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Cisco 300-820 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two licenses are required for the Expressway B2B feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Traversal Server
B. Advanced Networking
C. Device Provisioning
D. Rich Media Sessions
E. TURN Relays
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use private CA signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use public CA signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with public or private CA signed certificate.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-820 questions q3

Which two outbound connections should an administrator configure on the internal firewall? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP: TCP 7400
B. SIP: TCP 7001
C. SIP TCP 5061
D. Media: UDP 36012 to 59999
E. HTTPS: TCP 8443
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/expressway/config_guide/X12-5/CiscoExpressway-IP-Port-Usage-for-Firewall-Traversal-Deployment-Guide-X12-5.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
Which configuration is required when implementing Mobile and Remote Access on Cisco Expressway?
A. IPS
B. SAML authentication
C. Cisco Unified CM publisher address
D. SSO
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5

cisco 300-820 questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
When an Expressway-E is configured for static NAT, which Session Description Protocol attribute is modified to reflect
the NAT address?
A. SDP b-line
B. SIP record route
C. SDP c-line
D. SDP m-line
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which role does Call Policy play when preventing toll fraud on Expressways?
A. It controls which calls are allowed, which calls are rejected, and which calls are redirected to a different destination.
B. It changes the calling and called number on a call.
C. It changes the audio protocol used by a call through Expressways.
D. It changes the audio codec used in a call through Expressways.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
When designing the call control on a Cisco Expressway Core, which is the sequence of dial plan functions?
A. transforms, CPL, user policy, search rules
B. search rules, zones, local zones
C. DNS zone, local zone, search rules
D. search rules, transforms
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which step is taken when configuring a Cisco Expressway solution?
A. Configure the Expressway-E by using a non-traversal server zone.
B. Enable static NAT on the Expressway-E only.
C. Disable H.323 mode on the Expressway-E.
D. Enable H.323 H.460.19 demultiplexing mode on the Expressway-C.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
What is a key configuration requirement for Hybrid Message Service High Availability deployment with multiple IM and
Presence clusters?
A. You must have the Intercluster Sync Agent working across your IM and Presence clusters.
B. You must have the Intercluster Lookup Service working across all of your IM and Presence clusters.
C. Your IM and Presence Service clusters must have Multiple Device Messaging disabled.
D. AXL service should be activated only on the publisher of each IM and Presence cluster.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
How does an administrator configure an Expressway to make sure an external caller cannot reach a specific internal
address?
A. add the specific URI in the firewall section of the Expressway and block it
B. block the call with a call policy rule in the Expressway-E
C. add a search rule route all calls to the Cisco UCM
D. configure FAC for the destination alias on the Expressway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is the purpose of a transform in the Expressway server?
A. A transform has the function as a neighbor zone in the Expressway. It creates a connection with another server.
B. A transform changes the audio codec when the call goes through the Expressway.
C. A transform is used to route calls to a destination.
D. A transform changes an alias that matches certain criteria into another alias.
Correct Answer: D


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Cisco 300-810 exam questions online practice test

QUESTION 1
Which two methods does Cisco Jabber use for contact searching in an on-premises deployment model? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. XMPP
C. UDS
D. LDAP
E. SIP
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/presence.html

 

QUESTION 2
Which function of the Cisco IM and Presence high availability solution is true?
A. When the server has been restored to a normal state, user sessions remain on the backup server.
B. When an event takes place, the end user sessions are not moved from the failed server to the backup.
C. When the server has been restored, the server automatically fails back.
D. When a high availability event takes place, the end user sessions are moved from the failed server to the backup.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-im-presenceservice/200958-IM-and-Presence-Server-High-Availability.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which service must be activated on Cisco Unity Connection to utilize LDAP synchronization?
A. Cisco Tomcat
B. Cisco Sync Agent
C. Cisco DirSync
D. Cisco RIS Data Collector
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/connection/10x/administration/guide/10xcucsagx/10xcucsag120.html

 

QUESTION 4
Which component of SAML SSO defines the transport mechanism that is used to deliver the SAML messages between
entities?
A. profiles
B. metadata
C. assertions
D. bindings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which SAML 2.0 profile is supported by Cisco UCM, Cisco Unified IM and Presence, and Unity Connection version 10.x
and above?
A. single logout
B. web browser SSO
C. name identifier management
D. identity provider discovery
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q6

Users report that they cannot see the Chat Rooms icon on their Cisco Jabber clients. This feature works without issue in
the lab. An engineer reviews the Cisco IMandP and Jabber configuration and finds that the jabber-config.xml file is
configured properly to support this feature. Which activity should be performed on the IMandP server to resolve this
issue?
A. Activate Cisco XCP Connection Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
B. Restart Cisco XCP Message Archiver in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Feature Services.
C. Restart XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Control Center – Network Services.
D. Activate XCP Text Conference Manager in Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > Service Activation.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/jabber-windows/118684-probsol-chat-00.html

 

QUESTION 7
What are two Cisco Jabber 12.6 on-premises deployment types that can be run on a Windows- enabled PC? (Choose
two.)
A. Contact Center Agent
B. IM-only
C. multicloud-based
D. Full UC
E. cloud-based
Correct Answer: BD
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/jabber/12_6/cjab_b_on-prem-deployment-ciscojabber_12-6.pdf

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q8

Users connected to the internal network report a “Cannot communicate with the server” error while trying to log in to
Cisco Jabber using auto service discovery. The Jabber diagnostics and the SRV record configuration are as shown in
the exhibit. The host cucm1.ccnp.cisco.com is correctly resolved by the user desktops with the Cisco Unified
Communications Manager IP address. Why is the user not able to log in?
A. SRV protocol is not set up correctly. It should be _tls instead of _tcp.
B. Marking weight as 0 on the SRV record makes it inactive, so Jabber cannot discover the Cisco Unified CM.
C. The port specified on the SRV record is wrong.
D. The domain ccnp.cisco.com does not exist on the DNS server.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/jabber-client-login-and-login-issues/ta-p/3143446

 

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols does the Cisco IM Presence service use to federate with external domains? (Choose two.)
A. XMPP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. SCCP
E. SMPP
Correct Answer: AC
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/im_presence/interdomain_federation/11_5_1/cup0_b_interdomain-federation-guide-imp-115.pdf

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-810 questions q10

Which statement is true?
A. If the IMandP node in sub-cluster-1 goes down, then users assigned to it are randomly split between the two
remaining subclusters.
B. The administrator must add one node to each subcluster for high availability.
C. IMandP nodes in each subscluster must be configured from the same OVA template.
D. Each Cisco IMandP subcluster must have the same number of nodes.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer is configuring DNS for service discovery in a Jabber deployment for on-premises clients. Which snippet will
complete the SRV record name _tcp.example.com?
A. _cisco_uds
B. _collab_edge
C. _xmpp.server
D. _xmpp-client
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKCOL-2344.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which SAML component specifies the mapping of SAML assertion protocol message exchanges with standard
messaging formats or communication protocols such as SOAP exchanges?
A. SAML binding
B. SAML assertion
C. SAML profiles
D. SAML protocol
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_Assertion_Markup_Language

 

QUESTION 13
SAML SSO is enabled in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. What happens when a browser- based client
attempts to access a protected resource on a service provider?
A. The browser follows the redirect and issues an HTTPS GET request to the IdP.
B. The IdP checks for a valid browser session.
C. The service provider generates a SAML authentication request.
D. The SAML request is maintained as a query parameter in the GET request.
Correct Answer: C
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/SAML_SSO_deployment_guide/12_5_1/cucm_b_samlsso-deployment-guide-12_5/cucm_b_saml-sso-deployment-guide-12_5_chapter_01.html


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Latest updates Cisco 700-751 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which are the two characteristics of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.)
A. Improve Application Performance
B. Delivered from the cloud
C. Subscription-based model
D. Provides protection when on the VPN
E. Simple manual installation of hardware
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 2
What is the interface used to access the Cisco Meraki Dashboard?
A. Cisco IOS command-line interface (CLI)
B. Secure Shell (SSH)
C. Web browser
D. Terminal (mac) or Command Prompt (Windows)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are the two main reasons for deploying small-medium Wi-Fi solutions? (Choose two.)
A. Obtain enterprise-class solution features at the SMB price
B. Simplify deployment for organizations with limited IT staff
C. Need to identify potentially malicious rogue devices or users
D. Provide single pane of glass for routing and switching
E. Separate guest traffic from production traffic at reasonable OpEx.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of
potential threats
B. Limit secure access to a growing set of Cloud applications
C. Cisco delivers a common platform across the network, infrastructure, appliances, and the cloud
D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly
detection and network telemetry
E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate
deployment and unify management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 5
Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express?
A. mDNS Gateway
B. Guest WLAN enhancements
C. Expert View in the WebUI
D. Schedule WLAN
E. CMX Cloud support
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which device belongs to Business Class Cisco On-Premise Switching Solutions?
A. Cisco Meraki MS 225
B. Cisco Meraki MS 250/350
C. Cisco Catalyst 2960-L
D. Cisco 350X/550X
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which are two major security challenges that occur due to the proliferation of users and applications at the branch?
(Choose two.)
A. Increased threat surface area
B. Increased complexity for mitigation
C. Increased complexity for mobility
D. Increased complexity in Omni-channel experience
E. Increase in threat naivety
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)?
A. 100-120
B. 10-120
C. 1000-1200
D. 10-200
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which statement represents increasing sophistication in the security threat landscape?
A. 25% of users spent their work time off the network
B. 85% of intrusions are not discovered for weeks
C. 28% of top security constrains is product compatibility
D. 50B devices connected by 2020 (66% mobile)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What is the right approach to achieve secure infrastructure against attack requirements of WAN connectivity?
A. Monitoring application performance
B. Operational simplicity for server infrastructure
C. Simple and agile service deployment model
D. Introduce Advanced Threat Defense solution
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What are Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition?
A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising
performance
B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology
C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies
D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.)
A. Comprehensive
B. Advanced security
C. Enterprise
D. Essential
E. Defended
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
How do Cisco Business-Class SMB switches provide two simplified managements? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure Support
B. Limited scalability and hardware choices
C. Uncompromised security enabled by TrustSec and Identify Services Engine (ISE)
D. Standalone Configuration with Web GUI
E. Integrated live tools for fast troubleshooting
Correct Answer: AD

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Latest updates Cisco 700-680 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which two features are available in the Cisco Webex Web App? (Choose two.)
A. Webex App only works on desktop devices
B. Has to be re-downloaded every time you attend a meeting
C. Available to Chrome Browsers Only
D. Ability to share screens or specific applications
E. Centralized meeting controls like chat and QandA
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 2
Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid?
A. CCW order
B. Customer Smart Account
C. Product Access Key (PAK)
D. Holding Account
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What are the two management views for Control Hub?
A. Customer and Partner views
B. The customer has two management views
C. Cisco and Salesforce
D. Partner has two management views
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which key benefit of the Webex Teams collaboration is valid?
A. Only the moderator of space is able to use important meeting features
B. Replaces the need for a firewall appliance
C. Webex Teams does not support API\\’s or SDK\\’s
D. Integrates persistent context chats, file sharing, and whiteboarding
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about Cisco Webex Meetings are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Webex limits meetings to 50 people.
B. Webex Meetings and Webex Teams use different cloud engines.
C. Webex Meetings provides only audio.
D. Host and attendees can see up to 25 participants in one full-screen mode.
E. End users have the same experience regardless of which device they choose.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about Webex Teams message encryption is valid?
A. Messages are encrypted using the AES-512-GCM cipher
B. Messages are encrypted using the AES-256-GCM cipher
C. Messages are encrypted using the AES-128-GCM cipher D. Messages are encrypted ONLY if they include data
classified as “confidential”
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which description for the Webex Calling app is valid?
A. application for use only in Contact Centers
B. an application for desktop video conferencing only
C. a soft client for calling from a desktop and mobile devices
D. an application for mobile device conferencing only
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
Which Webex Try and Buy Program benefit is included in the purchase?
A. one (1) year of Webex conferencing at no cost
B. Webex conferencing only
C. Webex conferencing, Webex Teams and Devices
D. Unlimited Webex licenses
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter?
A. Webex Edge Connect
B. An Apple iPad
C. Room Kit Plus Connector
D. Cisco Meeting Server
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners?
A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders
B. quote and order resale product only
C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers
D. ordering tool for Distributors only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the Collaboration Flex Plan Value Transfer program is valid?
A. is only available for IP Phones
B. provides deeper discounts for Flex Plan deals
C. allows trade-in of eligible perpetual licenses and active Cisco Software Support (SWSS) contracts in exchange for a
purchase credit on Flex Plan
D. provides training credits to the partner when they sell a Flex Plan
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan?
A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams
B. Meetings with Teams
C. Video conferencing only
D. Calling with Teams
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which buying model for Meetings in the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan is valid?
A. Meetings are not available on the Collaboration Flex Plan
B. Named User only
C. Enterprise Agreement only
D. Enterprise Agreement, Active User and Named User
Correct Answer: D

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Latest updates Cisco 200-125 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What Cisco IOS feature can be enabled to pinpoint an application that is causing slow network performance?
A. SNMP
B. Netflow
C. WCCP
D. IP SLA
Correct Answer: B
Netflow can be used to diagnose slow network performance, bandwidth hogs and bandwidth utilization quickly with
command line interface or reporting tools. Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/iosnetflow/prod_white_paper0900aecd80406232.html

QUESTION 2
RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q2

After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. incorrect bandwidth configuration
B. incorrect LMI configuration
C. incorrect map statement
D. incorrect IP address
Correct Answer: C
First we have to say this is an unclear question and it is wrong. The “frame-relay map ip” statement is correct thus none
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255.255.0.0 command should be “ip address 172.16.100.1 255.255.0.0. That makes answer C correct.

QUESTION 3
Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension.
B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge.
C. Thesystem ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095.
D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension.
E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
In which two ways can you prevent recursive routing in a tunneled environment? (Choose two)
A. Configure routes through the tunnel with a lower metric than other routes.
B. Configure route filtering to prevent the tunnel endpoints from learning each other through the tunnel.
C. Enable QoS on the link.
D. Configure routes through the tunnel with a higher metric than other routes.
E. configure GRE keepalives on the tunnel interface.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 200-125 exam question q6

The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
B. The passwords do not match on the two routers.
C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to
authenticate to each other.
Correct Answer: B
With CHAP authentication, the configured passwords must be identical on each router. Here, it is configured as little123
on one side and big123 on the other.

QUESTION 7
which two types of information are held in the mac address table ?
A. destination ip addresses
B. protocols
C. port numbers
D. mac address
E. source ip address
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe?
A. the operation of VTP
B. a method of VLAN trunking
C. an approach to wireless LAN communication
D. the process for root bridge selection
E. VLAN pruning
Correct Answer: B
A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must
send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is
created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier
in a Layer 2 frame.
The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a
network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices.
Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides
VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.

QUESTION 9
In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?
A. when a network device fails to forward packets
B. when you require ROMMON access
C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device
D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations
E. when the control plane fails to respond
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q10

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two)
A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface.
B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface
C. The interface is error -disabled.
D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses
E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which statement about static routes is true?
A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.
B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default
D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed.
Correct Answer: D
Static routing can be used to define an exit point from a router when no other routes are available or necessary. This is
called a default route.

QUESTION 12
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a
B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1
C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Correct Answer: D
An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets).
The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334.
The leading 0\\’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.

QUESTION 13
Based on the network shown in the graphic

lead4pass 200-125 exam question q13

Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent
the problem?
A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. switching loops, STP
Correct Answer: F
The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via
multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with
other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm
guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting and optimizing Enterprise wireless infrastructure and related services plus the tools and methodologies needed to identify and resolve client connectivity, performance, and RF issues.

Latest updates Cisco 300-370 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802.11ac WLAN at customer site. Due to interferences with
neighboring 802.11n networks, the engineer must determine the current primary/secondary channel allocation to
enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary 20 MHz channel. Which
combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHz channels?
A. primary 40 MHz: channel 62, primary 80 MHz: channel 58
B. primary 40 MHz: channel 54, primary 80 MHz: channel 58
C. primary 40 MHz: channel 64, primary 80 MHz: channel 60
D. primary 40 MHz: channel 60, primary 80 MHz: channel 56
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in
different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\’s and has
a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and
Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they
do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue?
A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical.
B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC.
C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the
location A Access Points.
D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question q3

Which statement about the join process of the access point is true?
A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management
interface subnet.
Correct Answer: E
References:

 

QUESTION 4
An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contains
the IP address offered to the client?
A. siaddr
B. ciaddr
C. viaddr
D. giaddr
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending
its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default severity level has been changed. Which
value does the engineer select to reset the severity level to its factory setting?
A. informational
B. major
C. minor
D. warning
E. critical
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
An engineer wants to run the Voice Audit tool in PI and wants to be able to verify:
that clients will be capable of having static IPs whether or not Call Admission Control is enabled Which two rules field
descriptions must be checked in the report? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP assignment
B. CAC: max bandwidth
C. ACM
D. DTPC
E. load-based CAC
Correct Answer: AE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/net_mgmt/prime/infrastructure/3-2/reference/guide/pi_ref.pdf

 

QUESTION 7
A mobile workstation in a factory contains an AP that is configured as a workgroup bridge. When the workstation moves,
it loses connectivity and disrupts operation. What can the engineer implement to minimize roaming problems?
A. Use 802.1X authentication.
B. Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for fast roaming.
C. Use AES for encryption.
D. Use the mobile station command.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
In a Cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type is used between the access point and the wireless LAN
controller?
A. DTLS
B. TLS
C. STLS
D. OpenSSL
Correct Answer: A
DTLS data encryption is enabled automatically for OfficeExtend access points but disabled by default for all other
access points. Most access points are deployed in a secure network within a company building, so data encryption is
not necessary. In contrast, the traffic between an OfficeExtend access point and the controller travels through an
unsecure public network, so data encryption is more important for these access points. When data encryption is
enabled, traffic is encrypted at the access point before it is sent to the controller and at the controller before it is sent to
the client.

 

QUESTION 9
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which
action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 10
Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true?
A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off.
B. Debug is a message logging severity 7.
C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI.
D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.

Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure?
A. The closer the circle is to blue, the more localized the impact is.
B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is.
C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is.
D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all
options are used.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-370 exam question q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-370 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-370 exam question q13

The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error?
A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join.
B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware.
C. AP model is not compatible with the controller code version.
D. The AP is not configured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary
protocols?
A. network
B. ICMP
C. protocol
D. TCP-UDP
E. service
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 2
Which technology can drop packets with a spoofed source address Instead of forwarding them?
A. ICUP redirects
B. SNMPv3
C. ICMP unreachable messages
D. uRPF
E. TACACS+
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Control plane thresholding limit for which protocols
A. ICMP
B. BGP
C. ARP
Correct Answer: B
The queue-thresholding feature policy supports the following TCP/UDP-based protocols:
Bgp,dns,ftp,http,igmp,snmp,ssh,syslog,telnet,Tftp,host-protocols

 

QUESTION 4
An engineer is hardening the management plane for an ASA. Which protocol is affected by this hardening?
A. BGP
B. IKE
C. ICMP
D. ARP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
A Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode and has two user-defined contexts– Context_A and Context_B.
From which context are device logging messages sent?
A. Admin
B. Context_A
C. Context_B
D. System
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A network engineer wants to add new view to an IOS device configured with RBAC. Which privilege is required for that
task?
A. Level 16
B. Level 15
C. root view
D. admin view
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which setting is optional when configuring two Cisco ASA firewalls for failover?
A. identical RAM installed
B. same context mode
C. same AnyConnect images
D. identical licenses
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
Which VTP mode supports private VLANs on a switch?
A. transparent
B. server
C. client
D. off
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about Cisco IDS are true? (Choose two.)
A. It is preferred for detection-only deployment.
B. It is used for installations that require strong network-based protection and that include sensor tuning.
C. It is used to boost sensor sensitivity at the expense of false positives.
D. It is used to monitor critical systems and to avoid false positives that block traffic.
E. It is used primarily to inspect egress traffic, to filter outgoing threats.
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 300-206 exam question q10

An SNMP host is an IP address to which SNMP notifications and traps are sent. To configure SNMFV3 hosts, which
option must you configure in addition to the target IP address?
A. the Cisco ASA as a DHCP server, so the SNMFV3 host can obtain an IP address
B. a username, because traps are only sent to a configured user
C. SSH, so the user can connect to the Cisco ASA
D. the Cisco ASA with a dedicated interface only for SNMP, to process the SNMP host traffic.
Correct Answer: B
The username can be seen here on the ASDM simulator screen shot:

lead4pass 300-206 exam question q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
Which two option are protocol and tools are used by management plane when using cisco ASA general management
plane hardening ?
A. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
B. NetFlow
C. Routing Protocol Authentication
D. Threat detection
E. Syslog
F. ICMP unreachables
G. Cisco URL Filtering
Correct Answer: BE
http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/firewall-best-practices.html


QUESTION 12
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
Correct Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 1
An engineer must generate a report of Cisco Unified Communications Manager usage for capacity planning.
Where can this information be obtained within System Reports?
A. precedence call
B. voice usage
C. user usage
D. traffic
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which transport layer protocol is used when a Cisco Unified Presence client is searching for a contact in the directory?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IMAP
D. HTTP
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
A network engineer must perform a manual backup of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. Where can
this backup be done?
A. Administration Resources
B. Serviceability
C. OS Administration
D. Disaster Recovery System
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
CUC 10.X supports LDAP integration with several widely used LDAP directories systems, including the following:
A. Microsoft Active Directory 2000, 2003 and 2008 (support for AD 2012 only in CUCM 10.x and later
B. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode 2003
C. Microsoft Lightweight Directory Services 2008
D. iPlanet Directory Server 5.1
E. Sun ONE Directory Server (5.2, 6.x)
F. Open LDAP (2.3.39, 2.4)
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which three rules are valid transfer rules in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Standard
B. Alternate
C. Closed
D. Holiday
E. Nonstandard
Correct Answer: ABC
Standard Transfer Rule This transfer rule applies during the work hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for
your organization, or in other situations when no other transfer rule is enabled. By design, the standard transfer rule
cannot be disabled. Alternate Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule to apply during a specific time period when you
want to override the other transfer rules. For example, you may want to route all your calls directly to voice mail while
you are out of the office or you may want to transfer your calls to a different extension if you are temporarily working
from another location. As long as it is enabled, the alternate transfer rule overrides all other transfer rules. Closed
Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule if you want Cisco Unity to perform different transfer actions during the nonwork
hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for your organization. (For example, you may want to route all your
calls directly to voice mail during nonwork hours.) As long as it is enabled, the closed transfer rule overrides the
standard transfer rule during nonbusiness hours.

 

QUESTION 6
Which protocol is used between two Cisco IP phones once Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express connects a
call?
A. H.323
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. SIP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones?
A. User Templates
B. Call Handler Template
C. Contact Template
D. Directory Handler
E. Interview Handler
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
What is the act of combing two active conferences via the MCU?
A. cascading
B. neighboring
C. multisite
D. clustering
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. MAC
B. IP
C. E.164
D. SIP URI
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with Cisco Jabber clients who are outside the corporate
network?
A. Cisco Extension Mobility
B. Cisco TMS
C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination
D. Cisco Unified RTMT
E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
When creating a hunt group/ring group, where can you change the DN for all the devices at once?
A. Hunt pilot
B. Route pilot
C. Group file
D. Hunt list
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for
this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which two statement about stateless firewalls is true? (Choose two)
A. the Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.
B. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packets against configurable rules.
C. They cannot track connections..
D. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS..
E. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is Stateful by nature
Correct Answer: BC
5-tuple is: source/destination IP, ports, and protocols. Stateless firewalls cannot track connections.

 

QUESTION 2
What feature defines a campus area network?
A. It has a single geographic location.
B. It has limited or restricted Internet access.
C. It has a limited number of segments.
D. it lacks external connectivity.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Which two characteristics of symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two)
A. It uses digital certificates.
B. It uses a public key and a private key to encrypt and decrypt traffic.
C. it requires more resources than asymmetric encryption
D. it is faster than asymmetric encryption
E. It uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the traffic.
Correct Answer: DE
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/secret-key-algorithm

 

QUESTION 4
When is “Deny all” policy an exception in Zone Based Firewall
A. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in same zone
B. traffic sources from router via self zone
C. traffic terminates on router via self zone
D. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in different zones
E. traffic terminates on router via self zone
Correct Answer: A
+
There is a default zone, called the self zone, which is a logical zone. For any packets directed to the router directly (the
destination IP represents the packet is for the router), the router automatically considers that traffic to be entering the
self zone. In addition, any traffic initiated by the router is considered as leaving the self zone.
By default, any traffic to or from the self zone is allowed, but you can change this policy.
+
For the rest of the administrator-created zones, no traffic is allowed between interfaces in different zones.
+
For interfaces that are members of the same zone, all traffic is permitted by default.

 

QUESTION 5
What are two well-known security terms? (Choose Two)
A. Phishing.
B. BPDU guard
C. LACP
D. ransomeware
E. hair-pinning
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 6
Which SOURCEFIRE logging action should you choose to record the most detail about a connection.
A. Enable logging at the beginning of the session
B. Enable logging at the end of the session
C. Enable alerts via SNMP to log events off-box
D. Enable eStreamer to log events off-box
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisco ASA is in transparent mode?
A. Static NAT
B. Dynamic NAT
C. Overload
D. Dynamic PAT
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?lead4pass 210-260 exam question q8

A. The two routers receive normal updates from one another
B. It enables authentication
C. It prevents keycham authentication
D. The two devices are able to pass the message digest to one another.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
What is the most common implementation of PAT in a standard networked environment?
A. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network using the outside interface IP address
B. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network by using the inside interface IP address
C. configuring multiple external hosts to join the self-zone and to communicate with one another
D. configuring an any any rule to enable external hosts to communicate inside the network
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which feature filters CoPP packets?
A. Policy maps
B. route maps
C. access control lists
D. class maps
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDos attack?
A. botnet
B. Trojan horse
C. virus
D. adware
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which privileged level is … by default? for user exec mode
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
E. 15
Correct Answer: B
User EXEC mode commands are privilege level 1 Privileged EXEC mode and configuration mode commands are
privilege level 15. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/security/command/reference/fsecur_r/srfpass.html

 

QUESTION 13
Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)
A. QoS
B. traffic classification
C. access lists
D. policy maps
E. class maps
F. Cisco Express Forwarding
Correct Answer: AB

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Free test Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 Exam questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE
“In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains,
which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is
referred to
as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.”
“A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs.”
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_LAN

 

QUESTION 2
What is the principle function of the data center core layer?
A. high-speed packet switching
B. access control
C. firewalling and intrusion prevention
D. QoS marking
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q3

Cisco USC Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the issue?
A. Adjust the Chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting.
B. Verify that air flow through the Chassis correctly.
C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS.
D. Remove the equipment that generates excessive hat near the top of the rack
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.)
A. memory extension node
B. hard drive
C. fabric interconnect
D. power supply
E. compute node
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 5
A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity?
(Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch
B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender
D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 6
Which communication type uses a one-to-many model to replicate packets that are delivered to many interested
recipients?
A. unknown unicast
B. broadcast
C. unicast
D. multicast
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together?
A. N port
B. E port
C. F port
D. NL port
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the feature on the left to the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 200-150 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
What is a function of a conferencing solution?
A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting.
B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user.
C. To schedule calls.
D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial
number?
A. MDS-A# show license serial-number
B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number
C. MDS- A# show host-id
D. MDS- A# show license host-id
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Which room system can also function as a white board?
A. Spark Board
B. Mx800
C. SX20
D. SX10
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
What is known as the User Policy?
A. Call Policy
B. Authentication
C. Me
D. Admin Policy
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC?
A. Telepresence Server
B. Cisco Meeting Server
C. Spark
D. Cisco WebEx
Correct Answer: B

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