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Latest updates Cisco 700-751 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which are the two characteristics of Cisco Umbrella? (Choose two.) A. Improve Application Performance B. Delivered from the cloud C. Subscription-based model D. Provides protection when on the VPN E. Simple manual installation of hardware Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 2 What is the interface used to access the Cisco Meraki Dashboard? A. Cisco IOS command-line interface (CLI) B. Secure Shell (SSH) C. Web browser D. Terminal (mac) or Command Prompt (Windows) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 What are the two main reasons for deploying small-medium Wi-Fi solutions? (Choose two.) A. Obtain enterprise-class solution features at the SMB price B. Simplify deployment for organizations with limited IT staff C. Need to identify potentially malicious rogue devices or users D. Provide single pane of glass for routing and switching E. Separate guest traffic from production traffic at reasonable OpEx. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4 Which two statements describe how Cisco can achieve Threat Centric Defense? (Choose two.) A. Cisco applications constantly scan the environment and analyze outputs to gain a more comprehensive view of potential threats B. Limit secure access to a growing set of Cloud applications C. Cisco delivers a common platform across the network, infrastructure, appliances, and the cloud D. Cisco network analytics provides visibility and real-time awareness across the entire network by leveraging anomaly detection and network telemetry E. Cisco offers the industry\\’s broadest set of enforcement and remediation options for usage control to accelerate deployment and unify management Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 5 Which is a K-12 feature supported in Mobility Express? A. mDNS Gateway B. Guest WLAN enhancements C. Expert View in the WebUI D. Schedule WLAN E. CMX Cloud support Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which device belongs to Business Class Cisco On-Premise Switching Solutions? A. Cisco Meraki MS 225 B. Cisco Meraki MS 250/350 C. Cisco Catalyst 2960-L D. Cisco 350X/550X Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which are two major security challenges that occur due to the proliferation of users and applications at the branch? (Choose two.) A. Increased threat surface area B. Increased complexity for mitigation C. Increased complexity for mobility D. Increased complexity in Omni-channel experience E. Increase in threat naivety Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8 Which is the range of users is supported by the Business Edition 4000 (BE4000)? A. 100-120 B. 10-120 C. 1000-1200 D. 10-200 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which statement represents increasing sophistication in the security threat landscape? A. 25% of users spent their work time off the network B. 85% of intrusions are not discovered for weeks C. 28% of top security constrains is product compatibility D. 50B devices connected by 2020 (66% mobile) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 What is the right approach to achieve secure infrastructure against attack requirements of WAN connectivity? A. Monitoring application performance B. Operational simplicity for server infrastructure C. Simple and agile service deployment model D. Introduce Advanced Threat Defense solution Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 What are Meraki\\’s core vision and value proposition? A. To operate in increasingly mobile, modern networks by delivering preventative protection without compromising performance B. To provide a complete cloud-managed IT solution through simplifying powerful technology C. To lead in the invention and development of the industry\\’s most advanced information technologies D. To shape the future of the internet by creating opportunities for the investors and ecosystem partners Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What are the two features licenses (subscriptions) available for MX security appliances? (Choose two.) A. Comprehensive B. Advanced security C. Enterprise D. Essential E. Defended Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 13 How do Cisco Business-Class SMB switches provide two simplified managements? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure Support B. Limited scalability and hardware choices C. Uncompromised security enabled by TrustSec and Identify Services Engine (ISE) D. Standalone Configuration with Web GUI E. Integrated live tools for fast troubleshooting Correct Answer: AD
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Latest updates Cisco 700-680 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 Which two features are available in the Cisco Webex Web App? (Choose two.) A. Webex App only works on desktop devices B. Has to be re-downloaded every time you attend a meeting C. Available to Chrome Browsers Only D. Ability to share screens or specific applications E. Centralized meeting controls like chat and QandA Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 2 Which portal for Smart Account License consumption is valid? A. CCW order B. Customer Smart Account C. Product Access Key (PAK) D. Holding Account Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 What are the two management views for Control Hub? A. Customer and Partner views B. The customer has two management views C. Cisco and Salesforce D. Partner has two management views Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which key benefit of the Webex Teams collaboration is valid? A. Only the moderator of space is able to use important meeting features B. Replaces the need for a firewall appliance C. Webex Teams does not support API\\’s or SDK\\’s D. Integrates persistent context chats, file sharing, and whiteboarding Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Which two statements about Cisco Webex Meetings are valid? (Choose two.) A. Webex limits meetings to 50 people. B. Webex Meetings and Webex Teams use different cloud engines. C. Webex Meetings provides only audio. D. Host and attendees can see up to 25 participants in one full-screen mode. E. End users have the same experience regardless of which device they choose. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 6 Which statement about Webex Teams message encryption is valid? A. Messages are encrypted using the AES-512-GCM cipher B. Messages are encrypted using the AES-256-GCM cipher C. Messages are encrypted using the AES-128-GCM cipher D. Messages are encrypted ONLY if they include data classified as “confidential” Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which description for the Webex Calling app is valid? A. application for use only in Contact Centers B. an application for desktop video conferencing only C. a soft client for calling from a desktop and mobile devices D. an application for mobile device conferencing only Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which Webex Try and Buy Program benefit is included in the purchase? A. one (1) year of Webex conferencing at no cost B. Webex conferencing only C. Webex conferencing, Webex Teams and Devices D. Unlimited Webex licenses Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which Webex service allows a customer to connect directly to a Webex Datacenter? A. Webex Edge Connect B. An Apple iPad C. Room Kit Plus Connector D. Cisco Meeting Server Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners? A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders B. quote and order resale product only C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers D. ordering tool for Distributors only Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 Which statement about the Collaboration Flex Plan Value Transfer program is valid? A. is only available for IP Phones B. provides deeper discounts for Flex Plan deals C. allows trade-in of eligible perpetual licenses and active Cisco Software Support (SWSS) contracts in exchange for a purchase credit on Flex Plan D. provides training credits to the partner when they sell a Flex Plan Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which applications can be bundled with the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan? A. Meetings, Calling, Contact Center with Teams B. Meetings with Teams C. Video conferencing only D. Calling with Teams Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which buying model for Meetings in the Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan is valid? A. Meetings are not available on the Collaboration Flex Plan B. Named User only C. Enterprise Agreement only D. Enterprise Agreement, Active User and Named User Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 2 RouterA is unable to reach RouterB. Both routers are running IOS version 12.0.
After reviewing the command output and graphic, what is the most likely cause of the problem? A. incorrect bandwidth configuration B. incorrect LMI configuration C. incorrect map statement D. incorrect IP address Correct Answer: C First we have to say this is an unclear question and it is wrong. The “frame-relay map ip” statement is correct thus none of the four answers above is correct. But we guess there is a typo in the output. Maybe the “ip address 172.16.100.2 255.255.0.0 command should be “ip address 172.16.100.1 255.255.0.0. That makes answer C correct.
QUESTION 3 Which two statements about the spanning-tree bridge ID are true? (Choose two.) A. It is composed of a 4-bit bridge priority and a 12-bit system ID extension. B. The bridge ID is transmitted in the IP header to elect the root bridge. C. Thesystem ID extension is a value between 1 and 4095. D. It is composed of an 8-bit bridge priority and a 16-bit system ID extension. E. The bridge priority must be incremented in blocks of 4096. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4 In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.) A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length. B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field. D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field. E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers. F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 5 In which two ways can you prevent recursive routing in a tunneled environment? (Choose two) A. Configure routes through the tunnel with a lower metric than other routes. B. Configure route filtering to prevent the tunnel endpoints from learning each other through the tunnel. C. Enable QoS on the link. D. Configure routes through the tunnel with a higher metric than other routes. E. configure GRE keepalives on the tunnel interface. Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem? A. The usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers. B. The passwords do not match on the two routers. C. CHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface. D. The routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0. E. With CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other. Correct Answer: B With CHAP authentication, the configured passwords must be identical on each router. Here, it is configured as little123 on one side and big123 on the other.
QUESTION 7 which two types of information are held in the mac address table ? A. destination ip addresses B. protocols C. port numbers D. mac address E. source ip address Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8 In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802.1Q standard describe? A. the operation of VTP B. a method of VLAN trunking C. an approach to wireless LAN communication D. the process for root bridge selection E. VLAN pruning Correct Answer: B A broadcast domain must sometimes exist on more than one switch in the network. To accomplish this, one switch must send frames to another switch and indicate which VLAN a particular frame belongs to. On Cisco switches, a trunk link is created to accomplish this VLAN identification. ISL and IEEE 802.1Q are different methods of putting a VLAN identifier in a Layer 2 frame. The IEEE 802.1Q protocol interconnects VLANs between multiple switches, routers, and servers. With 802.1Q, a network administrator can define a VLAN topology to span multiple physical devices. Cisco switches support IEEE 802.1Q for FastEthernet and Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. An 802.1Q trunk link provides VLAN identification by adding a 4-byte tag to an Ethernet Frame as it leaves a trunk port.
QUESTION 9 In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? A. when a network device fails to forward packets B. when you require ROMMON access C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations E. when the control plane fails to respond Correct Answer: AB
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two) A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface C. The interface is error -disabled. D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 11 Which statement about static routes is true? A. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions. B. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address. C. The subnet mask is 255.255 255.0 by default D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be routed. Correct Answer: D Static routing can be used to define an exit point from a router when no other routes are available or necessary. This is called a default route.
QUESTION 12 Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1 Correct Answer: D An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). An example of an IPv6 address is 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334. The leading 0\\’s in a group can be collapsed using ::, but this can only be done once in an IP address.
QUESTION 13 Based on the network shown in the graphic
Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should be used to prevent the problem? A. routing loops, hold down timers B. switching loops, split horizon C. routing loops, split horizon D. switching loops, VTP E. routing loops, STP F. switching loops, STP Correct Answer: F The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) prevents loops from being formed when switches or bridges are interconnected via multiple paths. Spanning-Tree Protocol implements the 802.1D IEEE algorithm by exchanging BPDU messages with other switches to detect loops, and then removes the loop by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. This algorithm guarantees that there is one and only one active path between two network devices.
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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of troubleshooting and optimizing Enterprise wireless infrastructure and related services plus the tools and methodologies needed to identify and resolve client connectivity, performance, and RF issues.
Latest updates Cisco 300-370 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802.11ac WLAN at customer site. Due to interferences with neighboring 802.11n networks, the engineer must determine the current primary/secondary channel allocation to enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary 20 MHz channel. Which combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHz channels? A. primary 40 MHz: channel 62, primary 80 MHz: channel 58 B. primary 40 MHz: channel 54, primary 80 MHz: channel 58 C. primary 40 MHz: channel 64, primary 80 MHz: channel 60 D. primary 40 MHz: channel 60, primary 80 MHz: channel 56 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Two 5508 Wireless Lan Controllers are managing all Access Points throughout the network The WLCs are located in different locations to provide geographical redundancy. A Mobility Group has been configured on both WLC\\’s and has a UP status on both Controllers. The APs in location A are statically configured to use Controller A as the Primary and Controller as the Secondary. If the WLC in location A goes offline, the APs successfully join the WLC in location but they do not failover to their Primary configured Controller. What configuration task will fix this issue? A. Change the AP Failover Priority to critical. B. Enable AP Fallback globally on the WLC. C. Configure the WLC in location A as Primary using the CAPWAP AP Controller IP Address command on all the location A Access Points. D. Use DHCP Option 43 and specify WLC in location A as Primary. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed. B. The AP successfully joined the controller. C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller. D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller. E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet. Correct Answer: E References:
QUESTION 4 An engineer has run the debug dhcp packet enable command on the wireless LAN controller CLI. Which field contains the IP address offered to the client? A. siaddr B. ciaddr C. viaddr D. giaddr Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 While reviewing CleanAir data in Cisco Prime Infrastructure, an engineer notices that a wideband jammer is not sending its Interferer Security Trap correctly. The engineer determines that the default severity level has been changed. Which value does the engineer select to reset the severity level to its factory setting? A. informational B. major C. minor D. warning E. critical Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 A mobile workstation in a factory contains an AP that is configured as a workgroup bridge. When the workstation moves, it loses connectivity and disrupts operation. What can the engineer implement to minimize roaming problems? A. Use 802.1X authentication. B. Use Cisco Centralized Key Management for fast roaming. C. Use AES for encryption. D. Use the mobile station command. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 In a Cisco OfficeExtend environment, which encryption type is used between the access point and the wireless LAN controller? A. DTLS B. TLS C. STLS D. OpenSSL Correct Answer: A DTLS data encryption is enabled automatically for OfficeExtend access points but disabled by default for all other access points. Most access points are deployed in a secure network within a company building, so data encryption is not necessary. In contrast, the traffic between an OfficeExtend access point and the controller travels through an unsecure public network, so data encryption is more important for these access points. When data encryption is enabled, traffic is encrypted at the access point before it is sent to the controller and at the controller before it is sent to the client.
QUESTION 9 A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication? A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled. B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate. C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OIDs. D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate. E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10 Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true? A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off. B. Debug is a message logging severity 7. C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI. D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which visual cue accurately describes a characteristic of the zone of impact displayed in Cisco Prime Infrastructure? A. The closer the circle is to blue, the more localized the impact is. B. The smaller the circle, the more localized the impact is. C. The larger the circle, the more severe the impact is. D. The more translucent the circle is, the more localized the impact is. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 Drag and drop the IP address range on the left onto the specific purpose for multicast groups on the right. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
The AP is unable to join the controller. What is the cause of this error? A. The controller code version is lower than the code of the AP attempting to join. B. AP code is not the same as the controller and must download firmware. C. AP model is not compatible with the controller code version. D. The AP is not configured in the controller auth-list of acceptable APs. Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols? A. network B. ICMP C. protocol D. TCP-UDP E. service Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 Which technology can drop packets with a spoofed source address Instead of forwarding them? A. ICUP redirects B. SNMPv3 C. ICMP unreachable messages D. uRPF E. TACACS+ Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Control plane thresholding limit for which protocols A. ICMP B. BGP C. ARP Correct Answer: B The queue-thresholding feature policy supports the following TCP/UDP-based protocols: Bgp,dns,ftp,http,igmp,snmp,ssh,syslog,telnet,Tftp,host-protocols
QUESTION 4 An engineer is hardening the management plane for an ASA. Which protocol is affected by this hardening? A. BGP B. IKE C. ICMP D. ARP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode and has two user-defined contexts– Context_A and Context_B. From which context are device logging messages sent? A. Admin B. Context_A C. Context_B D. System Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 A network engineer wants to add new view to an IOS device configured with RBAC. Which privilege is required for that task? A. Level 16 B. Level 15 C. root view D. admin view Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which setting is optional when configuring two Cisco ASA firewalls for failover? A. identical RAM installed B. same context mode C. same AnyConnect images D. identical licenses Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which VTP mode supports private VLANs on a switch? A. transparent B. server C. client D. off Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which two statements about Cisco IDS are true? (Choose two.) A. It is preferred for detection-only deployment. B. It is used for installations that require strong network-based protection and that include sensor tuning. C. It is used to boost sensor sensitivity at the expense of false positives. D. It is used to monitor critical systems and to avoid false positives that block traffic. E. It is used primarily to inspect egress traffic, to filter outgoing threats. Correct Answer: AD
An SNMP host is an IP address to which SNMP notifications and traps are sent. To configure SNMFV3 hosts, which option must you configure in addition to the target IP address? A. the Cisco ASA as a DHCP server, so the SNMFV3 host can obtain an IP address B. a username, because traps are only sent to a configured user C. SSH, so the user can connect to the Cisco ASA D. the Cisco ASA with a dedicated interface only for SNMP, to process the SNMP host traffic. Correct Answer: B The username can be seen here on the ASDM simulator screen shot:
QUESTION 12 In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode? A. by their interface IP address B. by the routing table C. by NAT D. by their MAC addresses Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.) A. NTP authentication is enabled. B. NTP authentication is disabled. C. NTP logging is enabled. D. NTP logging is disabled. E. NTP access is enabled. F. NTP access is disabled. Correct Answer: BDE
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Latest Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-060 Practice Questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 An engineer must generate a report of Cisco Unified Communications Manager usage for capacity planning. Where can this information be obtained within System Reports? A. precedence call B. voice usage C. user usage D. traffic Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which transport layer protocol is used when a Cisco Unified Presence client is searching for a contact in the directory? A. TCP B. UDP C. IMAP D. HTTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 A network engineer must perform a manual backup of the Cisco Unified Communications Manager system. Where can this backup be done? A. Administration Resources B. Serviceability C. OS Administration D. Disaster Recovery System Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 CUC 10.X supports LDAP integration with several widely used LDAP directories systems, including the following: A. Microsoft Active Directory 2000, 2003 and 2008 (support for AD 2012 only in CUCM 10.x and later B. Microsoft Active Directory Application Mode 2003 C. Microsoft Lightweight Directory Services 2008 D. iPlanet Directory Server 5.1 E. Sun ONE Directory Server (5.2, 6.x) F. Open LDAP (2.3.39, 2.4) Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 Which three rules are valid transfer rules in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. Standard B. Alternate C. Closed D. Holiday E. Nonstandard Correct Answer: ABC Standard Transfer Rule This transfer rule applies during the work hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for your organization, or in other situations when no other transfer rule is enabled. By design, the standard transfer rule cannot be disabled. Alternate Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule to apply during a specific time period when you want to override the other transfer rules. For example, you may want to route all your calls directly to voice mail while you are out of the office or you may want to transfer your calls to a different extension if you are temporarily working from another location. As long as it is enabled, the alternate transfer rule overrides all other transfer rules. Closed Transfer Rule Enable this transfer rule if you want Cisco Unity to perform different transfer actions during the nonwork hours that your Cisco Unity administrator specified for your organization. (For example, you may want to route all your calls directly to voice mail during nonwork hours.) As long as it is enabled, the closed transfer rule overrides the standard transfer rule during nonbusiness hours.
QUESTION 6 Which protocol is used between two Cisco IP phones once Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express connects a call? A. H.323 B. RTP C. SCCP D. SIP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones? A. User Templates B. Call Handler Template C. Contact Template D. Directory Handler E. Interview Handler Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 What is the act of combing two active conferences via the MCU? A. cascading B. neighboring C. multisite D. clustering Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which address is required to create a video endpoint in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. MAC B. IP C. E.164 D. SIP URI Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which component allows Cisco Jabber to communicate with Cisco Jabber clients who are outside the corporate network? A. Cisco Extension Mobility B. Cisco TMS C. Cisco Mobility Remote Destination D. Cisco Unified RTMT E. Cisco Mobile and Remote Access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 When creating a hunt group/ring group, where can you change the DN for all the devices at once? A. Hunt pilot B. Route pilot C. Group file D. Hunt list Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.) A. calling search space B. partitions C. route groups D. SIP trunk E. gateway Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13 Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection? A. .xls B. .doc C. .csv D. .pdf Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which two statement about stateless firewalls is true? (Choose two) A. the Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default. B. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packets against configurable rules. C. They cannot track connections.. D. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.. E. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is Stateful by nature Correct Answer: BC 5-tuple is: source/destination IP, ports, and protocols. Stateless firewalls cannot track connections.
QUESTION 2 What feature defines a campus area network? A. It has a single geographic location. B. It has limited or restricted Internet access. C. It has a limited number of segments. D. it lacks external connectivity. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which two characteristics of symmetric encryption are true? (Choose two) A. It uses digital certificates. B. It uses a public key and a private key to encrypt and decrypt traffic. C. it requires more resources than asymmetric encryption D. it is faster than asymmetric encryption E. It uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the traffic. Correct Answer: DE http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/secret-key-algorithm
QUESTION 4 When is “Deny all” policy an exception in Zone Based Firewall A. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in same zone B. traffic sources from router via self zone C. traffic terminates on router via self zone D. traffic traverses 2 interfaces in different zones E. traffic terminates on router via self zone Correct Answer: A + There is a default zone, called the self zone, which is a logical zone. For any packets directed to the router directly (the destination IP represents the packet is for the router), the router automatically considers that traffic to be entering the self zone. In addition, any traffic initiated by the router is considered as leaving the self zone. By default, any traffic to or from the self zone is allowed, but you can change this policy. + For the rest of the administrator-created zones, no traffic is allowed between interfaces in different zones. + For interfaces that are members of the same zone, all traffic is permitted by default.
QUESTION 5 What are two well-known security terms? (Choose Two) A. Phishing. B. BPDU guard C. LACP D. ransomeware E. hair-pinning Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 6 Which SOURCEFIRE logging action should you choose to record the most detail about a connection. A. Enable logging at the beginning of the session B. Enable logging at the end of the session C. Enable alerts via SNMP to log events off-box D. Enable eStreamer to log events off-box Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which type of address translation should be used when a Cisco ASA is in transparent mode? A. Static NAT B. Dynamic NAT C. Overload D. Dynamic PAT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the given configuration?
A. The two routers receive normal updates from one another B. It enables authentication C. It prevents keycham authentication D. The two devices are able to pass the message digest to one another. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 What is the most common implementation of PAT in a standard networked environment? A. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network using the outside interface IP address B. configuring multiple internal hosts to communicate outside of the network by using the inside interface IP address C. configuring multiple external hosts to join the self-zone and to communicate with one another D. configuring an any any rule to enable external hosts to communicate inside the network Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which feature filters CoPP packets? A. Policy maps B. route maps C. access control lists D. class maps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDos attack? A. botnet B. Trojan horse C. virus D. adware Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.) A. QoS B. traffic classification C. access lists D. policy maps E. class maps F. Cisco Express Forwarding Correct Answer: AB
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Free test Cisco CCNA Data Center 200-150 Exam questions and Answers
QUESTION 1 What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.) A. A VLAN defines a collision domain. B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain. C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs. D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs. E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs. F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs. Correct Answer: BE “In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.” “A router (Layer 3 device) serves as the backbone for network traffic going across different VLANs.” http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virtual_LAN
QUESTION 2 What is the principle function of the data center core layer? A. high-speed packet switching B. access control C. firewalling and intrusion prevention D. QoS marking Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.
Cisco USC Manager generates a Call Home fault report. Which action do you take to resolve the issue? A. Adjust the Chassis temperature threshold to a higher setting. B. Verify that air flow through the Chassis correctly. C. Ensure that power cables are connected to the fan assemblies of the UCS. D. Remove the equipment that generates excessive hat near the top of the rack Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 What are two physical subcomponents of the Cisco UCS C-Series server? (Choose two.) A. memory extension node B. hard drive C. fabric interconnect D. power supply E. compute node Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5 A customer wants to connect to their SAN via Fibre Channel. Which two devices can be used to provide connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch B. Cisco MDS 9148 Multilayer Fabric Switch C. Cisco Nexus 2248TP GE Fabric Extender D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch E. Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6 Which communication type uses a one-to-many model to replicate packets that are delivered to many interested recipients? A. unknown unicast B. broadcast C. unicast D. multicast Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 Which Fibre Channel interface port mode is used to connect multiple switches together? A. N port B. E port C. F port D. NL port Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Drag and drop the feature on the left to the correct description on the right. Select and Place:
QUESTION 9 What is a function of a conferencing solution? A. To join 3 or more participants in a meeting. B. To provide an audio and video interface for the user. C. To schedule calls. D. To act as a traffic cop for network communication Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file. Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number? A. MDS-A# show license serial-number B. MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number C. MDS- A# show host-id D. MDS- A# show license host-id Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which room system can also function as a white board? A. Spark Board B. Mx800 C. SX20 D. SX10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What is known as the User Policy? A. Call Policy B. Authentication C. Me D. Admin Policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which premise-based conferencing solution supports Skype for Business and WebRTC? A. Telepresence Server B. Cisco Meeting Server C. Spark D. Cisco WebEx Correct Answer: B
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Latest effective Cisco 300-208 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which profiling capability allows you to gather and forward network packets to an analyzer? A. collector B. spanner C. retriever D. aggregator Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which option is the code field of n EAP packet? A. one byte and 1=request, 2=response 3=failure 4=success B. two byte and 1=request, 2=response, 3=success, 4=failure C. two byte and 1=request 2=response 3=failure 4=success D. one byte and 1=request 2=response 3=success 4=failure Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 In the command \\’aaa authentication default group tacacs local\\’, how is the word \\’default\\’ defined? A. Command set B. Group name C. Method list D. Login type Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 When configuring the Auto Update feature for Cisco IOS IPS, what is a recommended best practice? A. Synchronize the router\\’s clock to the PC before configuring Auto Update. B. Clear the router\\’s flash of unused signature files. C. Enable anonymous TFTP downloads from Cisco.com and specify the download frequency. D. Create the appropriate directory on the router\\’s flash memory to store the downloaded signature files. E. Download the realm-cisco.pub.key file and update the public key stored on the router. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 When you select Centralized Web Auth in the ISE Authorization Profile, which component hosts the web authentication portal? A. the endpoints B. the WLC C. the access point D. the switch E. ISE Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which two statements about Cisco NAC Agents that are installed on clients that interact with the Cisco ISE profiler are true? (Choose two.) A. They send endpoint data to AAA servers. B. They collect endpoint attributes. C. They interact with the posture service to enforce endpoint security policies. D. They block access from the network through noncompliant endpoints. E. They store endpoints in the Cisco ISE with their profiles. F. They evaluate clients against posture policies, to enforce requirements. Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 7 Which redirect-URL is pushed by Cisco ISE for posture redirect for corporate users? A. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cppandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e 300-208 Practice Test | 300-208 Exam Questions | 300-208 Braindumps 3 / 16https://www.lead4pass.com/300-208.html 2019 Latest lead4pass 300-208 PDF and VCE dumps Download B. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=cwaandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e C. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=mdmandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e D. https://ise1.cisco.com:8443/portal/gateway?sessionId=0A00023D0000003A239F78CCandpo rtal=283258a0-e96e-11e4-a30a-005056bf01c9andaction=drwandtoken=a1a6ea71ea8f410c2637e11ba534379e Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Which two answers are potential results of an attacker that is performing a DHCP server spoofing attack? (Choose two.) A. ability to selectively change DHCP options fields of the current DHCP server, such as the giaddr field. B. DoS C. excessive number of DHCP discovery requests D. ARP cache poisoning on the router E. client unable to access network resources Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9 Which two Cisco Catalyst switch interface commands allow only a single voice device and a single data device to be connected to the IEEE 802.1X-enabled interface? (Choose two.) A. authentication host-mode single-host B. authentication host-mode multi-domain C. authentication host-mode multi-host D. authentication host-mode multi-auth Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 Which 802.1x command is needed for ACL to be applied on a switch port? A. dot1x system-auth-control B. dot1x pae authenticator C. authentication port-control auto D. radius-server vsa send authentication E. aaa authorization network default group radius Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE? A. the http secure-server command B. RADIUS Attribute 29 C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Changes were made to the ISE server while troubleshooting, and now all wireless certificate authentications are failing. Logs indicate an EAP failure. What are the two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.) A. EAP-TLS is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list B. Client certificate is not included in the Trusted Certificate Store C. MS-CHAPv2-is not checked in the Allowed Protocols list D. Default rule denies all traffic E. Certificate authentication profile is not configured in the Identity Store Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13 A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown\\’ for a single corporate mac address but unknown machines are reported as `complaint\\’. Which option is the reason for machine being reported `unknown\\’. A. Posture service disabled on cisco ISE B. Posture policy does not support the OS C. Posture agent not installed on the machine D. Posture compliance condition is missing on the machine Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which type of SGT classification method is required when authentication is unavailable? A. Bypass B. Dynamic C. Static D. Inline Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 When enabling the Cisco IOS IPS feature, which step should you perform to prevent rogue signature updates from being installed on the router? A. configure authentication and authorization for maintaining signature updates B. install a known RSA public key that correlates to a private key used by Cisco C. manually import signature updates from Cisco to a secure server, and then transfer files from the secure server to the router D. use the SDEE protocol for all signature updates from a known secure management station Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT? A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the enterprise security policy B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with inside endpoints. C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies. D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17 What is the function of the SGACL policy matrix on a Cisco TrustSec domain with SGT Assignment? A. It determines which access policy to apply to the endpoint. B. It determines which switches are trusted within the TrustSec domain. C. It determines the path the SGT of the packet takes when entering the Cisco TrustSec domain. D. It lists all servers that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain. E. It lists all hosts that are permitted to participate in the TrustSec domain. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Which two authentication stores are supported to design a wireless network using PEAP EAP-MSCHAPv2 as the authentication method? (Choose two.) A. Microsoft Active Directory B. ACS C. LDAP D. RSA Secure-ID E. Certificate Server Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 Which three statement about Windows Server Update Services remediation are true? A. WSUS can install the latest service pack available B. WSUS checks for automatic update configuration on Windows C. WSUS checks for client behavior anomalies D. WSUS remediates Windows client from a locally manage WSUS server E. WSUS remediates Windows client from a Microsoft manage WSUS server F. WSUS provides links to update AV/AS Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 20 Which statement about IOS accounting is true? A. A named list of AAA methods must be defined. B. A named list of accounting methods must be defined. C. Authorization must be configured before accounting. D. A named list of tracking methods must be defined. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21 Which of these is a configurable Cisco IOS feature that triggers notifications if an attack attempts to exhaust critical router resources and if preventative controls have been bypassed or are not working correctly? A. Control Plane Protection B. Management Plane Protection C. CPU and memory thresholding D. SNMPv3 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22 Which two simple posture conditions are valid? A. Service B. Antispyware C. Firewall D. File E. Antivirus Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 23 Which feature must you configure on a switch to allow it to redirect wired endpoints to Cisco ISE? A. the http secure-server command B. RADIUS Attribute 29 C. the RADIUS VSA for accounting D. the RADIUS VSA for URL-REDIRECT Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Security Group Access requires which three syslog messages to be sent to Cisco ISE? (Choose three.) A. IOS-7-PROXY_DROP B. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_DOS_ATTACK C. MKA-2-MACDROP D. AUTHMGR-5-MACMOVE E. ASA-6-CONNECT_BUILT F. AP-1-AUTH_PROXY_FALLBACK_REQ Correct Answer: BDF
QUESTION 25 Which three host modes support MACsec? (Choose three.) A. multidomain authentication host mode B. multihost mode C. multi-MAC host mode D. single-host mode E. dual-host mode F. multi-auth host mode Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 26 When Cisco IOS IPS signatures are being tuned, how is the Target Value Rating assigned? A. It is calculated from the Event Risk Rating. B. It is calculated from a combination of the Attack Severity Rating and Signature Fidelity Rating C. It is manually set by the administrator. D. It is set based upon SEAP functions. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27 Which two are best practices to implement profiling services in a distributed environment? (Choose two) A. use of device sensor feature B. configuration to send syslogs to the appropriate profiler node C. netflow probes enabled on central nodes D. node-specific probe configuration E. global enablement of the profiler service Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 28 When RADIUS NAC and AAA Override are enabled for WLC on a Cisco ISE, which two statements about RADIUS NAC are true? (Choose two.) A. It will return an access-accept and send the redirection URL for all users. B. It establishes secure connectivity between the RADIUS server and the ISE. C. It allows the ISE to send a CoA request that indicates when the user is authenticated. D. It is used for posture assessment, so the ISE changes the user profile based on posture result. E. It allows multiple users to authenticate at the same time. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 29 Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a unique characteristic of the most secure mode? A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 Which command can check a AAA server authentication for server group Group1, user cisco, and password cisco555 on a Cisco ASA device? A. ASA# test aaa-server authentication Group1 username cisco password cisco555 B. ASA# test aaa-server authentication group Group1 username cisco password cisco555 C. ASA# aaa-server authorization Group1 username cisco password cisco555 D. ASA# aaa-server authentication Group1 roger cisco555 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 A network security engineer is considering configuring 802.1x for security. He wants to use single host for data and single host for voice. Which port authentication method he use? A. Single host B. Multi host C. Multi auth D. Multi-domain Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32 Which configuration is required in the Cisco ISE Authentication policy to allow Central Web Authentication? A. Dot1x and if authentication failed continue B. MAB and if user not found continue C. MAB and if authentication failed continue D. Dot1x and if user not found continue Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33 Where would a Cisco ISE administrator define a named ACL to use in an authorization policy? A. In the conditions of an authorization rule. B. In the attributes of an authorization rule. C. In the permissions of an authorization rule. D. In an authorization profile associated with an authorization rule. 300-208 Practice Test | 300-208 Exam Questions | 300-208 Braindumps 11 / 16https://www.lead4pass.com/300-208.html 2019 Latest lead4pass 300-208 PDF and VCE dumps Download Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34 Which effect does the ip http secure-server command have on a Cisco ISE? A. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect on the command line. B. It enables the HTTP server for users to connect by using web-based authentication. C. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect by using web-based authentication. D. It enables the HTTPS server for users to connect on the command line. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35 What steps must you perform to deploy a CA-signed identify certificate on an ISE device? A. 1. Download the CA server certificate. 2. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the ISE. B. 1. Download the CA server certificate. 2. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the CA server. C. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 2. Download the CA server certificate. 3. Access the ISE server and submit the CA request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the CA server. D. 1. Generate a signing request and save it as a file. 2. Download the CA server certificate. 3. Access the CA server and submit the ISE request. 4. Install the issued certificate on the ISE. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 Which two are technologies that secure the control plane of the Cisco router? (Choose two.) A. Cisco IOS Flexible Packet Matching B. uRPF C. routing protocol authentication D. CPPr E. BPDU protection F. role-based access control Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 37 What is a required step when you deploy dynamic VLAN and ACL assignments? A. Configure the VLAN assignment. B. Configure the ACL assignment. C. Configure Cisco IOS Software 802.1X authenticator authorization. D. Configure the Cisco IOS Software switch for ACL assignment. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38 A network administrator wants to use dynamic VLAN assignment from Cisco ISE. Which option must be configured on the switch to support this? A. AAA authentication B. VTP C. DTP D. AAA authorization Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 39 Which three features should be enabled as best practices for MAB? (Choose three.) A. MD5 B. IP source guard C. DHCP snooping D. storm control E. DAI F. URPF Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 40 What are two actions that can occur when an 802.1X-enabled port enters violation mode? (Choose two.) A. The port is error disabled. B. The port drops packets from any new device that sends traffic to the port. C. The port generates a port resistance error. D. The port attempts to repair the violation. E. The port is placed in quarantine state. F. The port is prevented from authenticating indefinitely.
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Latest effective Cisco 300-206 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.) A. DHCP snooping B. IP Source Guard C. Telnet D. Secure Shell E. SNMP Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 Choose two correct statements about private-vlan. A. Interface that is assigned to primary-vlan ID (access mode) can communicate with interface with secondary vlan ID that belongs to same primary-vlan (same switch) B. Interface that is assigned to community vlan can communicate with interface in the same secondary vlan but it is also configured as protected (same switch) C. You have to configure dhcp snooping for both primary and secondary VLANs D. You have to configure DAI only for primary vlan E. You cannot combine private-vlan feature with protected ports ? Correct Answer: DE You can enable DHCP snooping on private VLANs. When you enable DHCP snooping on the primary VLAN, it is propagated to the secondary VLANs. If you configure DHCP snooping on a secondary VLAN, the configuration does not take effect if the primary VLAN is already configured. The same statement is true about DAI. A private-VLAN port cannot be a secure port and should not be configured as a protected port.
QUESTION 3 What command alters the SSL ciphers used by the Cisco Email Security Appliance for TLS sessions and HTTPS access? A. sslconfig B. sslciphers C. tlsconifg D. certconfig Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 When you set a Cisco IOS Router as an SSH server, which command specifies the RSA public key of the remote peer when you set the SSH server to perform RSA-based authentication? A. router(config-ssh-pubkey-user)#key B. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string C. router(config-ssh-pubkey)#key-string D. router(conf-ssh-pubkey-user)#key-string enable ssh Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Where do you apply a control plane services policy to implement Management Plane Protection on a Cisco Router? A. Control-plane router B. Control-plane host C. Control-plane interface management 0/0 D. Control-plane service policy Correct Answer: B http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4t/12_4t11/htsecmpp.html
QUESTION 6 Which three statements about private VLANs are true? (Choose three.) A. Isolated ports can talk to promiscuous and community ports. B. Promiscuous ports can talk to isolated and community ports. C. Private VLANs run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in client mode. D. Private VLANS run over VLAN Trunking Protocol in transparent mode. E. Community ports can talk to each other as well as the promiscuous port. F. Primary, secondary, and tertiary VLANs are required for private VLAN implementation. Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 7 Which option is the Cisco ASA on-box graphical management solution? A. SSH B. ASDM C. Console D. CSM Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Which three options describe how SNMPv3 traps can be securely configured to be sent by IOS? (Choose three.) A. An SNMPv3 group is defined to configure the read and write views of the group. B. An SNMPv3 user is assigned to SNMPv3 group and defines the encryption and authentication credentials. C. An SNMPv3 host is configured to define where the SNMPv3 traps will be sent. D. An SNMPv3 host is used to configure the encryption and authentication credentials for SNMPv3 traps. E. An SNMPv3 view is defined to configure the address of where the traps will be sent. F. An SNMPv3 group is used to configure the OIDs that will be reported. Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 9 What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on interfaces? A. 1024 bytes B. 1518 bytes C. 2156 bytes D. 9216 bytes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual cloud environment? A. Cisco Nexus 1000V B. Cisco VSG C. WSVA D. ESVA Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 With Cisco ASA active/standby failover, by default, how many monitored interface failures will cause failover to occur? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 You are going to add ASA to CSM (Cisco Security Manager). Which port on ASA must be reachable for CSM to succeed? A. 21 B. 22 C. 80 D. 443 Correct Answer: D Security Manager can use these transport protocols: SSL (HTTPS)–Secure Socket Layer, which is an HTTPS connection, is the only transport protocol used with PIX Firewalls, Adaptive Security Appliances (ASA), and Firewall Services Modules (FWSM). It is also the default protocol for IPS devices and for routers running Cisco IOS Software release 12.3 or higher. If you use SSL as the transport protocol on Cisco IOS routers, you must also configure SSH on the routers. Security Manager uses SSH connections to handle interactive command deployments during SSL deployments. Cisco Security Manager was using OpenSSL for the Transport Layer Security (TLS) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocols. Beginning with version 4.13, Cisco Security Manager replaced OpenSSL version 1.0.2 with Cisco SSL version 6.x. Cisco SSL enables FIPS compliance over full FIPS Validation which results in fast and cost-effective connectivity. The Common Criteria mode in Cisco SSL allows easier compliance. Cisco SSL is feature-forward when compared to OpenSSL. The product Security Baseline (PSB) requirements for Cisco SSL ensures important security aspects such as credential and key management, cryptography standards, antispoofing capabilities, integrity and tamper protection, and session, data, and stream management and administration are taken care of. SSH–Secure Shell is the default transport protocol for Catalyst switches and Catalyst 6500/7600 devices. You can also use it with Cisco IOS routers. Telnet–Telnet is the default protocol for routers running Cisco IOS software releases 12.1 and 12.2. You can also use it with Catalyst switches, Catalyst 6500/7600 devices, and routers running Cisco IOS Software release 12.3 and higher. See the Cisco IOS software documentation for configuring Telnet. HTTP–You can use HTTP instead of HTTPS (SSL) with IPS devices. HTTP is not the default protocol for any device type. TMS–Token Management Server is treated like a transport protocol in Security Manager, but it is not a real transport protocol. Instead, by configuring TMS as the transport protocol of a router, you are telling Security Manager to deploy configurations to a TMS. From the TMS, you can download the configuration to an eToken, plug the eToken into the router\\’s USB bus, and update the configuration. TMS is available only for certain routers running Cisco IOS Software 12.3 or higher. Security Manager can also use indirect methods to deploy configurations to devices, staging the configuration on a server that manages the deployment to the devices. These indirect methods also allow you to use dynamic IP addresses on your devices. The methods are not treated as transport protocols, but as adjuncts to the transport protocol for the device. You can use these indirect methods: AUS (Auto Update Server)–When you add a device to Security Manager, you can select the AUS server that is managing it. You can use AUS with PIX Firewalls and ASA devices. Configuration Engine–When you add a router to Security Manager, you can select the Configuration Engine that is managing it.
QUESTION 13 What are two enhancements of SSHv2 over SSHv1? (Choose two.) A. VRF-aware SSH support B. DH group exchange support C. RSA support D. keyboard-interactive authentication E. SHA support Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14 Which two commands can be used to create a Cisco Unified ACL within the ASA CLI? (Choose two.) A. ipv6 access-list B. object-group network C. ipv6 access-list webtype D. access-list extended E. object-group network nat-pat-grp Correct Answer: BD https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa90/configuration/guide/asa_90_cli_config/acl_extended.pdf
QUESTION 15 Which statement about Cisco IPS Manager Express is true? A. It provides basic device management for large-scale deployments. B. It provides a GUI for configuring IPS sensors and security modules. C. It enables communication with Cisco ASA devices that have no administrative access. D. It provides greater security than simple ACLs. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance? A. Trace B. Debug C. Informational D. Critical Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 Which two option are main challenges for public cloud data center? A. deployment cost B. tenant isolation C. disaster recovery D. system scalability E. network visibility Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18 If you encounter problems logging in to the Cisco Security Manager 4.4 web server or client or backing up its databases, which account has most likely been improperly modified? A. admin (the default administrator account) B. casuser (the default service account) C. guest (the default guest account) D. user (the default user account) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19 Which Cisco TrustSec role does a Cisco ASA firewall serve within an identity architecture? A. Access Requester B. Policy Decision Point C. Policy Information Point D. Policy Administration Point E. Policy Enforcement Point Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20 Which statement about Cisco Security Manager form factors is true? A. Cisco Security Manager Professional and Cisco Security Manager UCS Server Bundles support FWSMs. B. Cisco Security Manager Standard and Cisco Security Manager Professional support FWSMs. C. Only Cisco Security Manager Professional supports FWSMs. D. Only Cisco Security Manager Standard supports FWSMs. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21 If a switch port goes directly into a blocked state only when a superior BPDU is received, what mechanism must be in use? A. STP bpdu guard B. STP root guard C. SPT bpdu filter Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Refer to the exhibit. Why was the packet dropped? ****Exhibit is Missing**** (this exhibit is packet capture with traffic destination to port 23 and being drop by access- list) A. Telnet access is not allowed between these two nodes. B. NAT is not applied correctly for the 10.10.96.5 host C. The source port is configured incorrectly In the capture D. There is no route on the Cisco ASA to the destination host Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 A network engineer must mange and configurations to a cisco networking environment solutions accomplishes this task? A. cisco IPS manage express and pushing configuration to the ips units B. cisco security 4.5 or later and pushing configuration bundles to each of the,,,,, C. cisco adaptive security device manager to push configuration to each of the IPS D. fire SIGHT manager to bundle and push configuration to the IPS units installed Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 24 A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters: – The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on network devices. – The user needs read-write access to policies. – The account has no more rights than necessary for the job. What role will the administrator assign to the user? A. Administrator B. Security administrator C. System administrator D. Root Administrator E. Exec administrator Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25 Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers? A. Cisco ASDM B. Cisco CP Express C. Cisco ASA 5500 D. Cisco CP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26 Which are the most secure authentication and encryption options? (Choose two) A. DES B. 3DES C. AES D. MD5 E. SHA Correct Answer: CE https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/about/security-center/next-generation-cryptography.html#2
QUESTION 27 Which policy map action makes a Cisco router behave as a stateful firewall for matching traffic? A. Log B. Inspect C. Permit D. Deny Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28 What two are data and voice protocols do ASA 5500 supports? (Choose two) A. CTIQBE Inspection B. H.323 Inspection C. MGCP Inspection D. RTSP Inspection E. SIP Inspection F. Skinny (SCCP) Inspection Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 29 A. choosed to use udp as answer Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30 About User identity with domain (there is a screen), if user is not in domain, what identity will be? A. local B. default Correct Answer: A ASA Identity Firewal: The default domain is used for all users and user groups when a domain has not been explicitly configured for those users or groups. When a default domain is not specified, the default domain for users and groups is LOCAL. Additionally, the Identity Firewall uses the LOCAL domain for all locally defined user groups or locally defined users (users who log in and authenticate by using a VPN or web portal).
QUESTION 31 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this access list is true?
A. This access list does not work without 6to4 NAT B. IPv6 to IPv4 traffic permitted on the Cisco ASA by default C. This access list is valid and works without additional configuration D. This access list is not valid and does not work at all E. We can pass only IPv6 to IPv6 and IPv4 to IPv4 traffic Correct Answer: A ASA 9.0(1) code introduced the Unified ACL for IPv4 and IPv6. ACLs now support IPv4 and IPv6 addresses. You can even specify a mix of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses for the source and destination. The any keyword was changed to represent IPv4 and IPv6 traffic. The any4 and any6 keywords were added to represent IPv4-only and IPv6-only traffic, respectively. The IPv6-specific ACLs are deprecated. Existing IPv6 ACLs are migrated to extended ACLs.
QUESTION 32 Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of traffic? A. man-in-the-middle B. denial of service C. distributed denial of service D. CAM overflow Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33 Hotspot Question
Which statement is true of the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA? A. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to an FTP server before the buffer is overwritten. B. The contents of the internal buffer will be saved to flash memory before the buffer is overwritten. C. System log messages with a severity level of six and higher will be logged to the internal buffer. D. System log messages with a severity level of six and lower will be logged to the internal buffer. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 When you install a Cisco ASA AIP-SSM, which statement about the main Cisco ASDM home page is true? A. It is replaced by the Cisco AIP-SSM home page. B. It must reconnect to the NAT policies database. C. The administrator can manually update the page. D. It displays a new Intrusion Prevention panel. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35 Which of the following that Cisco engineer must secure a current monitoring environment? (Choose Two) A. RSA-SIG B. MD5 C. AES D. 3DES E. DES Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 36 You must restrict the interface on which management traffic can be received by the routers on your network. Which feature do you enable? A. MPP B. extended ACL on all of the interfaces C. CPP with a port filter D. AAA Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37 Which statement about static or default route on the Cisco ASA appliance is true? A. The admin distance is 1 by default. B. From the show route output, the [120/3] indicates an admin distance of 3. C. A default route is specified using the 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 address/mask combination. D. The tunneled command option is used to enable route tracking. E. The interface-name parameter in the route command is an optional parameter if the static route points to the next- hop router IP address. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Which Cisco prime Infrastructure features allows you to assign templates to a group of wireless LAN controllers with similar configuration requirements? A. Lightweight access point configuration template B. Composite template C. Controller configuration group D. Shared policy object Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39 CORRECT TEXT
Correct Answer: explanation Answer: Please check the steps in explanation part below: 1) Click on Service Policy Rules, then Edit the default inspection rule. 2) Click on Rule Actions, then enable HTTP as shown here:
3) Click on Configure, then add as shown here:
4) Create the new map in ASDM like shown:
5) Edit the policy as shown: 6) Hit OK
QUESTION 40 Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco ASA CLI commands configure these static routes in the Cisco ASA routing table? S 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 [1/0] via 172.16.1.10, dmzS 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 [2/0] via 172.16.1.11, dmz A. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 B. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 1 C. route dmz 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.1.11 2 D. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 E. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 1 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 1 F. route dmz 10.2.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.10 route dmz 10.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.11 2 Correct Answer: F
This is the latest update released by the Cisco CCNP Security Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions (SENSS v1.0) 300-206 exam questions and answers, and we share 40 exam questions and answers for free to help you improve your skills! You can download 300-206 pdf or watch the 300-206 YouTube video tutorial online! Get the full 300-206 exam dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-206.html (Total questions:358 Q&A). Help you pass the exam quickly!