 0-4
B. 0-5
C. 0-6
D. 0-2
E. 0-1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which feature facilitate the tagging of a specific VLAN?
A. Routing
B. Hair pinning
C. Encapsulation
D. Switching
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What does split horizon prevent?
A. routing loops, link state
B. routing loops, distance vector
C. switching loops, STP
D. switching loops, VTP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which value to use in HSRP protocol election process ?
A. interface
B. virtual IP address
C. priority
D. router ID
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is needed to be enable back the role of active in HSRP?
A. preempt
B. priority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which of the following privilege level is the most secured?
A. Level 0
B. Level 1
C. Level 15
D. Level 16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which IPV6 feature is supported in IPV4 but is not commonly used?
A. unicast
B. multicast
C. anycast
D. broadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which range represents the standard access list?
A. 99
B. 150
C. 299
D. 2000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
What to do when the router password was forgotten?
A. use default password cisco to reset
B. access router physically
C. use ssl/vpn
D. Type confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following encrypts the traffic on a leased line?
A. telnet
B. ssh
C. vtp
D. vpn
E. dmvpn
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
How do you configure a hostname?
A. Router(config)#hostname R1
B. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
C. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
200-125 dumps Which technology you will choose to connect multiple sites with secure connections?
A. Point-to-point
B. DMVPN
C. vpn
D. https://www.CertBus.com/200-125.html
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
A. Show cdp neighbors detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp interface
D. Show cdp traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?(choose two)
A. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing tables.
B. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
C. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
D. Route summarization iscompued automatically by the router.
E. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links
F. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables,using automatic updates.
G. Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 28
Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse two)
A. 50
B. 1550
C. 150
D. 1250
E. 2050
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 29
What does split-horizon do?
A. Prevent routing loop in distance vector protocol
B. Prevent switching loop in distance vector protocol
C. Prevent switching loop in link-state protocol
D. Prevent routing loop in link-state protocol
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which statement about vlan operation on cisco catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk,the vlan id can be determined from the source MAC address table.
B. unkown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the ports
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on the interface?
200-125 dumps
A. router# show protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show line
D. router#show interface gig0/1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 32
When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected
C. When you have gathered all information about an issue
D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two authentic methods are compatible with MLPPP on a serial Interface?(choose two)
A. PEAP
B. CHAP
C. TACACS+
D. PAP
E. LEAP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 34
Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses.
Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.9.0
B. 172.16.8.0
C. 172.16.31.0
D. 172.16.20.0
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 35
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
A. The designated port
B. The backup port
C. The alternate port
D. The root port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 38
How Eigrp for ipv6 configuration done? 200-125 dumps (Choose two)
A. uses process number
B. neighbor configured directly
C. configured driectly on interface
D. configured globally interface
E. have shutdown feature
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 39
interface fa0/0
ip address x.x.x.33 255.255.255.224
router bgp XXX
neighbor x.x.x.x remote as x.x.x.x
You need to advertise the network of Int fa0/0.
A. x.x.x.32 mask 255.255.255.224
B. x.x.x.32 255.255.255.224
C. x.x.x.32 mask 0.0.0.31
D. x.x.x.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Which two statements about LLDP are true?(choose two)
A. It uses mandatory TLVs to discover the neighboring devices
B. It functions at Layer 2 and Layer 3
C. It is a Cisco-proprietary technology
D. It is implemented in accordance with the 802.11a specification
E. It enables systems to learn about one another over the data-link layer
Correct Answer: AE

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New Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (13-40)

QUESTION 13
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support only numeric values.
B. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns support only numeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translation patterns support only numeric values.
D. Both transformation patterns and translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which type of dial plan implements destinations by using a format that is similar to email addresses?
A. H.323.
B. E.164.
C. DNS.
D. URI.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
What is the maximum number of I080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?
A. 48
B. 180
C. 720
D. 800
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
The Cisco TelePresence Conductor will not handle conference requests if the administrator username/ password is configured as which of these options?
A. admin/TANDBERG
B. administrator/TANDBERG
C. tandberg/Cisco
D. admin/Cisco
E. cisco/Cisco
F. administrator/Cisco
G. cisco/TANDBERG
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which four modes are available on the Cisco TelePresence MCU MSE 8510 to connect to a gatekeeper? (Choose four.)
A. direct mode
B. H.225-routed mode
C. H.265-routed mode
D. H.245-routed mode
E. full proxy mode
F. partial proxy mode
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 18
When the Cisco IOS router or gateway receives a call setup request, what is the PID value of the default dial peer?
A. ID:3
B. PID:6
C. PID:0
D. PID:4
E. PID:5
F. PID:1
G. PID:2
H. PID:7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Employees at a company must dial 9 first to reach an external number. 300-070 dumps Which route pattern is used to route the call if a user dials the toll-free number 1-866-5551212?
A. 9.18XX[2-9]XXXXXX
B. 9.18[0,5-8][0,5-8]XXXXXXX
C. 9.1XXXXXXXXXX
D. 9.1866XXXXXXX
E. 9.1866[2-9]XXXXXX
F. 9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which statement regarding Cisco IP voice media streaming application is correct?
A. It should be activated on the gateway in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
B. It should be activated on the gatekeeper in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
C. It should be activated on the node in cluster that does not support the TFTP service.
D. It should be activated on the node in cluster that supports the TFTP service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You are a Voice Engineer working at ABC Company. You are asked to configure Cisco Unified Border Element in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which two configurations are required? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a SIP profile with Early Offer support for voice and video calls; insert MTP as needed.
B. Change the SIP trunk security profile to a nonsecure SIP trunk profile.
C. Under the SIP information configuration, set the destination port to 5061.
D. Bind the SIP signaling to the Cisco Unified Border Element interface.
E. Configure dial peers on Cisco Unified Border Element for inbound and outbound calls appropriately.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?
A. call classification
B. call location
C. device pool
D. signaling port
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Where do you configure a SIP route pattern?
A. Call Routing andgt; Route/Hunt andgt; SIP Route Pattern
B. System andgt; SIP Route Pattern
C. Call Routing andgt; SIP Route Pattern
D. Advanced Features andgt; SIP Route Pattern
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Where is a Local Route Group configuration applied?
A. In each IP phone
B. In each device pool
C. In each location
D. In each region
E. In each route list
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Which statement about traffic policing and shaping is true?
A. Shaping limits traffic rates by dropping, re-marking, or transmitting traffic.
B. Policing involves regulating excessive traffic rates by delaying (that is, buffering) traffic.
C. Traffic policing and shaping help regulate bandwidth usage by limiting the amount of traffic.
D. Traffic policing is more suitable for lower-speed links such as Multilink PPP and Frame Relay, as it buffers excess traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which CUCM default global conference setting should be changed to ensure fraud prevention? 300-070 dumps
A. Advanced Ad Hoc Conference Enabled.
B. Block OffNet to OnNet Transfer.
C. MCU Conference Bridge Custom Layout Index.
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference.
E. Enable Click-to-Conference for Third-Party Applications.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?
A. Ad Hoc Conferencing
B. Homogenous Conferencing
C. HeterogeneousConferencing
D. Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
E. Meet-Me Conferencing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. By adding a Cisco Unified CM server to the cluster.
B. By adding a software conference bridge using Conference Bridge Configuration.
C. By installing DSP to a Cisco Unified CM server.
D. By reassigning other media resources to conference resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What are three features of Cisco Unified Border Element? (Choose three).
A. Protocol Interworking.
B. Bandwidth Control.
C. Admission Request.
D. Automated Alternate Routing.
E. Address Hiding.
F. Security.
G. Video Integration.
Correct Answer: AFG

QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which calling search space has the highest priority?
A. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
B. Phone Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
C. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Locales.
D. Directory Number Configuration andgt; Calling Search Space: CSS_Internos.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Hackers are sending calls through a gateway router that is running SIP. The engineer blocks all SIP messages to the router except from their SIP server, which has an IP address of 208.177.10.1. The customer also must connect via SIP to their Cisco Expressway server with an IP address of 10.1.10.110. Which series of commands secures the router from the hackers?
A. voice service voip voip security allow ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
B. voice service voip ip address trusted list ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
C. voice service voip allow-connections sip to sip ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
D. voice service voip address-hiding ipv4 208.177.10.1 255.255.255.255 ipv4 10.1.10.110 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls. What should you use?
A. calling extension expansion
B. called number expansion
C. external number mask of the called party
D. external phone number mask of the calling party
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Which pattern does the route pattern \+61278[^-5]59 match?
A. \+61278359001
B. +61278459001
C. 278259001
D. +61278259001
E. +612783559001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 36
By default, what value is voice traffic marked as on a Cisco Catalyst Switch?
A. DSCP CAS6 value 21, Cos 3
B. DSCP AF21 value 46, Cos 5
C. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 7
D. DSCP EF value 46, Cos 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which party has a SIP B2BUA role in the call?
A. 172.17.4.100
B. 10.100.4.65 and 172.17.4.100
C. 10.100.4.65
D. None of the parties has a B2BUA role in the call.
E. 10.100.4.68 and 10.100.4.65
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
In a centralized call-processing solution, there are five sites connected through an IP WAN. To optimize the utilization of the IP WAN, CAC needs to be implemented.
How should CAC be implemented? 300-070 dumps
A. Use a gatekeeper to control allocated bandwidth properly.
B. Use locations CAC with a single location.
C. Use a gatekeeper and Cisco Unified Border Element to provide CAC to sites that use a combination of SIPand MGCP gateways.
D. Use a gatekeeper to only control those locations that use H.323 gateways and a Cisco Unified BorderElement to control those sites that use MGCP or SIP gateways.
E. Use locations CAC with five locations in addition to Hub none.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 39
Which groups will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers that are set to use the andlt;Noneandgt; partition?
A. Only users that have the andlt;Noneandgt; partition assigned in their calling search space will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
B. All users will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
C. The andlt;Noneandgt; partition will prevent all users from accessing the Meet-Me conference numbers.
D. Any IP phones with their lines configured in the andlt;Noneandgt; partition will have access to the Meet-Me conference numbers.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 40
If you have configured translation rules, what command do you use to verify digit manipulation?
A. execute translation-rule
B. show translation-rule
C. test translation-rule
D. debug translation-rule
E. set translation-rule
Correct Answer: C

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Best Cisco Business Value Specialist 810-403 dumps exam (1-30) questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which three options are financial challenges in business outcome-based selling? (Choose three.)
A. Competing stakeholder goals and expectations.
B. Difficulty to determine external value.
C. Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
D. Competitive analysis is often incomplete.
E. IT adoption and implementation may have long business cycles.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 2
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?
A. What services do you need?
B. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two elements that are associated with customer interaction is the Seven Elements Framework used to plan? (Choose two.)
A. general communications
B. high-impact negotiations
C. business concepts
D. prior solutions considered
E. seller\’s authority for pricing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Which two options are major tensions that business performance measurement could help balance? (Choose two.)
A. Responsive / non-responsive.
B. Different performance expectations.
C. Profit, growth and control.
D. Critical / non-critical.
E. Monitor and control.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 6
According to research, what is the leading reason that technology projects fail? 810-403 dumps
A. poor stakeholder identification and management
B. lack of budget
C. too many stakeholders
D. lack of a business model canvas
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which is the main outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach?
A. Organizations want more from their IT solutions which respect to value, time-to-market, and measurable outcomes.
B. Organizations want to improve the chain of value based on the cost of IT solutions they provide.
C. Organizations want to develop marketing and communicational strategies in order to sell more efficiently.
D. Organizations want to offer a renewed portfolio in order to increase share value.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How does an open plan volume licensing model works?
A. It does not specify individual users, so any user can access the service.
B. It provides the organization with an agreed number of users.
C. The costs are directly related to usage, not quantity of users.
D. The enterprise pays as it acquires services.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When selling business outcomes, which two key points/ factors related to understanding actual achievement of goals must be considered? (Choose two.)
A. specific timeframe and periods
B. communicational procedures
C. metrics and calculation procedures
D. project management milestones
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 11
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 13
Which two classes of solutions enable business outcomes for the Energy/Utilities industry? (Choose two.) 810-403 dumps
A. Advanced Routing
B. Data Center and Virtualization
C. Multilayer Switching
D. Internet of Everything
E. Remote Expert
F. Service Provider Network Infrastructure
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two options are part of the five steps approach needed to conduct a stakeholder analysis? (Choose two.)
A. Define ways to move stakeholders from their current to future position.
B. Identifycustomer stakeholders.
C. Define absolute power and interest of stakeholders.
D. Generate consensus among stakeholders.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which option is most likely to improve interactions with customers?
A. Understand their communication style.
B. Understand the goals of their team.
C. Learn their personal interests.
D. Know the time available to present the solution.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Related to business outcomes, why are customers looking for Cisco and its Partners\’ solutions and services?
A. To explore how technology innovation yields new revenue, lower costs, or reduce risk in more detail
B. To help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while relying on a human interaction faster
C. To help them more quickly or effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies in which they make investments
D. To allow customers to complete a marketing research as part of their investment funds
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
When selling business outcomes, which two key factors must be considered in relation to the achievement of the outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. metrics and measurement
B. project management milestones
C. specific timeframe and milestones
D. communication procedures
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 20
Which two options have a positive impact on costs from the direct benefits provided by?
A. Enabling rapid growth to new markets andamp; geographies
B. Managing technology obsolescence
C. Managing technology innovation
D. Saving OpEx shifting to predicable CapEx
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 21
Which question provides the best information to define customer success factors? 810-403 dumps
A. What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?
B. What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
C. What services do you need?
D. Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 23
Which tool is recommended to help identify customer responsibilities in one of their business processes?
A. BMC chart
B. RACE report
C. Agile chart
D. RACI chart
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which option is a key concept of the unique Cisco sales approach?
A. Add as many new Cisco technologies to the solution that meet customer needs.
B. Start driving outcomes for customers, and go beyond selling and implementing technology solutions.
C. Put together the most logical set of services for the customer.
D. Engage in dialog about customer needs and new technologies.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
What are the phases of the Seven Elements framework?
A. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
B. Past, Present, Future.
C. Previous, Present, Posterior.
D. Before, In Between, After.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
When you seek customer support for an action, which framework can be used to plan influential communication?
A. stakeholder analysis matrix
B. seven elements
C. principled negotiation
D. business model canvas
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which option is a main benefit that Cisco Partners bring to the table for customers?
A. additional teams to implement solutions in a timely manner
B. relationships with key Cisco personnel
C. a large customer base for which to sell Cisco services
D. Cisco expertise and the ability to have specializations in certain practice areas
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
810-403 dumps
Correct Answer:
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 29
Which framework can give the best insight and visual flow into how a customer\’s functions work together, 810-403 dumps to go from parts inventory through shipped product?
A. business model canvas
B. porters value chain
C. critical success factor
D. organization chart
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which option is the leading reason that technology projects fail, according to research?
A. too many stakeholders
B. lack of a business model canvas
C. poor stakeholder management
D. lack of budget
Correct Answer: B

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200-150 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101 N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
Which two options are multicast addresses? 200-150 dumps (Choose two.)
A. FD00::2
B. 192.168.2.2
C. FF05::2
D. 226.10.10.10
E. 240.1.0.1
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 6
What is the maximum of fabric modules that can be installed in a Cisco Nexus 7000 chassis?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
200-150 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of network communication is depicted?
A. 802.3 frame
B. TCP frame
C. Ethernet packet
D. UDP packet
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which two terms can take the place of the wildcard mask in an ACL?
A. eq
B. deny
C. host
D. all
E. any
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which two port types are needed to build out an FCoE pass-through switch in NPV mode while maintaining Fiber Channel packet visibility? (Choose two.)
A. VN Port
B. VE Port
C. VF Port
D. Edge Port
E. N Port
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which three layers of the OSI model are included in the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 6
C. 3
D. 7
E. 4
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
A company has a single subnet in a small office. The administrator wants to limit non-web related traffic to the corporate intranet server as well as prevent abnormal HTTP requests and HTTP protocol anomalies from causing problems with the web server. 200-150 dumps Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Application firewall and NIPS
B. Edge firewall and HIDS
C. ACLs and anti-virus
D. Host firewall and WAF
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is the minimum number of disks that are needed in RAID 1?
A. 4 disks
B. 2 disks
C. 8 disks
D. 16 disks
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)
A. feature vtp
B. vtp client mode
C. vtp VLAN
D. vtp version
E. vtp static
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which two are functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two)
A. server connections
B. VLAN creation
C. packet filtering
D. high data transfer rate
E. high network fault tolerance
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
An engineer created three VSANs on the Cisco MDS switch. VSAN 100 is allocated to the marketing department, VSAN 110 is allocated to the research department, and VSAN 120 is allocated to the business department. The engineer wants to verify that the interfaces for the research department are allocated accordingly. Which command should the engineer use?
A. mdsswitch# show vsan 110
B. mdsswitch# show vsan membership
C. mdsswitch# show vsan
D. mdsswitch# show vsan usage
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS? 210-260 dumps
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection?
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A
210-260 dumps
QUESTION 6
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9
When a company puts a security policy in place, 210-260 dumps what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Telephony & Video, Part 1 v1.0
Exam Code: 300-070
Total Questions: 189 Q&As
300-070 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two types of encoding are available to configure a T1 controller for CAS? (Choose two.)
A. B8SF
B. AMI
C. B8ZS
D. SF
E. AME
F. ESF
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
What function does the device pool perform?
A. It separates user and physical location information.
B. It sets the default device parameters for all IP phones in the cluster.
C. It sets the location bandwidth used between different locations.
D. It provides a single point of configuration for every device in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which mechanism is often configured on the edges of a network to control the maximum rate of traffic that is sent or received on an interface and to classify the traffic into priority levels or class of service?
A. routing
B. shaping
C. policing
D. access control
E. traffic regulation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are components of Media Resources Architecture? (Choose three)
A. Music on hold.
B. Media Resource Manager.
C. Media Resource Group.
D. Route list.
E. Route group
F. Media Resource Group List.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 5
Which three items have a calling search space? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. transcoder
B. gateways
C. phone lines
D. phones
E. partitions
F. AAR groups
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which two codecs are required for Cisco WebEx Enabled TelePresence? (Choose two.)
A. G.711 codec for audio
B. H.264 codec for video
C. G.729 codec for audio
D. G.711 or G.729 codec for audio
E. H.263 codec for video
F. H.264 or H.263 codec for video
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed.
Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An organization with a centralized dial plan has user extensions as the last four digits of the external DID number. 300-070 dumps Some users at the head office have overlapping extensions with the users at the branch offices.
Which action fixes this issue without changing user extensions and allowing users to call each other across sites?
A. Use site codes.
B. Use different CSSs for both sites.
C. Place both extensions in different partitions.
D. Change the number of digits in the internal extensions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? 100-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6?
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
100-105 dumps Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.
Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which destination IP address can a host use to send one message to multiple devices across different subnets?
A. 172.20.1.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 192.168.0.119
D. 239.255.0.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDP
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks
Exam Code: 300-115
Total Questions: 437 Q&As
300-115 dumps
QUESTION 1
After the recent upgrade of the switching infrastructure, the network engineer notices that the port roles that were once “blocking” are now defined as “alternate” and “backup.” What is the reason for this change?
A. The new switches are using RSTP instead of legacy IEEE 802.1D STP.
B. IEEE 802.1D STP and PortFast have been configured by default on all newly implemented Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. The administrator has defined the switch as the root in the STP domain.
D. The port roles have been adjusted based on the interface bandwidth and timers of the new Cisco Catalyst switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber.
As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?
A. macros
B. errdisable autorecovery
C. IP Event Dampening
D. command aliases
E. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address- table? 300-115 dumps
A. This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B. The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C. The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D. ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E. The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the function of NSF?
A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the.” Which statement describes what this indicates about the status of the port?
A. The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
B. The bidirectional status of “unknown” indicates that the port will go into the disabled state because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
C. UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
D. The UDLD port is placed in the “unknown” state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is received on the interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
What is the result of the configuration? 300-115 dumps
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. 300-115 dumps The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?
A. The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B. The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C. The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D. The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator recently configured all ports for rapid transition using PortFast. After testing, it has been determined that several ports are not transitioning as they should. What is the reason for this?
A. RSTP has been enabled per interface and not globally.
B. The STP root bridge selection is forcing key ports to remain in non-rapid transitioning mode.
C. STP is unable to achieve rapid transition for trunk links.
D. The switch does not have the processing power to ensure rapid transition for all ports.
Correct Answer: C

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