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The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations.The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Latest effective CompTIA Security+ SY0-401 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 After recovering from a data breach in which customer data was lost, the legal team meets with the Chief Security Officer (CSO) to discuss ways to better protect the privacy of customer data. Which of the following controls support this goal? A. Contingency planning B. Encryption and stronger access control C. Hashing and non-repudiation D. Redundancy and fault tolerance Correct Answer: B Encryption is used to protect data/contents/documents. Access control refers to controlling who accesses any data/contents/documents and to exercise authorized control to the accessing of that data.
QUESTION 2 An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to integrate the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal? A. Unified Threat Management B. Virtual Private Network C. Single sign on D. Role-based management Correct Answer: A Unified Threat Management (UTM) is, basically, the combination of a firewall with other abilities. These abilities include intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc. Advantages of combining everything into one: You only have one product to learn. You only have to deal with a single vendor. IT provides reduced complexity.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is a security risk regarding the use of public P2P as a method of collaboration? A. Data integrity is susceptible to being compromised. B. Monitoring data changes induces a higher cost. C. Users are not responsible for data usage tracking. D. Limiting the amount of necessary space for data storage. Correct Answer: A Peer-to-peer (P2P) networking is commonly used to share files such as movies and music, but you must not allow users to bring in devices and create their own little networks. All networking must be done through administrators and not on a P2P basis. Data integrity can easily be compromised when using public P2P networking.
QUESTION 4 Which of the following technologies when applied to android and iOS environments, can an organization use to add security restrictions and encryption to existing mobile applications? (Select Two) A. Mobile device management B. Containerization C. Application whitelisting D. Application wrapping E. Mobile application store Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5 RC4 is a strong encryption protocol that is generally used with which of the following? A. WPA2 CCMP B. PEAP C. WEP D. EAP-TLS Correct Answer: C Rivest Cipher 4 (RC4) is a 128-bit stream cipher used WEP and WPA encryption.
QUESTION 6 The Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to improve security surrounding storage of customer passwords. The company currently stores passwords as SHA hashes. Which of the following can the CTO implement requiring the LEAST change to existing systems? A. Smart cards B. TOTP C. Key stretching D. Asymmetric keys Correct Answer: A Smart cards usually come in two forms. The most common takes the form of a rectangular piece of plastic with an embedded microchip. The second is as a USB token. It contains a built in processor and has the ability to securely store and process information. A “contact” smart card communicates with a PC using a smart card reader whereas a “contactless” card sends encrypted information via radio waves to the PC. Typical scenarios in which smart cards are used include interactive logon, e-mail signing, e-mail decryption and remote access authentication. However, smart cards are programmable and can contain programs and data for many different applications. For example smart cards may be used to store medical histories for use in emergencies, to make electronic cash payments or to verify the identity of a customer to an e-retailer. Microsoft provides two device independent APIs to insulate application developers from differences between current and future implementations: CryptoAPI and Microsoft Win32?SCard APIs. The Cryptography API contains functions that allow applications to encrypt or digitally sign data in a flexible manner, while providing protection for the user\\’s sensitive private key data. All cryptographic operations are performed by independent modules known as cryptographic service providers (CSPs). There are many different cryptographic algorithms and even when implementing the same algorithm there are many choices to make about key sizes and padding for example. For this reason, CSPs are grouped into types, in which each supported CryptoAPI function, by default, performs in a way particular to that type. For example, CSPs in the PROV_DSS provider type support DSS Signatures and MD5 and SHA hashing.
QUESTION 7 A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution. Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO). A. TCP 21 B. TCP 23 C. TCP 53 D. UDP 23 E. UDP 53 Correct Answer: CE DNS uses TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers, whereas UDP port 53 is used for queries.
QUESTION 8 In order to gain an understanding of the latest attack tools being used in the wild, an administrator puts a Unix server on the network with the root users password to set root. Which of the following best describes this technique? A. Pharming B. Honeypot C. Gray box testing D. phishing Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 Company XYZ recently salvaged company laptops and removed all hard drives, but the Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned about disclosure of confidential information. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to dispose of these hard drives? A. Degaussing B. Physical Destruction C. Lock up hard drives in a secure safe D. Wipe Correct Answer: B The physical description of hard drives is the only secure means of disposing hard drives. This can include incineration, an acid bath, and crushing.
QUESTION 10 A malicious user has collected the following list of information: 192.168.1.5 OpenSSH-Server_5.8 192.168.1.7 OpenSSH-Server_5.7 192.168.1.9 OpenSSH-Server_5.7 Which of the following techniques is MOST likely to gather this type of data? A. Banner grabbing B. Port scan C. Host scan D. Ping scan Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 It is important to staff who use email messaging to provide PII to others on a regular basis to have confidence that their messages are not intercepted or altered during transmission. They are concerned about which of the following types of security control? A. Integrity B. Safety C. Availability D. Confidentiality Correct Answer: A Integrity means that the messages/ data is not altered. PII is personally identifiable information that can be used to uniquely identify an individual. PII can be used to ensure the integrity of data/messages.
QUESTION 12 A small business needs to incorporate fault tolerance into their infrastructure to increase data availability. Which of the following options would be the BEST solution at a minimal cost? A. Clustering B. Mirrored server C. RAID D. Tape backup Correct Answer: C RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID can achieve fault tolerance using software which can be done using the existing hardware and software.
QUESTION 13 While rarely enforced, mandatory vacation policies are effective at uncovering: A. Help desk technicians with oversight by multiple supervisors and detailed quality control systems. B. Collusion between two employees who perform the same business function. C. Acts of incompetence by a systems engineer designing complex architectures as a member of a team. D. Acts of gross negligence on the part of system administrators with unfettered access to system and no oversight. Correct Answer: D Least privilege (privilege reviews) and job rotation is done when mandatory vacations are implemented. Then it will uncover areas where the system administrators neglected to check all users\\’ privileges since the other users must fill in their positions when they are on their mandatory vacation.
QUESTION 14 A cafe provides laptops for Internet access to their customers. The cafe is located in the center corridor of a busy shopping mall. The company has experienced several laptop thefts from the cafe during peak shopping hours of the day. Corporate has asked that the IT department provide a solution to eliminate laptop theft. Which of the following would provide the IT department with the BEST solution? A. Attach cable locks to each laptop B. Require each customer to sign an AUP C. Install a GPS tracking device onto each laptop D. Install security cameras within the perimeter of the caf? Correct Answer: A All laptop cases include a built-in security slot in which a cable lock can be inserted to prevent it from easily being removed from the premises.
QUESTION 15 Several departments in a corporation have a critical need for routinely moving data from one system to another using removable storage devices. Senior management is concerned with data loss and the introduction of malware on the network. Which of the following choices BEST mitigates the range of risks associated with the continued use of removable storage devices? A. Remote wiping enabled for all removable storage devices B. Full-disk encryption enabled for all removable storage devices C. A well defined acceptable use policy D. A policy which details controls on removable storage use Correct Answer: D Removable storage is both a benefit and a risk and since not all mobile devices support removable storage, the company has to has a comprehensive policy which details the controls of the use of removable s to mitigate the range of risks that are associated with the use of these devices.
QUESTION 16 A compromised workstation utilized in a Distributed Denial of Service (DDOS) attack has been removed from the network and an image of the hard drive has been created. However, the system administrator stated that the system was left unattended for several hours before the image was created. In the event of a court case, which of the following is likely to be an issue with this incident? A. Eye Witness B. Data Analysis of the hard drive C. Chain of custody D. Expert Witness Correct Answer: C Chain of custody deals with how evidence is secured, where it is stored, and who has access to it. When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been. The evidence must always be within your custody, or you\\’re open to dispute about possible evidence tampering.
QUESTION 17 Which of the following works by implanting software on systems but delays execution until a specific set of conditions is met? A. Logic bomb B. Trojan C. Scareware D. Ransomware Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 A technician has been tasked with installing and configuring a wireless access point for the engineering department. After the AP has been installed, there have been reports the employees from other departments have been connecting to it without approval. Which of the following would BEST address these concerns? A. Change the SSID of the AP so that it reflects a different department, obscuring its ownership B. Implement WPA2 encryption in addition to WEP to protect the data-in-transit C. Configure the AP to allow only to devices with pre-approved hardware addresses D. Lower the antenna\\’s power so that it only covers the engineering department\\’s offices Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19 A security administrator suspects that an employee in the IT department is utilizing a reverse proxy to bypass the company\\’s content filter and browse unapproved and non-work related sites while at work. Which of the following tools could BEST be used to determine how the employee is connecting to the reverse proxy? A. Port scanner B. Vulnerability scanner C. Honeypot D. Protocol analyzer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20 A company has decided to move large data sets to a cloud provider in order to limit the costs of new infrastructure. Some of the data is sensitive and the Chief Information Officer wants to make sure both parties have a clear understanding of the controls needed to protect the data. Which of the following types of interoperability agreement is this? A. ISA B. MOU C. SLA D. BPA Correct Answer: A ISA/ Interconnection Security Agreement is an agreement between two organizations that have connected systems. The agreement documents the technical requirements of the connected systems.
QUESTION 21 An administrator performs a risk calculation to determine if additional availability controls need to be in place. The administrator estimates that a server fails and needs to be replaced once every 2 years at a cost of $8,000. Which of the following represents the factors that the administrator would use to facilitate this calculation? A. ARO= 0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE= $2,000 B. ARO=0.5; SLE=$8,000; ALE=$4,000 C. ARO=0.5; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000 D. ARO=2; SLE= $4,000; ALE=$8,000 E. ARO=2; SLE= $8,000; ALE= $16,000 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 Jane, an individual, has recently been calling various financial offices pretending to be another person to gain financial information. Which of the following attacks is being described? A. Phishing B. Tailgating C. Pharming D. Vishing Correct Answer: D Vishing (voice or VoIP phishing) is an electronic fraud tactic in which individuals are tricked into revealing critical financial or personal information to unauthorized entities. Vishing works like phishing but does not always occur over the Internet and is carried out using voice technology. A vishing attack can be conducted by voice email, VoIP (voice over IP), or landline or cellular telephone. The potential victim receives a message, often generated by speech synthesis, indicating that suspicious activity has taken place in a credit card account, bank account, mortgage account or other financial service in their name. The victim is told to call a specific telephone number and provide information to “verify identity” or to “ensure that fraud does not occur.” If the attack is carried out by telephone, caller ID spoofing can cause the victim\\’s set to indicate a legitimate source, such as a bank or a government agency. Vishing is difficult for authorities to trace, particularly when conducted using VoIP. Furthermore, like many legitimate customer services, vishing scams are often outsourced to other countries, which may render sovereign law enforcement powerless. Consumers can protect themselves by suspecting any unsolicited message that suggests they are targets of illegal activity, no matter what the medium or apparent source. Rather than calling a number given in any unsolicited message, a consumer should directly call the institution named, using a number that is known to be valid, to verify all recent activity and to ensure that the account information has not been tampered with.
QUESTION 23 An administrator intends to configure an IPSec solution that provides ESP with integrity protection, but not confidentiality protection. Which of the following AES modes of operation would meet this integrity-only requirement? A. GMAC B. PCBC C. CBC D. GCM E. CFB Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called: A. Firewalls B. Content filters C. Routers D. NIDS Correct Answer: B A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.
QUESTION 25 The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated web based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) business functions be moved offshore to reduce cost, reduce IT overheads, and improve availability. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) has agreed with the CIO\\’s direction but has mandated that key authentication systems be run within the organization\\’s network. Which of the following would BEST meet the CIO and CRO\\’s requirements? A. Software as a Service B. Infrastructure as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Hosted virtualization service Correct Answer: A Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.
QUESTION 26 A security administrator implements a web server that utilizes an algorithm that requires other hashing standards to provide data integrity. Which of the following algorithms would meet the requirement? A. SHA B. MD5 C. RIPEMD D. HMAC Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub- interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces? A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128. B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it. C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic. D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service. Correct Answer: B A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.
QUESTION 28 A website administrator has received an alert from an application designed to check the integrity of the company\\’s website. The alert indicated that the hash value for a particular MPEG file has changed. Upon further investigation, the media appears to be the same as it was before the alert. Which of the following methods has MOST likely been used? A. Cryptography B. Time of check/time of use C. Man in the middle D. Covert timing E. Steganography Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 29 After an audit, it was discovered that the security group memberships were not properly adjusted for employees\\’ accounts when they moved from one role to another. Which of the following has the organization failed to properly implement? (Select TWO). A. Mandatory access control enforcement. B. User rights and permission reviews. C. Technical controls over account management. D. Account termination procedures. E. Management controls over account management. F. Incident management and response plan. Correct Answer: BE Reviewing user rights and permissions can be used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of the corporation and their job descriptions since they were all moved to different roles. Control over account management would have taken into account the different roles that employees have and adjusted the rights and permissions of these roles accordingly.
QUESTION 30 Mobile tablets are used by employees on the sales floor to access customer data. Ann a customer recently reported that another customer was able to access her personal information on the tablet after the employee left the area. Which of the following would BEST prevent these issues from reoccurring? A. Screen Locks B. Full-device encryption C. Application control D. Asset tracking Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31 Ann, a security administrator, is strengthening the security controls of the company\\’s campus. Her goal is to prevent people from accessing open locations that are not supervised, such as around the receiving dock. She is also concerned that employees are using these entry points as a way of bypassing the security guard at the main entrance. Which of the following should Ann recommend that would BEST address her concerns? A. Increase the lighting surrounding every building on campus B. Build fences around campus with gate entrances C. Install cameras to monitor the unsupervised areas D. Construct bollards to prevent vehicle entry in non-supervised areas Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Which of the following authentication services should be replaced with a more secure alternative? A. RADIUS B. TACACS C. TACACS+ D. XTACACS Correct Answer: B Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System (TACACS) is less secure than XTACACS, which is a proprietary extension of TACACS, and less secure than TACACS+, which replaced TACACS and XTACACS.
QUESTION 33 Sara, a security engineer, is testing encryption ciphers for performance. Which of the following ciphers offers strong encryption with the FASTEST speed? A. 3DES B. Blowfish C. Serpent D. AES256 Correct Answer: B Blowfish is an encryption system invented by a team led by Bruce Schneier that performs a 64-bit block cipher at very fast speeds. Blowfish is a fast, except when changing keys. It is a symmetric block cipher that can use variable-length keys (from 32 bits to 448 bits).
QUESTION 34 A web startup wants to implement single sign-on where its customers can log on to the site by suing their personal and existing corporate email credentials regardless of which company they work for. Is this directly supported by SAML? A. Mo not without extensive partnering and API integration with all required email providers B. Yes SAML is a web based single sign-on implementation exactly fir this purpose C. No a better approach would be to use required email providers LDAP or RADIUS repositories D. Yes SAML can use oauth2 to provide this functionality out of the box Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35 The chief security officer (CSO) has issued a new policy to restrict generic or shared accounts on company systems. Which of the following sections of the policy requirements will have the most impact on generic and shared accounts? A. Account lockout B. Password length C. Concurrent logins D. Password expiration Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36 A company is concerned that a compromised certificate may result in a man-in-the-middle attack against backend financial servers. In order to minimize the amount of time a compromised certificate would be accepted by other servers, the company decides to add another validation step to SSL/TLS connections. Which of the following technologies provides the FASTEST revocation capability? A. Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) B. Public Key Cryptography (PKI) C. Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL) D. Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA) Correct Answer: A CRL (Certificate Revocation List) was first released to allow the CA to revoke certificates, however due to limitations with this method it was succeeded by OSCP. The main advantage to OCSP is that because the client is allowed query the status of a single certificate, instead of having to download and parse an entire list there is much less overhead on the client and network.
QUESTION 37 A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default? A. 20 B. 21 C. 22 D. 23 Correct Answer: B When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.
QUESTION 38 Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model? A. Packet Filter Firewall B. Stateful Firewall C. Proxy Firewall D. Application Firewall Correct Answer: B Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.
QUESTION 39 An intrusion has occurred in an internet facing system. The security administrator would like to gather forensic evidence while the system is still in operation. Which of the following procedures should the administrator perform FIRST on the system? A. Make a drive image B. Take hashes of system data C. Collect information in RAM D. Capture network traffic Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40 A company hosts its public websites internally. The administrator would like to make some changes to the architecture. The three goals are: reduce the number of public IP addresses in use by the web servers drive all the web traffic through a central point of control mitigate automated attacks that are based on IP address scanning Which of the following would meet all three goals? A. Firewall B. Load balancer C. URL filter D. Reverse proxy Correct Answer: D The purpose of a proxy server is to serve as a proxy or middle man between clients and servers. Using a reverse proxy you will be able to meet the three stated goals.
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Server+ covers server architecture, administration, storage, security, networking, troubleshooting as well as disaster recovery.
Latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-003 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 An administrator has been instructed to add four additional drives to a server configured with RAID 5. The server is using 146GB drives for the data. Without changing the configuration, how much additional data space would be available if the administrator purchased 300GB drives and added them to the existing array? A. 438GB B. 584GB C. 900GB D. 1200GB Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 An administrator has figured out a possible cause to a problem. Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take? A. Implement the solution. B. Verify full system functionality. C. Establish a plan of action to identify the problem. D. Test the theory. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A server failed Thursday evening before the nightly backup. The backup scheme in place was full backups every Sunday, incremental backups on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday, and differential backups on Tuesday, Thursday, and Saturday. To fully restore the server, which of the following is the LEAST amount of backup sets required? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which of the following RAID levels would be appropriate given two drives and a need for fault tolerance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 D. RAID 10 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 When adding another server to an existing rack mount system, which of the following should the administrator consider FIRST? A. Load on UPS B. Rack temperature C. Room temperature D. Ease of access Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following uses a switching fabric to connect storage LUNs to hosts? A. Fiber Channel B. SCSI C. SATA D. Ethernet Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 A technician works for a company that has recently been affected by a virus. The virus entered the network by using port 6000. Port 6000 is used by an application located on a server. The technician has been asked to block this port on all servers and computers except for the one server which uses this port. Which of the following should the technician do? A. Update the antivirus application B. Install critical update security patches C. Adjust the software firewall settings D. Replace the current antivirus program Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 The staff is not able to access a database server. The server has an \\’Operating System not found\\’ error and is set to boot from a fiber channel SAN. All other database servers are set to boot from the SAN and access the same switch and data as this database server. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem? A. The SAN is offline B. Fiber channel switch C. Multiple failed drives in the SAN D. HBA Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which of the following protocols is used to monitor both hardware and software? A. TCP/IP B. SMTP C. RDP D. SNMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 A technician notices the storage space available on a data server is rapidly decreasing. A few users seem to be storing considerably more data than the other users. Which of the following should the technician implement to give all users the same amount of available storage space? A. Disk quotas B. Group memberships C. Logon scripts D. Shadow volumes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 An administrator is in charge of a server that houses various applications. Which of the following BEST explains this server type? A. Dedicated Application Server B. File Server C. Shared Application Server D. Peer-to-Peer Application Server Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 A technician needs to replace the processor on a server\\’s motherboard. The motherboard supports Socket 478 processors. Which of the following processors would be compatible with this motherboard? A. AMD Athlon B. Pentium III C. Atom D. Pentium 4 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 An administrator is testing setting the IP address on a Linux server from command line. Which of the following commands is used to set the default gateway for the server? A. route B. traceroute C. ipconfig D. nmap Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14 Which of the following connects the L2 cache to the processor? A. PCI B. Frontside bus C. Backside bus D. System I/O bus Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15 An administrator logs into a server and notices slow performance. While troubleshooting the problem the administrator notices that an unfamiliar process in the Task Manager is running at 100% CPU usage. The administrator tries to end the task and receives `Access is denied\\’. Which of the following steps would allow the administrator to terminate that process? A. Adding the `Run as a service\\’ permission to their account. B. Running the kill utility. C. Adding their account to the remote users group. D. Ending the services.exe process then ending the runaway process. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16 A company backs up their data using daily, weekly, and monthly tape backups. The weekly backups are also known as which of the following? A. Son B. Father C. Grandfather D. Great-grandfather Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17 Given four drives, which of the following RAID levels will allow for the GREATEST performance? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18 Several remote sales employees, who have come into the office this week, report that they are unable to get on the Internet, but no other users have reported similar issues. The helpdesk has escalated the issue and the case notes state that the users have IP addresses that begin with 169. Which of the following should the system administrator check FIRST? A. DHCP server B. Network switches C. DNS server D. Core router Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19 Which of the following backup methodologies is MOST time efficient for backing up data? A. Incremental B. Snapshot C. Differential D. GFS Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20 Which of the following on-board components is used exclusively for exchanging data with remote machines? A. PCI B. USB C. AGP D. NIC Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 21 A dedicated management port would use which of the following protocols? A. POP3 B. IPMI C. TFTP D. SFTP Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22 An administrator creates a new directory then shares it on the Windows server. The administrator sets the permissions for everyone to “Modify” but users report they are unable to create or delete documents. Which of the following is the cause? A. The administrator forgot to change the share permissions B. The users were not part of the “Everyone” built in group C. The administrator shared the files but not the folder D. “Modify” only allows users to change existing documents Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23 An administrator replaces the network card in a web server. After replacing the network card some users can access the server but others cannot. Which of the following is the FIRST thing the administrator should check? A. Default gateway B. The ports on the switch C. Port security on the server\\’s switch port D. Ethernet cable Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24 As a best practice, when should the server be rebooted to apply the reboot required patches? A. During scheduled downtime B. Once a year C. As soon as the patches are finished installing D. At the same time every day Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25 A server technician needs a way to map a network drive to all the users in the company. Which of the following could the technician use to accomplish this task? A. Logon script B. Disk management C. Group membership D. SNMP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26 Which of the following would an administrator follow when disposing of equipment for a financial institution? A. Local laws and regulations B. Escalation procedure regulations C. Manufacturer\\’s regulations D. Server OEM regulations Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27 Which of the following Windows Server 2003 technologies can help with making backups of open files? A. Differential backup B. Snapshot C. VSS D. Incremental backup Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28 Which of the following RAID levels combines mirroring and striping? A. RAID 1 B. RAID 5 C. RAID 6 D. RAID 10 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29 A customer has purchased a triple channel memory kit containing three DDR3 RAM modules. The server the RAM is intended for only has a dual channel capable motherboard. Which of the following is the BEST action to perform? A. Install only two modules as the RAM has to be installed in pairs B. Purchase one additional RAM module to make it even. Three modules will function as triple channel and the additional module will be for parity C. Purchase dual channel memory. The triple channel memory may be incompatible with the server motherboard D. Install the RAM. Two modules will perform as dual channel and one as single channel Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30 The failure of which of the following components can cause a server to display a POST error message? A. Parallel HASP key B. DVD driver C. Memory D. Chassis LED Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31 Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that a server is up-to-date with all updates as soon as they are released? A. Automatic updates set to install once per week B. Automatic updates set to install updates automatically C. Automatic updates set to download all updates automatically D. Manual updates done daily at noon Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 32 Recently traffic to the company web server has more than doubled, resulting in slower response times from the server. An administrator has decided to add a second, identical 10/100/1000 NIC to the server. The server is presently connected to a 10/100/1000 switch, with four open ports on the switch. Which of the following is the BEST solution to speed up web traffic? A. Free up more ports on the switch B. Enable server load balancing C. Move the second network adapter to a new subnet D. Enable network adapter teaming Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33 A company has recently switched ISPs and is being assigned a new block of public addresses. The public web and FTP servers must be re-addressed to support this change. After changing IP addresses and updating the DNS records many customers have reported that they are not able to access the web or FTP servers. Which of the following could have been done prior to making these changes to make it more transparent to users? A. Reduce the TTL on the DHCP records. B. Configure a primary DNS server for the PTR records. C. Reduce the TTL on the DNS records. D. Configure a caching only DNS server. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34 When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory supported? A. 1GB B. 2GB C. 4GB D. 8GB Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35 Which of the following is a best practice that can be used to ensure consistency when building systems? A. Server build checklist B. Server baselining tools C. Architecture diagrams D. Hardware compatibility list Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36 A company wants to expand their storage capacity in a flexible manner over their existing network. Which of the following storage solutions would they consider? A. External RAID array on an existing server B. Network Attached Storage C. Storage Area Network D. Tape library Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which of the following will identify the symbol used on Single-Ended SCSI devices? A. A B. B C. C D. D Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38 Which of the following is an advantage of using a KVM with multiple servers? A. Eliminates the need for backup tapes B. Increases redundancy C. Saves physical space in the racks D. Offers additional runtime for the UPS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39 Which of the following would restrict traffic from a specific host to a network? A. MIBs B. NAS C. ACL D. SMTP Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40 Which of the following types of backup modifies the archive bit? (Select TWO). A. Copy backup B. Selective backup C. Differential backup D. Incremental backup E. Full backup Correct Answer: DE
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